Fundamentals of Medicine

Question 1

Carcinoma

Answer 1

Malignant tumour of epithelial cell origin

Question 2

Adenocarcinoma

Answer 2

Malignant tumour of epithelial cell origin with a glandular growth pattern

Question 3

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 3

Malignant tumour of squamous epithelial cell origin

Question 4

Sarcoma

Answer 4

Malignant tumour of mesenchymal tissue

Question 5

Chondrosarcoma

Answer 5

Malignant tumour of cartilage

Question 6

Fibrosarcoma

Answer 6

Malignant tumour of fibrous tissue

Question 7

Osteosarcoma

Answer 7

Malignant tumour of bone

Question 8

Leiomyosarcoma

Answer 8

Malignant tumour of smooth muscle

Question 9

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer 9

Malignant tumour of striated muscle

Question 10

What cancer does alcohol cause?

Answer 10

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Question 11

What cancer does smoking cause?

Answer 11

Lung carcinoma

Question 12

What cancer does soot cause?

Answer 12

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 13

What cancer does asbestos cause?

Answer 13

Lung methothelioma

Question 14

What cancer does HIV cause?

Answer 14

Kaposi sarcoma

Question 15

What cancer does EBV cause?

Answer 15

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Question 16

What cancer does HPV cause?

Answer 16

Cervical cancer

Question 17

What cancer does hepatitis C cause?

Answer 17

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Question 18

What cancer does H. pylori cause?

Answer 18

Gastric cancer

Question 19

Errors in nucleotide excision repair can lead to what condition?

Answer 19

Xeroderma pigmentosum

Question 20

Errors in DNA mismatch repair can lead to what condition?

Answer 20

Colon cancer

Question 21

Errors in homologous end joining can lead to what condition?

Answer 21

BRCA2

Breast and ovarian cancer

Question 22

Paraneoplastic syndrome

Answer 22

Non-metastatic systemic effects accompanying malignant disease
Endocrine - Cushing’s disease hypo/hyperglycaemia
Neurological - Lambert-Eaton myastenic syndrome
Musculocutaneous - acnthosis nigricans
Haematological = granulocytosis

Question 23

Characteristics of anaplastic tissue

Answer 23

Abnormal and prominent nuclei
Hyperchromasia
High nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
Chromatin clumping 
Loss of polarity

Question 24

Overall cancer incidences

Answer 24

NMSC, breast, lung, colorectal, prostate

Question 25

Children cancer incidence

Answer 25

Leukaemia, brain tumour, lymphoma

Question 26

Cancer mortality

Answer 26

Lung, colorectal, breast, prostate, pancreatic

Question 27

Death %

Answer 27

Pancreatic, lung, brain, stomach, oesophagus

Question 28

Where do T cells develop?

Answer 28

Thymus

Question 29

What interleukin promotes T cell clonal expansion?

Answer 29

IL-2

Question 30

What do Th1 T cells release?

Answer 30

IL-2, IFN,g, TNFa

Question 31

What do Th2 T cells release?

Answer 31

IL4, IL5, IL3, IL13

Question 32

What causes Th0-->Th1?

Answer 32

IL-12, IL-23

Question 33

What causes Th0-->Th2?

Answer 33

IL-4

Question 34

What causes Th0-->Th17?

Answer 34

IL-6, IL-21, TGFb

Question 35

What do Th17 cells release?

Answer 35

IL-17

Question 36

What causes Th0-->T-reg?

Answer 36

TGFb

Question 37

Inflammatory cytokines

Answer 37

IL-1, TNFa, IL-6

Question 38

Anti-inflammatory cytokines

Answer 38

IL-10, TGFb

Question 39

Which chemokine drives neutrophil recruitment?

Answer 39

CXCL8

Question 40

Which cytokine increases endothelial stickiness?

Answer 40

TNFa

Question 41

What enzymes do CD8 cells release?

Answer 41

Perforins and granzymes

Question 42

Where do B cells develop?

Answer 42

Bone marrow

Question 43

What does the Fc portion of the antibody dictate?

Answer 43

Function

Question 44

What does the Fab portion of the antibody dictate?

Answer 44

Which antigen the antibody can bind to

Question 45

Which antibody exists as a pentamer?

Answer 45

IgM

Question 46

Functions of antibodies

Answer 46

``` Agglutination Opsonization Antibody-dependant killing Neutralisation Activation of complement ```

Question 47

Secondary lymphoid tissues

Answer 47

``` Spleen Tonsils Lymph nodes Liver Peyer's patches Appendix ```

Question 48

What does TLR4 recognise?

Answer 48

LPS

Question 49

What does TLR5 recognise?

Answer 49

Flagellum

Question 50

What does TLR9 recognise?

Answer 50

CpG DNA

Question 51

What does TRL7 recognise?

Answer 51

Double stranded viral NRA

Question 52

Which antibody is made first?

Answer 52

IgM

Question 53

Which is the most commonly found antibody in the blood?

Answer 53

IgG

Question 54

Which is the second most commonly found antibody in the blood?

Answer 54

IgA

Question 55

MHC class I

Answer 55

Present on all cells Presents endogenous ligands Presents to CD8 T cells

Question 56

MHC class II

Answer 56

Present only on APCs Presents exogenous ligands Presents to CD4 T cells

Question 57

Polygenic

Answer 57

More than one type of each MHC class molecule

Question 58

Polymorphic

Answer 58

There are multiple alleles within the population meaning most individuals are heterozygous

Question 59

MHC class I types

Answer 59

A, B, C

Question 60

MHC class II tupes

Answer 60

DR, DP, DQ

Question 61

EC50

Answer 61

Half of the maximum response

Question 62

Effect of competitive antagonism on EC50

Answer 62

High EC50

Question 63

Effect of non-competitive antagonism on EC50

Answer 63

EC50 the same | Maximum response reduced

Question 64

Intrathecal route of administration

Answer 64

Into CSF

Question 65

Epidural route of administration

Answer 65

Outside dura

Question 66

How does hepatic elimination work?

Answer 66

Through bile

Question 67

Drugs with zero order elimination

Answer 67

Aspirin, phenytoin, ethanol

Question 68

Which phase of reactions is more affected by age?

Answer 68

Phase I reactions

Question 69

Volume of distribution formula

Answer 69

Amount of drug in body / plasma concentration

Question 70

Tachyphylaxis

Answer 70

Reduced drug effect on a short time scale

Question 71

Glycopeptides

Answer 71

Gram positive cell walls

Question 72

Beta lactams

Answer 72

Gram positive and negative but depends on the drug itself | Target cell wall synthesis

Question 73

Aminoglycosides

Answer 73

Gram positive and negative | Target 30s ribosome

Question 74

Tetracyclines

Answer 74

Gram positive and negative | Target 30s ribosome

Question 75

Macrolides and linsosamines

Answer 75

Target 50s ribosome

Question 76

Quinolones

Answer 76

Target DNA gyrase and topisomerase | Broad spectrum

Question 77

Rifampicin

Answer 77

Targets RNA polymerase

Question 78

Polymyxin

Answer 78

Targets bacterial cell wall

Question 79

Mechanisms of antibiotic resistnace

Answer 79

``` Target modification Efflux pump Degrading enzyme Impermeability Resistance genes ```

Question 80

Amantidine, rimantidine

Answer 80

Antivirals Inhibit M2 protein Prevent hydrogen ion influx Inhibit uncoating and coating of new virions

Question 81

Ribavarin

Answer 81

Guanine analogue

Question 82

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Answer 82

Prevents cleavage of sialic acids | Prevents release from membrane

Question 83

Influenza specific adherance

Answer 83

Haemagluttinin | Sialic acid

Question 84

E. coli specific adherance

Answer 84

Haemagluttinin | Mannose

Question 85

S. aureus stealth mechanism

Answer 85

Binds antibody in wrong orientation

Question 86

Functions of exotoxins

Answer 86

Facilitate pathogenic spread Lyse cells Block protein synthesis

Question 87

Prokaryotes

Answer 87

Bacteria | Archaea

Question 88

Eukaryotes

Answer 88

``` Fungi Protozoa Algae Helminths Arthropods ```

Question 89

Gram positive cell wall

Answer 89

Thick peptidoglycan layer with no outer membrane

Question 90

Gram negative cell wall

Answer 90

Thinner peptidoglycan layer with an outer membrane

Question 91

Shapes of bacteria

Answer 91

``` Spherical = cocci Cylindrical = bacilli Spirals = spirochaetes ```

Question 92

Groups of bacteria shapes

Answer 92

``` Ball = staphylo- Chain = strepto- Pair = diplo- ```

Question 93

Catalase test

Answer 93

Divides gram positive cocci Staphylococci = catalase positive Streptococci = catalase negative

Question 94

Staphylococci divisions

Answer 94

Coagulase positive = S. aureus | Coagulase negative

Question 95

Streptococci divisions

Answer 95

Alpha, beta, non haemolytic

Question 96

Cellulitis pathogen

Answer 96

Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 97

Erysipelas pathogen

Answer 97

Group A strep

Question 98

Scarlet fever pathogen

Answer 98

Group A strep

Question 99

Impetigo pathogen

Answer 99

Staphylococci or streptococci

Question 100

Enterobacteriaceae divisons

Answer 100

``` Lactose fermenters (pink) - E. coli Lactose non-fermenter (colourless) - pseudomons, salmonella ```

Question 101

Glandular fever pathogen

Answer 101

EBV

Question 102

Chicken pox pathogen

Answer 102

VZV

Question 103

Nucleocapsid structure

Answer 103

Aggregations of capsomeres to produce the capsid | Capsid associated with viral nucleic acid

Question 104

Diseases of the nucelus

Answer 104

Laminopathies Emery Dreifuss muscular dystrophy Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome

Question 105

RER function

Answer 105

Protein synthesis | Glycosylation

Question 106

SER function

Answer 106

Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates Storage of calcium Detoxification of drug toxins

Question 107

Golgi function

Answer 107

Packaging of secretions | Proteins tagged for delivery

Question 108

Tay Sachs disease

Answer 108

Lysosomal disease

Question 109

Peroxisome functions

Answer 109

Metabolism of fatty acids Detoxification of free radicals and hydrogen peroxide Synthesis of plasmalogens

Question 110

Actin microfilaments

Answer 110

Polymerise in cell-cell movement Maintain cell shape Organelle and vesicle transport

Question 111

Intermediate filaments

Answer 111

Keratins in skin and hair Muscle desmin Provide tensile strength

Question 112

Diseases of laminin (intermediate filament)

Answer 112

Epidermalysis bullosa

Question 113

Microtubules

Answer 113

Cell scaffold Movement of organelles Mitotic spindle fibres Cilia and flagella

Question 114

Macromolecules of the ECM

Answer 114

Proteoglycans | Fibrous proteins - collagen, elastin

Question 115

Collagen in basement membrane

Answer 115

Type IV

Question 116

Epithelial junction hierarchy

Answer 116

``` Tight - prevent passage of molecules Adherens - tether cells together Desmosome - resist mechanical stress Gap - allow passage of small molecules Hemidesmosome - anchor epithelium to basal lamina ```

Question 117

Scalded skin syndrome

Answer 117

Caused by Staphylococcus | Bacterial proteases directed at desmosomal cadherins

Question 118

Pemphigus vulgaris

Answer 118

Autoantibodies against desmosomal cadherins

Question 119

Bardet-Biedl syndrome

Answer 119

Cilia disease

Question 120

Primary vs secondary cilia

Answer 120

``` Primary = sensory antennae Secondary = motile ```

Question 121

Microvilli

Answer 121

Formed by actin microfilaments

Question 122

Flagella

Answer 122

Microtubule based

Question 123

Catabolism vs anabolism

Answer 123

``` Catabolism = synthesis Anabolism = utilisation ```

Question 124

G1 phase

Answer 124

Replication of cellular contents

Question 125

S phase

Answer 125

Replication of chromosomes

Question 126

G2 phase

Answer 126

Double checking for errors and making repairs

Question 127

Prophase

Answer 127

DNA condensation Nucleoli disappear Nuclear envelope breaks down

Question 128

Metaphase

Answer 128

Chromosomes line up along the centre | Microtubules attach at the kinetochore of the centromere

Question 129

Anaphase

Answer 129

Pulling apart of chromosomes

Question 130

Telophase

Answer 130

Uncoiling of chromosomes | Reformation of nuclear envelope

Question 131

What normally holds sister chromatids together

Answer 131

Cohesin

Question 132

Cytokinesis

Answer 132

Cytoplasmic division

Question 133

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

Answer 133

Prophase I

Question 134

Which CDKIs block S phase entry?

Answer 134

p16, p21, p27

Question 135

What does the retinoblastoma protein do?

Answer 135

Inhibits function of E2F proteins which control S phase entry, DNA synthesis and chromosome duplication

Question 136

Which CDK inactivates Rb?

Answer 136

CDK2

Question 137

1st cell cycle checkpoint

Answer 137

G1/S Checks the cell has enough energy, nutrients and size to be able to divide Checks for DNA damage before it is replication Can send cells into G0 - quiescence

Question 138

2nd cell cycle checkpoint

Answer 138

G2/M | Can prevent cell division if DNA has been replicated incorrectly

Question 139

3rd cell cycle checkpoint

Answer 139

Metaphase | Checks tension of spindle fibres to ensure they have attached properly

Question 140

Anti-microtubule agents

Answer 140

Vinca alkaloids - prevent microtubule formation | Taxanes - prevent microtubule disassembly

Question 141

Caspases

Answer 141

Initiators and executioners of apoptosis Initiator = 2,8,9 Executioner = 3,6,7

Question 142

Apo vs holoenzyme

Answer 142

``` Apo = lacking cofactor - inactive Holo = with cofactor - active ```

Question 143

Vitamin B1

Answer 143

TTP for PDC

Question 144

Vitamin B2

Answer 144

Riboflavin for FAD

Question 145

Vitamin B3

Answer 145

Niacin for NAD

Question 146

Vitamin B5

Answer 146

Pantothenic acid for CoA

Question 147

Lyase enzymes

Answer 147

Add atoms Remove atoms Form a double bond

Question 148

Ligases

Answer 148

Use ATP to combine molecules

Question 149

Vmax

Answer 149

Maximum activity of an enzyme that occurs when the enzyme is fully saturated

Question 150

Km

Answer 150

Substrate concentration at which the reaction rate reaches half its maximal value

Question 151

Which inhibitor is time dependant?

Answer 151

Irreversible inhibitor

Question 152

Increased enzyme levels following myocardial infarction

Answer 152

Creatine kinase Lactate dehydrogenase Aspartate aminotransferase

Question 153

What percent of the body's protein is collagen?

Answer 153

25%

Question 154

Type 1 collagen

Answer 154

Loose and dense CT Fibrocartilage Bone Dentin

Question 155

Type 2 collagen

Answer 155

Hyaline and elastic cartilage | Vitreous body of the eye

Question 156

Type 3 collagen

Answer 156

Reticular fibres | Blood vessels

Question 157

Type 4 collagen

Answer 157

Basement membranes

Question 158

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Answer 158

``` Defect in type I collagen synthesis Fragile bones Thin sclera Thin skin Abnormal teeth ```

Question 159

Marfan syndrome

Answer 159

``` Loss of stability given to elastin by fibrillin sheaths Tall stature Loose joints Floppy cardiac valves Eye problems ```

Question 160

Cell adhesion molecules

Answer 160

Integrins Cadherins Selectins

Question 161

Essential fatty acids

Answer 161

Alpha linolenic acid = omega 3 | Linoleic acid = omega 6

Question 162

What do fatty acids male using COX enzymes

Answer 162

Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thromboxanes

Question 163

Cholesterol with glycerophospholipids

Answer 163

More gel like

Question 164

Cholesterol with sphingolipids

Answer 164

More fluid

Question 165

Cholesterol is a precursor for...

Answer 165

Bile salts Vitamin D Steroids Sex hormones

Question 166

GLUT transporter on the enterocyte

Answer 166

GLUT2 - facilitated diffusion

Question 167

Collagen amino acid seqence

Answer 167

Pro-Pro-Gly

Question 168

How do chaperones work?

Answer 168

Bind to hydrophobic residues to prevent hydrophobic driven folding Create a unique environment for the protein Use ATP

Question 169

D vs L form of sugars

Answer 169

D form = OH group on the right | L form = OH group on the left

Question 170

Heparin

Answer 170

Actvivats a thrombin inhibiotr and factor X - antithrombin III Released from endothelial cells at sites of damage

Question 171

Interleukin responsible for eosinophil recruitment

Answer 171

IL-5

Question 172

Purines

Answer 172

A, G

Question 173

Pyramidines

Answer 173

T, C

Question 174

5' end

Answer 174

Free phosphate

Question 175

3' end

Answer 175

Free OH

Question 176

Linker histone

Answer 176

H1

Question 177

Direction of DNA synthesis

Answer 177

5'-->3'

Question 178

Topisomerase function

Answer 178

Prevents supercoiling of DNA

Question 179

Why is there a low level of mistakes in DNA replication?

Answer 179

3' to 5' editing of DNA polymerase

Question 180

Base excision repair

Answer 180

Back and backbone removed DNA polymerase replaces base Nick sealed by DNA ligase

Question 181

Nucleotide excision repair

Answer 181

Nuclease cuts section of 12 nucleotides DNA helices removes it DNA polymerase fills gap DNA ligase seals nicks

Question 182

DNA mismatch repair

Answer 182

``` MutS binds to error MutL finds nearest nick and drags it towards it to form a loop Strand removed DNA polymerase fills gap Sealed by ligase ```

Question 183

Non-homologous end joining

Answer 183

Double strands simply joined back together | Without missing nucleotides

Question 184

Homologous end joining

Answer 184

Homologous chromosome used to replicate missing sequence and ends joined together with missing copied nucleotides in between

Question 185

Faulty nucleotide excision repair

Answer 185

Xeroderma pigmentosum | Leads to skin cancer, UV sensitivity

Question 186

Faulty mismatch repair

Answer 186

MutS and MutL mutations | Leads to colon cancer

Question 187

Faulty homologous recombination

Answer 187

BRCA2 | Leads to breast and ovarian cancer

Question 188

DNA methylation process

Answer 188

Addition of methyl groups to cytosine nucleotides at CpG islands Done by DNA methyl transferase Makes genes harder to transcribe

Question 189

Histone modifications

Answer 189

Affects how tightly packed chromatin is Histone acetylase increases transcription Histone deacetylase decreases transcription

Question 190

X inactivation

Answer 190

Silencing of one of the X chromosomes of females

Question 191

Nonsense mutation

Answer 191

Amino acid to stop codon

Question 192

Missense mutation

Answer 192

One amino acid to another

Question 193

Frameshift mutation

Answer 193

Disrupts the triplet code

Question 194

Autosomal dominant conditions

Answer 194

Huntingdon's disease Marfan syndrome Neurofibromatosis Achondroplasia

Question 195

Anticipation

Answer 195

Disease manifests at a younger age in successive generations

Question 196

Autosomal recessive conditions

Answer 196

Cystic fibrosis Sickle cell anaemia Thalassaemias

Question 197

X linked recessive conditions

Answer 197

Duchenne muscular dystrophy Haemophilia Colour blindness

Question 198

X linked dominant conditions

Answer 198

Vitamin D resistant rickets

Question 199

Number of genes

Answer 199

21000

Question 200

Percentage of human genome that codes for proteins

Answer 200

1.5-1.6%

Question 201

What does RNA pol 1 make?

Answer 201

rRNA

Question 202

What does RNA pol 2 make?

Answer 202

mRNA

Question 203

What does RNA pol 3 make?

Answer 203

tRNA

Question 204

Uracil

Answer 204

Modified thymine Bonds to adenine Only in RNA

Question 205

5' cap

Answer 205

Addition of a modified guanine to the 5' of the RNA

Question 206

3' polyA tail

Answer 206

Addition of long chain of adenines to the 3' end of the RNA

Question 207

Where does splicing occur?

Answer 207

Nucleus

Question 208

Start code

Answer 208

AUG | Methionine

Question 209

Stop codons

Answer 209

UAA UAG UGA

Question 210

Process of checking correct amino acid is added to tRNA

Answer 210

Done by RNA poly3 | May need more than one step due to sizes of AAs

Question 211

Ribosome sites

Answer 211

A site - entry P site - middle E site - exit

Question 212

Internal ribosomal entry site

Answer 212

Not all translation starts from 5' cap

Question 213

What happens when a stop codon is reached?

Answer 213

Release factors release peptide chain from final tRNA and the ribosome Second release factor then dismantles ribosome

Question 214

Short vs long arm

Answer 214

``` Short = p Long = q ```

Question 215

G light vs dark band

Answer 215

G light = gene rich, GC rich | G dark = gene poor, AT rich

Question 216

On which chromosome are the MHC genes found?

Answer 216

6

Question 217

Robertsonian translocation

Answer 217

Two chromosomes joined at their centromere

Question 218

Trisomy 21

Answer 218

``` Down syndrome Hypotonia Distinct facial appearance Learning difficulties Heart malformations ```

Question 219

Trisomy 18

Answer 219

Edwards syndrome Multiple malformations Clenched hands with overlapping fingers

Question 220

Trisomy 13

Answer 220

Patau syndrome | Malformations particularly affecting midline structures

Question 221

Klinefelter syndrome

Answer 221

``` 47,XXY Infertility Poorly developed 2ndy sexual characteristics Female shaped hips Tall ```

Question 222

Turner syndrome

Answer 222

45,XO Short stature Primary amenorrhoea Congenital heart disease

Question 223

Amniocentesis

Answer 223

15-18 weeks | Sample of amniotic fluid

Question 224

Chorionic villus sampling

Answer 224

12-14 weeks | Placenta tested

Question 225

Nuchal scan

Answer 225

11-14 weeks For Down's syndrome Non-invasive

Question 226

pH of ECF

Answer 226

7.35-7.45

Question 227

Sources of acid

Answer 227

Aerobic respiration --> carbonic acid Anaerobic respiration --> lactic acid Incomplete fatty acid oxidation --> ketoacids Hydrolysis of nucleic acid --> phosphoric acid

Question 228

Phosphate buffer system

Answer 228

Minot relevance in ECF | Important in kidneys

Question 229

Haemoglobin buffer system

Answer 229

HB + H+ --> HHb Loads in tissues Releases at lungs

Question 230

Major blood buffers

Answer 230

Bicarbonate | Haemoglobin

Question 231

Renal compensation

Answer 231

Can excrete or conserve bicarbonate or hydrogen ions

Question 232

Respiratory acidosis

Answer 232

``` Low pH, high CO2, high bicarb Hypoventilation COPD Respiratory centre depression Sepsis ```

Question 233

Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 233

``` High pH, low CO2, low bicarb Hyperventilation Stress Elevated body temperature Overventilation ```

Question 234

Metabolic acidosis

Answer 234

Low pH, low bicarb, low CO2 Increased acid production or retention - renal failure, starvation, lactic acidosis, diabetes Bicarbonate loss - chronic diarrhoea

Question 235

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 235

High pH, high bicarb, high CO2 Increased bicarb - carbohydrate retention Loss of organic acids - repeated vomiting

Question 236

Anion gap

Answer 236

Difference between cations and anions Normal = GI bicarb loss, renal loss High = lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, renal failure

Question 237

Gibbs-Donnan effect

Answer 237

Presence of a charged impermeable ion on one side of the membrane

Question 238

Voltage gated sodium channel

Answer 238

Activation gate - opens in depolarisation fast | Inactivation gate - closes in depolarisation slowly

Question 239

Voltage gated potassium channel

Answer 239

Opens in response to depolarisation Opens slowly Dont inactivate Produce hyperpolaristion

Question 240

Stages of AP

Answer 240

1. Resting - Na and K channels closed 2. Na channel opens 3. K channels open, Na channels starting to close 4. Hyperpolarisation - K channels open, Na closed

Question 241

Absolute refractive period

Answer 241

Cannot open regardless of applied stimulus During depolarisation 1-2ms

Question 242

Relative refractive period

Answer 242

Larger stimulus required to produce action potential While membrane is hyperpolarised 3-15ms

Question 243

Effect of diameter on conduction velocity

Answer 243

Cytoplasmic resistance decreases with increased diameter | Faster conduction

Question 244

Effect of myelination on conduction velocity

Answer 244

Membrane resistance increases with insulation | Faster conduction

Question 245

Temporal summation

Answer 245

APs occur in rapid succession and combine to reach threshold

Question 246

Spatial summation

Answer 246

Multiple APs from different synapses

Question 247

Meissner corpusle

Answer 247

Light touch

Question 248

Merkel cells

Answer 248

Pressure | Texture

Question 249

Pacinian corpulscle

Answer 249

Vibration

Question 250

Ruffini endings

Answer 250

Skin stretching

Question 251

Origins of sympathetic nerves

Answer 251

T1-L2

Question 252

Myenteric ENS plexus

Answer 252

Between circular and longitudinal muscle layers | Controls motility

Question 253

Submucosal ENS plexus

Answer 253

Between submucosa and circular muscle | Controls secretion and muscularis mucosae motility

Question 254

Sacral parasympathetic nerve roots

Answer 254

S2-4

Question 255

Sympathetic nerves with paravertebral ganglia

Answer 255

T1-4

Question 256

Sympathetic nerves with prevertebral ganglia

Answer 256

T5-L2

Question 257

Total body water

Answer 257

60% body weight | 42L

Question 258

Extracellular colume

Answer 258

1/3 TBW | 14L

Question 259

Intracellular volume

Answer 259

2/3 TBW | 28L

Question 260

Interstitial fluid volume

Answer 260

10.5L

Question 261

Plasma volume

Answer 261

3.5L

Question 262

Red blood cell volume

Answer 262

1.5L

Question 263

Cells other than RBC volume

Answer 263

26.5L

Question 264

Transcellular fluid

Answer 264

1L CSF Synovial fluid

Question 265

What does tonicity depend on?

Answer 265

Solutes that cannot cross the membrane freely

Question 266

Obligatory water loss

Answer 266

500ml/day