From Powerpoints Flashcards by Rhaizza Mae Guerra

Catabolism: ____________; Anabolism: ____________

Exergonic; endergonic

Converging; diverging

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Competitive inhibitor of Suc-DH

Malonate (complex 2)

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Rotenone and barbiturates such as amobarbital and amytal inhibit _______

NDAH-DH (complex 1)

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Antimycin A and Dimercaprol inhibit _________

Cyt C reductase (complex 3)

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Are lipid soluble weak acids; dissolve in the membrane and function as carriers for H+

Uncouplers

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Oil drop or mixed micelle model of lipoprotein structure differ in
A. Size of the neutral lipid core
B. Lipid composition in the core
C. Apolipoprotein
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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Cofactors for enzymes C-II is for

Lipoprotein lipase

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Cofactors for enzymes A-I is for

Lecithin and cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

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Enzyme inhibitors for lipoprotein lipase

A-III and C-III

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Enzyme inhibitors for cholesteryl ester transferprotein (CETP)

C-1

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Ligands for interaction with lipoprotein receptors in tissues for LDL receptor

B-100 and E

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Ligands for interaction with lipoprotein receptorsintissues for HDL receptor

A-I

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VLDLs are converted to LDL through the action of

Lipoprotein lipase and hepatic lipase

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Cholesterol is incorporated into the plasma membranes and excess is re-esterified by

Acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT)

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A co-factor for the lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT)

Apoprotein A-1

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Apo C and Apo E are synthesized in the

Liver

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Major function of HDL

Repository for the ApoC and ApoE required in the metabolism of chylomicron and VLDL

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HDL is a scavenger for cholesterol from

Peripheral tissues

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Cholesterol esters can be transferred to VLDL and LDL via the action of

Cholesterol ester transfer lipoprotein (CETP) aka apo-D

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Fatty acid synthesis requires

Malonyl CoA and acetyl CoA

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A three carbon intermediate that initiates fatty acid synthesis

Malonyl CoA

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Sources of acetyl CoA
A. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate (carbs)
B. Oxidative degradation of some amino acids (proteins)
C. Beta oxidation of long chain fatty acids (fats)
D. All of the above

D. All of he above

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Arrange the steps in fatty acid biosynthesis

Condensation
Reduction
Dehydration
Reduction

1-2-3-4

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What group is reduced to an alcohol by NADPH

Beta-ketogroup

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In FA biosynthesis, the elimination of water creates a

Double bond (dehydration)

All the reactions in the fatty acid synthetic process are catalyzed by a multi-enzyme complex called

Fatty acid synthase

How many cycles of condensation and reduction produce the saturated palmitoyl group

Seven

In FA synthesis, this enzyme catalyzes a hydrolisis reaction to release palmitate (16:0)

Palmitoyl thioesterase

FA synthase complex is found exclusively in the

Cytosol

Acetyl CoA production occurs in the

Mitochondria (mitochondrial inner membrane is impermeable to acetyl CoA)

Oxaloacetate cannot return to the mitochondrial matrix directly, so oxaloacetate is reduced to

Malate

Intra mitrochondrial acetyl CoA first reacts with oxaloacetate o form

Citrate

Citrate then passes into the cytosol through the mitochondrial inner membrane on the

Citrate tranposter

In the cytosol, citrate is cleaved by __________ regenerating acetyl CoA

Citrate lyase

Malate returns to the mitochondrial matrix on the _____________ transporter in exchange for citrate

Malate-alpha-ketoglutarate

In hepatocytes and adipocytes, cystosolic NADPH is largely generated by the _________ and by the ____________

Malic enzyme and pentose phosphate pathway

``` What is the major proton collector? A. NADH B. NAD+ C. NADPH D. A & B ```

D. A & B

Most important storage form of glucose derive from diet

Triglycerides

Major source of oxaloacetic acid

Glucose

Very important pathway in intermediary metabolism

Tricarboxylic acid

Allows for the complete oxidation of the major biomolecules including glucose

TCA cycle

Alternative pathway used for glucose metabolism for the cells that produce NADPH and other simple sugars

Pentose phosphate pathway

Used as an electron carrier in fatty acid synthesis or lipogenesis

NADPH

Important component of nucleic acids (RNA and DNA)

Ribose

Most important function of carbohydrates and glucose

Role as the only major biomolecule that could be used as a source of energy in the absence of oxygen

True or False: Oxidation of glucose can still continue even without oxygen

True

In the end stage of glycolysis, pyruvate may be converted to lactate with the help of what enzyme

Lactate dehydrogenase

Major storage form of glucose

Fatty acids Because glycogen remains a polar molecule owing its partially oxidized state. As a result, glycogen is stored in the cell in a highly hydrated form.

A gram of glucose yields

4 kcal

A gram of fat yields

9 kcal

True of fatty acids

Most fatty acids in the body are saturated and highly reduced. They are hydrophobic and could be stored in a highly "dehydrated" state

True or false: glucose may be converted to fatty acids and vice versa

False Glucose may be converted to fatty acids, but the reverse is not true

The only major contributor to synthesis of new glucose

Amino acids

The only major biomolecule that could be used by cells for energy in the absence of oxygen

Glucose

Regulates glucose, fatty acid and amino acid metabolism, but responds primarily to serum glucose levels

Insulin

Other hormones that respond primarily to glucose levels but affect not only carbohydrate but also fatty acid and amino acid metabolism

Thyroid hormone, epinephrine, glucagon

Insulin is released by what when serum glucose starts to increase

Beta cells of the pancreas

Insulin stimulates entry of glucose in certain cells as well as ________, ________ and ________

Glycogen synthesis, fatty acid synthesis and protein synthesis

Insulin inhibits what

Lipolysis, beta-oxidation and gluconeogensis

Saliva contains what

Amylase

Absorption of glucose through the intestines occurs primarily through

Facilitated transport

What glucose transporter is found in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle that is stimulated by insulin

Glucose transporter 4

Glucose transporter that is ubiquitous, expressed to largest degree in the brain, placenta and most cultured cells

GLUT1

Glucose transporter in liver, beta cells of pancreas and kidneys

GLUT2

Glucose transporter that is ubiquitous

GLUT3

Glucose transporter found in adipose tissue, heart and skeletal muscle

GLUT4

Glucose transporter found in small intestine

GLUT5

Glucose is immediately phosphorylated to glucose 6 phosphateby what enzyme

Hexokinase (glucokinase in the liver) Which traps glucose inside the cell as G6P is more highly polarized that glucose and is of significantly larger size

Conversion to G6P

Decreases the concentration of glucose inside the cell, thus allowing for more glucose to enter

3 fates of G6P

Could be used in the pentose phosphate pathway to produce ribose and other sugars, used in glycogen synthesis, undergo glycolysis

Major energy producing reaction in carbohydrate metabolism and the initial stage in the conversion of glucose into fatty acids

Glycolysis

Enzymes that catalyze the conversion from glucose to glucose 6 phosphate

Hexokinase (in non-hepatic tissues) and glucokinase (in the liver)

Difference between glucokinase and hexokinase

Glucokinase has a higher Km that hexokinase and is not inhibited by G6P. Hexokinase is neither regulated by insulin nor glucagon.

When serum glucose and insulin levels are high, the G6P ends up being stored as

Fatty acids and glycogen

When insulin levels are low, the glucose that is extracted is used for energy through

Glycolysis

The signal for glycogenolysis in the skeletalmuscle is

Epinephrine

The forward reaction is catalyzed by

Phosphofructokinase (PFK1)

The reverse reaction is catalyzed by

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase

The phosphate donor is

ATP So that the forward reaction is highly endergonic

Fructose 2,6 biphosphate stimulates

Phosphofructokinase 1 (glycolysis part)

Fructose 2,6 biphosphate inhibits

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase (gluconeogenesis part)

Phosphoenol pyruvate ---> pyruvate

Is strictly an irreversible reaction with the corresponding reactions in gluconeogenesis proceeding very differently

Phosphoenol pyruvate ---> pyruvate is catalyzed by what enzyme and produces how many ATP

Pyruvate kinase and one ATP

Once pyruvate is formed, it is transported into the mitochondrion where it is converted to acetyl CoA by what enzyme

Pyruvate dehydrogenase Strictly irreversible reaction and also explains why fatty acids could never be converted back to new glucose

Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by ATP and the amino acids _______ and ________

Alanine and phenylalanine

Acetyl CoA causes inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase by stimulating the

Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase

Inhibits the kinase and activates PDH

Pyruvate

Oxaloacetate is easily converted to malate inside the mitochondrion by the enzyme

Malate dehydrogenase

Oxaloacetate is converted to phosphoenol pyruvate by the enzyme

PEP carboxykinase

Whole pyruvate -> PEP cycle consumes _______ while the reverseprodices only

2 ATP equivalents; 1ATP resulting in a net requirement of 1ATP

Insulin is responsible for

Protein synthesis

Glucagon is responsible for

Amino acid breakdown

Whereas glucose is the substrate for glycolysis, kt is the product of

Gluconeogenesis

The substrates for gluconeogenesis are the amino acids while the products of glycolysis are

ATP and NADH2

Step which determines the flux between glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

Fructose-6-phosphate: fructose 1,6 biphosphate substrate cycle

Removal of the phosphate group is done by this enzyme

Glycose 6 phosphate Found only in the liver and to a lesser extent in the renal cells

Glycogen metabolism is controlled by regulation of the enzymes

Glycogen phosphorylase (involved in glycogenolysis) and glycogen (involved in glycogenesis)

The activation of protein kinase b is done in the presence of high levels of cyclic AMP, formed from ATP by the enzyme

Adenyl cyclase

Roundabout way of activating glycogen phosphorylase with a signal from glucagon or epinephrine is called

Amplification

The enzyme catalyzing the first reaction in fatty acid synthesis (the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

When fatty acid synthesis from glucose is taking place, degradation of fatty acids through beta-oxidation in the mitochondrion is prevented by inhibition of carnitine palmitoyl transferase I (CPT I) by ________

Malonyl CoA

Processes which allow for utilization and storage of glucose

Glycolysis and glycogen synthesis

Allows for regeneration of glucose

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Inside the enterocytes, the lipids are aggregated into what

Chylomicrons

Enzyme that converts the surface phospholipid and cholesterol into cholesterol esters and lysolecithin

Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)

Cholesterol is eliminated from the liver by being exerted as what

Bile acids

Involves the hydrolytic removal of the fatty acid moiety from the glycerol backbone of triglycerides

Lipolysis

The opposite process of lipolysis where fatty acid molecules are added to the glycerol backbone

Esterification

Cholesterol has role in

Atheroscelrosis and cardiovascular disease

Regulation of cholesterol synthesis is exerted at the step catalyzed by what enzyme

HMG CoA reductase

Multiple generations affected A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Males and females equally likely to be affected A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

The incidence of the condition is much higher in males than in females A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

A male or female child of an affected mother has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and thus being affected with the disorder A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

D. X-linked dominant inheritance

Males and females affected in equal proportion A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Both parents must be carriers of a single copy of the responsible gene in order for a child to be affected A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

All daughters of affected males will be carriers A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

All female children of an affected father will be affected (daughters possesses their fathers' chromosome) A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

D. X-linked dominant inheritance

Male to male transmission does occur A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

The risk is 25% for each child of carrier parents A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

Sons of carrier females have 50% chance of being affected, 50% chance unaffected, in each pregnancy A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

Each offspring of an affected parent has 50% chance of being affected A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

Ask about consanguinity A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

The condition is never transmitted directly from father to son A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Autosomal recessive inheritance C. X-linked recessive inheritance D. X-linked dominant inheritance

C. X-linked recessive inheritance

Myotonic dystrophy, fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease are examples of

Triplet Repeat Expansion Disorders

An expansion of a segment of DNA that contains a repeat of 3 nucleotides such as CGGCGGCGGCGG.....CGG is called

Triplet Repeat Expansion Disorders

Only one copy of the gene is expressed, expression of the gene is variable depending on which parent the gene came from, the active gene is preferentially always from one parent over the other

Genomic Imprinting

Stop codons

UAG, UAA, UGA

Base + sugar =

Nucleoside

Base + sugar + phosphate =

Nucleotide

Source of nucleotides that use simple precursors e.g. Amino acids, CO2, one carbon groups

De novo pathways

Source of nucleotides that use preformed nucleosides and bases

Salvage reactions

Is the source of ribose group for de novo purine and pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis and salvage reaction

PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate)

Conversion of IMP to GMP and AMP

Branched pathway of biosynthesis of purine nucleotides

What is built up from a molecule of PRPP synthesized from ribose-5-PO4 and ATP

Purine ring

What are the donors of atoms of purine ring

Amino acid and one carbon compounds

Formation of carbomyl phosphate from bicarbonate via

Carbomyl synthetase II (cytosol)

Major site of biosynthesis of purine nucleotides

Liver

Condensation of aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate via

Aspartate transcarbamoylase

Enzyme in pyrimidine biosynthesis

CTP synthetase

4 ribonucleoside diphosphates in the formation of deoxyribonucleotides

ADP, GDP, CDP, UDP

Enzyme in the formation of deoxyribonucleotides

Nucleoside diphosphate reductase or ribonucleotide reductase

A suicide inhibitor used to treat gout

Allopurinol

An estimate of the difference between the amount of nitrogen intake (in the form of dietary proteins) and all sources of nitrogen excretion (primarily as urea and NH4)

Nitrogen balance

What is the average DNA length of chromosomes

1.3 x 10^8 bp (~5 cm)

Diameter of the cell nucleus

10 micrometer

How many chromosomes does humans have?

Order of organization of a human genome

10 nm fibril -> 30 nm chromatin fiber -> looped domains -> condensed loops -> metaphase chromosome

Histone octamer for nucleosome formation

H2A and H2B dimers

Histone octamer for nucleosome stabilization

H3 and H4 tetramer

The process of accurate duplication of an organism's genetic information

DNA replication

Two parental strands separate and serve as template for a new progeny strand because of complementary base pairing

DNA replication

A feature of DNA replication where each daughter DNA has one parental strand and one new strand

Semi-conservative

A feature of DNA replication where it has an anti-parallel DNA and 5' to 3' direction of DNA polymerase

Semi-discontinuous

A feature of DNA replication where DNA polymerase cannot initiate de novo synthesis

Priming of DNA synthesis

A feature of DNA replication where two replicating forks move in opposite directions away from the origin

Bidirectional

Deoxynucleotide polymerization

DNA polymerases

Processive unwinding of DNA

Helicases

Relieve torsional strain that results from helicase induced unwinding

Topoisomerases

Initiates synthesis of RNA primers

DNA primase

Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNA

Single-strand binding protein

Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand

DNA ligase

``` Equal and reciprocal exchange between homologous chromosomes during meiosis A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

A. Recombination

``` Jumping DNA; small DNA elements capable of transposing themselves in and out A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

B. Transposition

``` Pairing of similar sequences on homologous or non homologous chromosomes A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

C. Gene conversion

``` Eliminate mismatched sequences between them A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

C. Gene conversion

``` Alteration in the DNA structure that produce permanent changes in the genetic information A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

D. Mutation

``` The survival of an individual requires genetic stability A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

D. Mutation

``` Occasional genetic changes contribute to variation and enhances the long-term survival of a species A. Recombination B. Transposition C. Gene conversion D. Mutation ```

D. Mutation

``` Proofreading of DNA polymerase A. 5' to 3' exonucleic activity B. 5' to 3' endonucleic activity C. 3' to 5' exonucleic activity D. 3' to 5' endonucleic activity ```

C. 3' to 5' exonucleic activity

Methylation differentiates parental and daughter strands A. Mismatch repair B. Base excision repair C. Nucleotide excision repair

A. Mismatch repair

Usually works on common, relatively subtle changes to DNA bases e.g. Deaminated Cs, alkylated bases, oxidized bases A. Mismatch repair B. Base excision repair C. Nucleotide excision repair

B. Base excision repair

Deals with more drastic changes to bases (pyrimidine dimers) A. Mismatch repair B. Base excision repair C. Nucleotide excision repair

C. Nucleotide excision repair

1% of total cellular DNA and encodes several peptides in the mitochondria, rRN, tRNA e.g. Cytochrome oxidase and ATP synthase

Mitochondrial DNA

Mitochondrial DNA is transmitted by

Maternal non-mendelian inheritance

Development of an entire organism from a cell as long as the genetic material is intact

Cloning

From a primordial cell to a terminally differentiated cell e.g. Skin cell

Cellular differentiation

Change in gene expression without actual change in DNA

Epigenic control

Dense, dark, highly packed (inaccessible), transcriptionally silent A. Heterochromatin B. Euchromatin

A. Heterochromatin

Loosely packed (accessible), light, active gene transcription A. Heterochromatin B. Euchromatin

B. Euchromatin

Silencing genes, reduces unnecessary gene expression

DNA methylation

High methylation = A. Transcriptionally silent B. Transcriptionally active or can be activated

A. Transcriptionally silent

DNA methylation is mediated by

MeCP1 and MeCP2 (methylated CpG binding proteins 1 & 2

Anytime that a cell differentiates, there is an increase/decrease in methylation (de novo synthesis)

Increase Because differential gene expression is needed

Replication from fertilized egg to blastocyst increase/decrease in methylation

Decrease (demethylation in early embryo)

Inherited form of mental retardation A. Fragile X syndrome B. Fragile Y syndrome

A. Fragile X syndrome

Where DNA are wrapped around making it more accessible and subjecting it to control

Histones

Must be able to recognize the startpoint or transcription start site

RNA Polymerase II

``` Most important and fundamental element of cis-acting elements A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

A. Promoters

``` A DNA sequence just downstream of the coding segment of a gene, which is recognized by RNA polymerase as a signal to stop transcription A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

B. Terminator

``` A regulatory DNA sequence that greatly enhances the transcription of a gene A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

C. Enhancers

``` A DNA sequence that helps to reduce or shut off the expression of a nearby gene A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

D. Silencers

``` "Buffer zone"; prevent a gene from being influenced by activation or repression of its neighbors A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

E. Insulators

``` Way by which stimuli bypasses other elements and goes straight to the gene A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

F. Response elements

``` Way by which stimuli bypasses other elements and goes straight to the gene A. Promoters B. Terminator C. Enhancers D. Silencers E. Insulators F. Response elements ```

F. Response elements

Protects RNA from nucleases

PolyA

Role of ubiquitin

Some protein appear to be marked for degradation by attachment to the protein ubiquitin

Is a normal gene that can become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression

Proto-oncogene

Is a protein encoding gene, which - when deregulated - participates in the onset and development of cancer

Oncogene

Aka anti-oncogene | A gene that protects a cell from being cancer

Tumour suppressor gene

Is characterized by involvement of biomolecules related to immune system activity and pregnancy

Preeclampsia

1st cardiovascular single gene disorder for which the responsible mutation was discovered

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A diagnostic to identify active TB infection

Interferon-gamma release assay

Physiological cell death; cell suicide; cell deletion; programmed cell death

Apoptosis

An intracellular proteolytic pathway

Apoptosis

Killing, decay and destruction of cell

Necrosis

Protein which degrade other proteins are employed by apoptosis

Caspases

Made as inactive precursors

Procaspases

Allows the cell to enter the cell cycle

Mitogens

Increase in cell mass

Growth factors

Suppress apoptosis

Survival factors

Additions of whole chromosomes sets

Euploidy

Additions or subtractions of one or more single chromosomes

Aneuploidy

``` Stage where there is organelle duplication but no DNA replication A. G1 B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase ```

A. G1 phase

Cells that remain in G1 for a long time

Committed to cell division once it starts; DNA and centrosome replication; Semi-conservative replication of DNA: two identical daughter genomes A. G1 B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase

B. S phase

``` Growth continues; Determining cell stage; Cells at different stages of the cell cycle can also be distinguished by their DNA content A. G1 B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase ```

C. G2 phase

``` Mitosis+ cytokinesis A. G1 B. S phase C. G2 phase D. M phase ```

D. Mitotic phase

Nuclear division resulting to 2 nuclei identical to each other and to the parental nuclei

Mitotic phase

Cytoplasm pinches in

Cleavage furrow

In plant cells, a new cell wall is formed between the 2 new cells

Cell plate

Cytokinesis usually begins in

Early anaphase

In prokaryotes cytoplasmic division is by

Binary fission

Period during which cells are responsive to mitogenic GFs and to TGF-beta

Phosphorylates proteins by transferring a phosphate group from a high energy molecule (like ATP) to an amino acid residue of the protein

Kinase

Cyclin destruction is controlled by

Ubiquitination

CDKs are regulated by

Phosphorylation

Cdc2 mutants arrest in

Cdc28 arrest in

What is destroyed by ubiquitination

Sic1

Properties required for transmission of chromosomes during cell division

1. One and only one centromere 2. Functional telomere at both ends 3. Chromosomes must be fully replicated 4. Chromosomes cannot be too large or too small

Cyclin destruction is controlled by

Ubiquitination Ubiquitination: The "kiss of death" process for a protein. In ubiquitination, a protein is inactivated by attaching ubiquitin to it. Ubiquitin is a small molecule. It acts as a tag that signals the protein-transport machinery to ferry the protein to the proteasome for degradation. For more information, see: Ubiquitin.

Wee1 is a kinase

Cdc25 is a phosphatase

Cells actively control the composition of their immediate environment and intracellular milieu within a narrow range of physiologic parameters

Homeostasis

On the cellular level, certain stresses would challenge the stability of the homeostatic state and the cell can adapt

Cellular adaptation

When limits of adaptive response are exceeded or when adaptation is not possible, there could be cellular damage

Cellular inquiry

Damage to what increases cell's permeability to sodium and water-> lysis

Plasma membrane

Affect ability to maintain resting membrane potential

Potassium leakage

Impairs energy metabolism

Mitochondrial membrane injury

Releases hydrolytic enzymes -> auto digestion of cellular proteins

Lysosomal injury

Interferes with protein synthesis and intracellular transport of biologically important compounds

Endoplasmic reticulum damage

Injury to cell membranes cause

Increased cytosolic calcium

Mitochondrial injury or dysfunction causes

Decreased ATP production

Are highly reactive atoms with a single unpaired electron in an outer orbital

Free radicals

Molecules that react with free radicals are in turn converted to free radicals

Autocatalytic reactions

Attack double bonds in unsaturated membrane phospholipids and degrade structural integrity

Lipid peroxidation of membranes

Damage to the cell's DNA

Interferes with cell replication | Impairs synthesis of important structural and functional proteins

Causes of cell injury

Hypoxia, physical agents, chemical agents and drugs, biological agents, immunologic reactions, genetic derangements, nutritional imbalances

A deficiency of oxygen causes cell injury by reducing aerobic oxidative respiration; cells receive decreased amounts of oxygen or no oxygen at all

Hypoxia/anoxia (oxygen deprivation)

Loss of blood supply from impeded arterial flow or reduced venous drainage in a tissue

Ischemia

Decrease in O2 and ATP | Increase cytosolic Ca2+ and phospholipid degradation

A clinically important process that significantly contributes to myocardial and cerebral infarctions

Reperfusion damage

Crush injury, fractures, lacerations, hemorrhage

Mechanical trauma ``` If sudden(acute), violent -> direct injury to cells If prolonged, less intense (chronic) -> provoke cellular adaptation ```

Causes direct damage by increasing rate of cellular activity leading to inadequate oxygen

Heat

May form crystals that puncture cells or cause slowing of metabolic activities

Cold

High energy-carrying molecular particles that, when in contact with living cells, change their molecular composition

Radiant energy or radiation

Radiation energy above the ultraviolet range; damage due to direct contact with a cellular molecular causes electron imbalances; undifferentiated or mitotic cells esp. susceptible

Ionizing radiation

Low energy below that of visible light; energy is not powerful enough to break molecular bonds but will cause atoms to rotate or become misaligned; typically takes prolonged exposure for damage to occur

Non-ionizing radiation

Energy above that of visible light with the capacity to break chemical bonds; most damage caused within DNA where thymine dimers are formed resulting in dysfunctional DNA regulation

Ultraviolet radiation

Inactivates enzyme cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria required for aerobic respiration

Cyanide

Binds to sulfhydryl groups of cell membrane and other proteins causing increased membrane permeability and inhibition of ATP-ase dependent transport

Mercury

Greatest damage to cells in tissues that use, absorb, concentrate, or excrete the chemicals

Direct-acting

Most important effect if membrane injury due to formation of free radicals and subsequent lipid peroxidation

Indirect-acting

A state that lies intermediate between the normal, unstressed cell and the injured overstressed cell

Cellular adaptation

Without nourishment; acquired decrease in cell size leading to decreased tissue and organ size; shrinkage in size of the cell or in number of cells resulting in reduction of functional capacity

Atrophy

Programmed "normal" atrophy

Physiological atrophy

Atrophy associated with disease

Pathological atrophy

``` Decreased workload A. Disuse atrophy B. Denervation atrophy C. Ischemic atrophy D. Hormonal atrophy E. Pressure atrophy ```

A. Disuse atrophy

``` Loss of innervation A. Disuse atrophy B. Denervation atrophy C. Ischemic atrophy D. Hormonal atrophy E. Pressure atrophy ```

B. Denervation atrophy

``` Diminished blood supply A. Disuse atrophy B. Denervation atrophy C. Ischemic atrophy D. Hormonal atrophy E. Pressure atrophy ```

C. Ischemic atrophy

``` Loss of endocrine stimulation A. Disuse atrophy B. Denervation atrophy C. Ischemic atrophy D. Hormonal atrophy E. Pressure atrophy ```

D. Hormonal atrophy

``` Pressure on blood vessels A. Disuse atrophy B. Denervation atrophy C. Ischemic atrophy D. Hormonal atrophy E. Pressure atrophy ```

E. Pressure atrophy

An increase in cell size (cellular mass) resulting in an increase in the amount of functioning tissue mass

Hypertrophy

Hypertrophy is commonly seen in what muscle tissues

Cardiac and skeletal

Failure to grow; caused by defective genetic instructions guiding development of cell populations

Aplasia

Incomplete growth; cells do not reach full-size or full development

Hypoplasia

Increase in tissue mass due to an increased rate of cell division and cellular proliferation

Hyperplasia

Adaptive conversion between cell types in an adult; usually occurs in response to chronic irritation and inflammation

Metaplasia

Reversible cell damage

Degeneration

Irreversible cell damage

Necrosis

Which is more vulnerable in cellular degeneration, parenchymal cells or stromal cells

Parenchymal cells

Aging pigment in liver, heart, neurons A. Lipofuschin B. Hemosiderin C. Bilirubin

A. Lipofuschin

In lungs following congestive heart failure and called hemosiderosis when found in a number of tissues and organs A. Lipofuschin B. Hemosiderin C. Bilirubin

B. Hemosiderin

Jaundice A. Lipofuschin B. Hemosiderin C. Bilirubin

C. Bilirubin

Deposition of calcium and other minerals in injured disease A. Dystrophic B. Metastatic

A. Dystrophic

Calcium deposition in normal tissues in hypercalcemic states A. Dystrophic B. Metastatic

B. Metastatic

Antemortem pathologic cell death A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Autolysis

A. Necrosis

Antemortem programmed cell death A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Autolysis

B. Apoptosis

Postmortem cell death A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Autolysis

C. Autolysis

Cell shrinkage Chromatin condensation Formation of cytoplasmic blebs and apoptotic bodies Phagocytosis A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis

A. Apoptosis

Process which spontaneously arrests flow of blood from vessels carrying blood under pressure

Hemostasis

Involves vasoconstriction, adhesion & aggregation of formed elements (e.g. Platelets), & blood coagulation

Hemostasis

Process resulting in formation of insoluble fibrin clot from fibrinogen in plasma

Blood coagulation

Involves blood coagulation factors (endogenous substances, usually proteins) Occurrence determined by balance of procoagulant & anticoagulant factors

Blood coagulation

Converts prothrombin(factor II) into thrombin (factor IIa)

Factor Xa

Converts fibrinogen into fibrin and factor XIII into factor IIIa

Thrombin

A transglutaminase; stabilizes fibrin by catalyzing formation of covalent cross-links

Factor XIIIa

Activated by contact with certain surfaces e.g. Collagen, with which plasma can come into contact following endothelial damage A. Intrinsic pathways B. Extrinsic pathways

A. Intrinsic pathways

Activated by tissue factor (tissue thromboplastin), a lipoprotein released by injured tissues in response to trauma A. Intrinsic pathways B. Extrinsic pathways

B. Extrinsic pathways

Converts plasminogen into plasmin (selectively acting on plasminogen physically associated with fibrin)

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

Blood clot formed within intravascular space during life

Thrombus

Portion of material distinct from blood, carried by bloodstream from one site of body to another

Embolus

Stasis (sluggish blood flow; may be due to hyperviscosity, e.g. Resulting from polycythemia)

Virchow's triad

Hypercoagulability of blood (due to imbalance between procoagulant & anticoagulant plasma factors)

Virchow's triad

``` Thrombolytic, most useful if given before fibrin cross-links are formed A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

A. tPA

``` Given intravenously for rapid anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

B. Heparin

``` Given orally for long-term anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

D. Warfarin

``` Anticoagulant glycosaminoglycan A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

B. Heparin

``` Binds plasma protein antithrombin, inducing conformational change that enhances inhibitory effect against thrombin & factor Xa A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

B. Heparin

Vitamin K antagonists blocks synthesis of functional vitamin K-dependent factors ___, ___, ___ & ___

II, VII, IX & X

``` Inhibits posttranslational conversion of glutamate to gamma-carboxyglutamate (for calcium-mediated binding to membrane surfaces) A. TPA B. Heparin C. Heparan D. Warfarin ```

D. Warfarin

Restores capacity for synthesis of functional factors

Vitamin K

Potentially harmful agent that may cause/induce damage A. Danger B. Damage C. Disease

A. Danger

Disruption of normal structure/function A. Danger B. Damage C. Disease

B. Damage

Clinical manifestation of damage beyond some threshold A. Danger B. Damage C. Disease

C. Disease

Unresponsiveness to certain agents A. Tolerance B. Immunity

A. Tolerance

Resistance to harmful effects of disease causing agents A. Tolerance B. Immunity

B. Immunity

Mediated by soluble substances in body fluids (e.g. Proteins in plasma or serum) A. Humoral immunity B. Cellular immunity

A. Humoral immunity

Mediated by living cells e.g. Phagocytes A. Humoral immunity B. Cellular immunity

B. Cellular immunity

Handwired into genome, develops automatically e.g. via interaction with microbiome; analogous to reflex A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity

A. Innate immunity

Customized via changes in genome of lymphocytes, response to exposure to specific molecules; analogous to memory A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity

B. Adaptive immunity

Agent with potential to be recognized by component/s of immune system A. Antigen B. Antibody

A. Antigen

Secreted/soluble form of immunoglobulin (Ig: antigen-binding protein, directly recognizes antigen; Ig superfamily [IgSF] member, with Ig domain as basic structural unit) A. Antigen B. Antibody

B. Antibody

Antigen body structure

Y-shaped molecule: 2 arms (antigen binding) + 1 trunk

Antigen body structure

Composed of 4 polypeptide chains (2 heavy + 2 light chains), all containing immunoglobulin domains

Antigen binding arm is composed of

1 light chain + part of 1 heavy chain

What determines antibody class (characterized by structure and functional roles)?

Constant region of heavy chain

``` First to appear in response to first exposure to an antigen A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE ```

A. IgM

``` Majority of circulating antibody, can cross placental barrier A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE ```

B. IgG

``` Majority of secreted antibody (in mucosal secretions, colostrum) A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE ```

C. IgA

``` Involved in immunity to parasitic helminthsband in some forms of allergy A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE ```

D. IgE

Part of antigen molecule actually recognized by component of immune system A. Epitope B. Paratope

A. Epitope

Part of antibody molecule directly involved in binding to epitope A. Epitope B. Paratope

B. Paratope

Activated by some immunevcomplexes of IgM ang IgG A. Classical B. Mannan-binding lectin C. Alternative

A. Classical

Activated by mannose-bearingbforeign surfaces

B. Mannan-binding lectin

Activated by various foreign surfaces and also by other already-activated complement pathways A. Classical B. Mannan-binding lectin C. Alternative

C. Alternative

Limits growth of other microbres in the mucous membrane A. Normal flora B. Mucus C. Cilia

A. Normal flora

Entraps microbes A. Normal flora B. Mucus C. Cilia

B. Mucus

Propel microbes out of body A. Normal flora B. Mucus C. Cilia

C. Cilia

Digests bacterial cellwall

Lysozyme

Non-antibody proteins, regulate immune function e.g. as paracrine orvautocrine signals; interferon from infected cell induces antiviral state in neighboring cells A. Cytokines B. Chemokines

A. Cytokines

Attract WBCs and also promote adhesion of WBCs to endothelium A. Cytokines B. Chemokines

B. Chemokines

Membrane bound receptors that recognize commonly encountered pathogen associated molecular patterns

Toll-like receptors

Recognizes viral dsRNA A. TLR-3 B. TLR-4

A. TLR-3

Recognizes LPS i.e. lipopolysaccharide/endotoxin from gram-negative bacteria A. TLR-3 B. TLR-4

B. TLR-4

Internalization of molecules by various cell types via invagination of plasma membrane A. Endocytosis B. Phagocytosis

A. Endocytosis

Endocytosis of particulate matter by specialized cells known as phagocytes e.g. Neutrophil, monocyte, macrophage

Phagocytosis

Coating with substances that increase susceptibility to phagocytosis

Opsonization

Inactivate/delete before cell matures e.g. to avoid autoimmunity due to potentially autoreactives/self-reactive cell A. Negative clonal selection B. Positive clonal selection

A. Negative clonal selection

Activate/expand, typically after cell matures e.g. to provide enough cells for effective response against specific target A. Negative clonal selection B. Positive clonal selection

B. Positive clonal selection

Means to obtain lymphocyte populations as needed

Clonal selection

How B cells differentiate into plasma cells

By secreting antibody and memory cells for future responses

Mostly develop in bone marrow A. B cells B. T cells

A. B cells

Recognize antigen by means of B-cell receptor (BCR) containing membrane-bound immuniglobulin A. B cells B. T cells

A. B cells

Can differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibody A. B cells B. T cells

A. B cells

Mostly develop in thymus A. B cells B. T cells

B. T cells

Recognize antigen using Fab-like TCR A. B cells B. T cells

B. T cells

Effector T cells have effector function: cytotoxic (killing abnormal cells) or helper (coordinating responses, eg helping B cells to produce antibody) A. B cells B. T cells

B. T cells

Regulate effector T cells

Treg cells

May recognize and kill cells expressing specific antigens via apoptosis

T cytotoxic cells

Typically CD8+ T cells (using CD8 as coreceptor for antigen recognition)

T cytotoxic cells

Typically CD4+ T cells (expressing CD4 protein as a coreceptor for antigen recognition)

T helper cells

May recognize antigen presented by specialized antigen-presenting cells

T helper cells

Coordinate immune responses to recognize antigens e.g. helping by cytokine secretion

T helper cells

Process antigen intracellularly A. APC (antigen presenting cells) B. MHC molecules

A. APC (antigen presenting cells)

Present processed antigen using antigen presenting molecules on extracellular surface of plasma membrane, provide costimulatory (danger) signals A. APC (antigen presenting cells) B. MHC molecules

A. APC (antigen presenting cells)

Protein products of genes within major histocompatibility complex A. APC (antigen presenting cells) B. MHC molecules

B. MHC molecules

Present peptidefragments of endogenous protein antigens synthesized within APC A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

A. Class I MHC molecules

Found on most nucleated cells A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

A. Class I MHC molecules

Enable recognition of antigens by T cytotoxic cells e.g. For killing of virus infected cells A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

A. Class I MHC molecules

Present peptide fragmentsbof exogenous protein antigens internalized by APC A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

B. Class II MHC molecules

Found mainly on professional APCs (dendritic cell, macrophage, B cell) A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

B. Class II MHC molecules

Enable recognition of antigens by T helper cells A. Class I MHC molecules B. Class II MHC molecules

B. Class II MHC molecules

Presentation of epitope/s from extracellular antigens together with class I MHC instead of class II MHC

Cross-presentation

Observed only in some APCs, especially dendritic cell

Cross-presentation

Enables cytotoxic T cell activation vs virus when APC is uninfected and vs tumor/cancer

Cross-presentation

Recognize antigen via BCR

B cell function

Activated by antigen, typically with stimulation from CD4+ T helper cell

B cell function

Activate B cells without T cell help

Thymus-independent antigens

Typically induce limited response (with onlynIgM produced, without further changes in antibody genes, without immunologic memory)

Thymus-independent antigens

Classified as TI-1 or TI-2 antigens

Thymus-independent antigens

Typically polyclonal B-cell activators (mitogens that nonselectively induce proliferation of B cells in general))

TI-1 antigens

Highly repetitious molecules, selectively active mature B cells bearing antigen-specific BCR

TI-2 antigens

TI-2 antigens activate B cells thru extensive __________ by antigen

Cross-linking of BCRs

Activate B cells with T cell help

Thymus-dependent antigens

Typically induce response with class switching, affinity maturation and genertion of memory B-cells

Thymus-dependent antigens

May be direct consequence of antigen binding by antibody

Antibody-mediated immunity

May involve effector mechanisms activated as a consequence of antigen binding by antibody

Antibody-mediated immunity

Directs degradation of virus by ubiquitin-proteosome system

TRIM21

Disorders that may results from Th17 dysregulation

Autoimmune inflammatory

For prevention or treatment of (non)infectious disease: ideally for protective immunity without adverse reactions (e.g. Autoimmunity)

Vaccines

Stimulation of immune response e.g. For prophylaxis against disease-causing microbes and toxins

Immunization

Exposure to antigen eliciting endogenous immune response A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

A. Active immunization

Transfer of immune factors from exogenous source A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

B. Passive immunization

Results from actual infection or noninfectious exposure to antigen A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

A. Active immunization

Produces immunologic memory for future response to antigen A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

A. Active immunization

Principle behind vaccination using antigen-containing vaccines A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

A. Active immunization

Immune factors transferred from donor to recipient, exemplified by antibody transfer A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

B. Passive immunization

Rapid-onset immunity feasible without immunologic memory A. Active immunization B. Passive immunization

B. Passive immunization

ABO blood groups is defined by presence or absence of _________ resembling certain antigens of normal gut flora

Oligosaccharide moieties known as A & B antigens

Lack of antigen typically leads to production of ____ that can bind the missing antigen

IgM

Rh blood groups is defined by presence or absence of

RhD antigen aka Rh antigen

Delivers nutrients and wastes, O2 and CO2 to and from cells

Blood

Blood composition by volume

55% plasma | 45% formed elements (1% WBC platelets, 44% RBC)

Blood composition by absolute cell count

``` RBC = 5x 10^12 /L Platelets = 150-450 x 10^9 /L WBC = 5x 10^9 /L ```

Erythrocytes aka

RBC

Platelets aka

Thrombocytes

Leukocytes aka

WBC

Most abundant granulocytes

Neutrophil

Least abundant granulocytes

Basophil

Biconcave disc; pliable + resilient

RBC

Long filaments forming networks

Spectrin

Short filaments connect ends of spectrin

Actin

Links spectrin-actin network to integral proteins of PM

Ankyrin

ABO antigens differ in the __________ attached to the basic glycoprotein

Extra sugar

Rh incompatibility

Hemolytic disease of the newborn, only in second borns | Negative Rh pregnant mother, positive Rh child

Anucleate biconvex disc

Platelets

Minute (2-3 micrometer)

Platelets

Nucleated, contains azurophilic granules

Leukocytes (WBC)

Platelet factor IV

Counteracts heparin

Adhesion / plt aggreg

Thrombospondin

Plasma clotting factors

Fibrin

``` WBC differential count Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils ```

``` Neutrophils - 60-70% Lymphocytes - 20-30% Monocytes - 3-8% Eosinophils - 2-4% Basophils - 0-1% ```

10-12 micrometers, highly mobile/phagocytic vs. bacteri

Neutrophils

12-14 micrometers, numerous in connective tissue beneath resp/dig mucosa

Eusinophils

Stays in blood 8 hrs, tissues 1-2 days, selfvdestruct

Neutrophils

Stays in blood for only few hours (6-10), into CTbfor 8-12 days

Eosinophils

Large, bright pink-red specific granules obscuring; | Bilobed nucleus

Eosinophil

8-10 microns; Few but large, coarse, dark blue specific granules, obscured bilobed nucleus; Allergic response

Basophil

Major mediator in allergy

Histamine

Respinsible for metachromasia

Heparin

Recirculating, most long lived

Lymphocytes

Smallest WBC, ranges from 7-12 micrometers

Lymphocytes

Mod. Condensed chromatin, many ribosomes, no specific granules but few small azurophilic granules

Lymphocytes

Largest 17-20 micrometers

Monocytes

Eccentric, pale stg, bean-shaped nucleus

Monocytes

Less condensed chromatin; | Few small mod. dense azur. Gran.

Monocytes

="big eater" "Housekeeping" - ingestion/ phagocytosis of senescent cells/ cellular debris in normal tissue; Antigen presenting cell

Macrophage

Plasma composition

90% water 7% proteins Rest are gases, electrolytes, nutrients, hormones

Maintain colloid osmotic pressure; transport insoluble metabolites A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Plasma lipoprotein

A. Albumin

Transport metal ions, protein-bound lipids, lipid soluble vitamins A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Plasma lipoprotein

B. Globulin

Transport of triglycerides and cholesterol to/from the liver A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Plasma lipoprotein

C. Plasma lipoprotein

Process by which mature blood cells develop from precursor cells in BM

Hemopoiesis

Site of hemopoiesis at birth

Bone marrow

Common, looks like PHSC but (+) lineage - specific cell surface markers, highly mitotic, self-renewing

Progenitor cell

Common, unipotential, fast dividing, non-self renewing, morphologically distinct

Precursor cell

Cell size decrease nuclear size decrease and lobulated nuclei + euchromatin disappear or decrease cytoplasm decrease in basophilia

Changes during hemopoeisis

Erythropoiesis changes

Cell smaller Organelles lost Nucleus smaller/darker

12-15 micrometer Mildly basophilic cytoplasm Large round nucleus with 1-2 nucleoli

Proerythroblast

Smaller, darker nucleus (w/ more heterochromatin) and no nucleoli

Basophilic erythroblast

Last cell capable of mitosis Hb production begins Cytoplasm gray or dull lilac

Polychromatophilic erythroblast

Eosinophilic Biconcave disk 7-8 micrometer

RBC

``` Decrease in cell size Decrease in nuclear size and shape Condensation of chromatin Nucleoli decrease in number then disappear Azurophilic granules first to appear Specific granules first to appear Increasing eosinophilia of cytoplasm ```

Granulopoiesis

14-20 micrometer Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei (-) granules Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

Myeloblast

``` Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only Nucleus indented Nucleoli Increased size 18-24 micrometer Chromatin condenses ```

Promyelocyte

Last cell capable of mitosis

Myelocyte

Deeply indented nucleus

Metamyelocyte

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid Cytoplasmic granules increase Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes) Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

Megakaryopoiesis

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

Erythropoeitin

Induce other cells to produce CSF's (colony stimulating factors)

Interleukins

Granulopoiesis

14-20 micrometer Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei (-) granules Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

Myeloblast

``` Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only Nucleus indented Nucleoli Increased size 18-24 micrometer Chromatin condenses ```

Promyelocyte

Last cell capable of mitosis

Myelocyte

Deeply indented nucleus

Metamyelocyte

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid Cytoplasmic granules increase Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes) Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

Megakaryopoiesis

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

Erythropoeitin

Induce other cells to produce CSF's (colony stimulating factors)

Interleukins

Granulopoiesis

14-20 micrometer Large euchromatic spherical nucleus + 3-5 nuclei (-) granules Resembles proerythroblast but smaller and less blue cytoplasm

Myeloblast

``` Azurophilic granules produced in this stage only Nucleus indented Nucleoli Increased size 18-24 micrometer Chromatin condenses ```

Promyelocyte

Last cell capable of mitosis

Myelocyte

Deeply indented nucleus

Metamyelocyte

Cell becomes bigger - 50 micrometer Nucleus becomes bigger/multilobed/polypoid Cytoplasmic granules increase Increased membranes (=platelet demarcation membranes) Cytoplasm becomes less basophilic

Megakaryopoiesis

Produced by kidney in response to decreased tissue oxygen

Erythropoeitin

Induce other cells to produce CSF's (colony stimulating factors)

Interleukins

What are the polar amino acids

``` Ser Cys Tyr Thr Gln Asn ```

What are the acidic amino acids

Asp | Glu

What are the basic amino acids

Lys His Arg

From Powerpoints Flashcards

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