G25-26 Flashcards

1
Q

how many base pairs and genes in the human genome

A

3.2 x 10^9 bp, 21,000 genes roughly

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2
Q

what is the stanley miller

A

reproducing environment of early earth
proposed constituents H2O, CH4, NH3, H2
no O2
produced 17/20 of the AA used in protein synthesis and all the purines and pyrimidines used in NA synthesis

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3
Q

what can a purely geochemical process lead to?

A

the synthesis of polymerase biomolecules

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4
Q

what could have been the first coding RNA

A

a ribozyme with duel catalytic and coding function.

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5
Q

what are viroids

A

200bp rna - too simple to be viruses
often complex secondary loops
often non coding
some ribozyme properties - can interact with proteins and replicate
move between plant cellsa nd case disease. through plasmodestmata.

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6
Q

what is the smaulhausen threshold

A

threshold between life and non life

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7
Q

how many genes are universally present in all organisms? what does this info combined with knockouts suggest

A

65 genes

knockouts have shown that minimum set of genes is 200, luca genes must have been lost from some organisms

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8
Q

what are COGS

A

clusters of orthologos genes - subset of COGs probably represent minimum LUCA genome.

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9
Q

what are type of genes are the overlaps between archea and eukaryotes

A

mostly involved in dna replication

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10
Q

what type of genes are in the overlap between bacteria and archea

A

those that have been transfered by horizontal transfer (so share more gens that E/A)

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11
Q

what types of genes are shared between eukaryotes and bacteria

A

endosymbiont genes - chloropast and mitchochondria

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12
Q

What do the number of genes and protein coding genes show in many viruses and bacteria

A

mosst genes are protein coding.

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13
Q

how many of yeasts genes are protein coding

A

roughly half.

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14
Q

what was used to analyse how many of yeasts genes were protein coding and what were the resutls

A

disruption analysis

40% have no phenotype

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15
Q

what is disruption analysis

A

when a transposon is added to knockout a gene.

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16
Q

what could be the issues with results from disruption analysis

A

some genes might be required under different growth conditions.
and duplications of genes = redundency

17
Q

what is the genomic organisation of a typical eukaryotic genome

A

introns and reg seqs = 24%
repetitive DNA that includes transposable elements - 44%
reperative dna unrelated to transpoable elements - 15%
unique non coding = 15%
exons = 1.5%

18
Q

where do the highest proportion of new genes arise from?

A

already exisisting genes (exons)

19
Q

which type of selfish genetic element is more likely to produce new genes

A

LINEs

SINES arent that useful for new genes

20
Q

what are the simplist retroelements

A

lines with no LTRs or ENV genes (envelope genes)

21
Q

what is an example of a gene family that is related by sequence but not function

A

serpins serine protease inhibitors
dont all have serine protease inhibitor function othersa re hormones for example antithrombin. or ovalbumin
* may only need one AA change to dramatically change gene function

22
Q

how did globin genes evolve?

A

via unequal crossing over events - occurs when chromosomes misalign at recombination.
- becausse they are simialr they misalign

23
Q

what do multigene globin allow the production of

A

different types of heamoglobin embryonic foetal and adult

24
Q

what is vpr?

A

an example of a gene in primate lentivirus - in HIV 2 the virus has duplicated and has both the vpr gene and the related vpx gene

25
Q

How are paralogous genes within one species more closely related to each other than to members of the same gene family

A

due to homologous recombination events that elad to gene conversion, effecitvely copying some sequence from one and overwriting the homolgous region in the other.

26
Q

what are orthologs adn paralogs

A
orthologs = genes in different species that evolved from common ancesteral gene by speciation
paralogs = related genes in the same species
27
Q

what is concerted evoltion?

A

the tendency of different genes in a gene family or cluster to evolve in concert.

28
Q

what is responsible for 40% of new genes being formed?

A

gene duplication

29
Q

what is responsible for 60% of new genes being formed

A

de novo

30
Q

how many new protein genes do humans have compared to chimps

A

27

expression highest in cerebral cortex and testes

31
Q

how many different genes (not nex protein coding) do humans have compared to chimps
1. not exlcuding those without start/stop codons
2/ excluding those without start/stop codons

A
  1. 548 genes without protein orthologs
  2. 352 orf looked for orthologs in chimps
    found 66 disrupted open reading frames in chimps which were examined to identify those human specific mutations that generate intact open reaading frames = 46 candidates.
    27 genes confirmed via transcription and tranasaltion
32
Q

what was discovered from the genome wide de novo gene substitution rates for humans and chimps

A

de novo had a higher than genome wide average rates of mutation
chimps de novo evolving at a faster rate
de novo genes evolving faster than other genes

33
Q

Give an example of a transposition causing the formation of a new gene

A
  • hibernating mammals do so by limiting carb catabolism and using triacylglycerols stored in white adipose tissues as fuel.
  • hormone sensitive lipase is typically responsible for hydrolysis of tiacyglycerols in white adipose tissue
  • lipolytic enzyme normally found in the gut (pancreatic triacyglycerol lipase PTL) is expressed in white adipose tissue in 13 lines ground squirrels
  • PTL duplicated by non homologous recombination - insertion of ERC alters regulation elements of PTL allowing expression in white adipose, stnadard PTL remains inactive in WAT but chimeric is active.
34
Q

what is an example of a eukaryotic gene dervied from a virus

A

Fv1 gene in mice, encodes a restriction factor which blocks infection by some retrovirses
this comes from part of the gag gene from another virus

35
Q

what does new gene formation via lateral transfer usually occur in

A

unicellular organisms

eg antibiotic resistance in bacteria

36
Q

what causes disease in vibrio cholerae

A

the CTX phage it is infected with

37
Q

how did CTX phage infect V. cholerae

A

recognises pilus on surface and uses it to enter cell

once inside the cell the CTX phage integrates into the chromosome and the bacteria then expresses cholera toxin

38
Q

what causes cholerae

A

released cholera toxin into infected intestine binds to enterocytes (intestinal wall cells) through interaction of the patameric B subunit of the toxin with GM1 ganglioside receptor on the intestinal cell triggering endocytosis of toxin
toxin then undergoes cleavage to become an active enzyme
then activates G protein through ADP ribosylation reaction that acts to lock G protein in its GTP bound form thereby continually stimualating adenylcylase to produce cAMP
rise in cAMP levels in CFTR ccause dramatic influx of ions adn water from infected entericytes leading to watery diarrrhoa