Gastro Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

What ix to diagnose portal hypertension?

A

Hepatic venous pressure gradient >5mmHg diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when to restart aspirin for secondary CV prevention after bleeding PUD 2’ aspirin use?

A

1-7 days after initiation of PPI and cessation of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when is repeat upper endoscopy repeated to verify ulcer resolution?

A
  • persistent symptoms after 8-12/52 of therapy
  • ulcers of unknown cause
  • did not undergo gastric ulcer biopsy during the initial upper endoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

diagnosis of autoimmune pancreatitis involves?

A
  • presence of narrowed main pancreatic duct and parenchymal swelling (sausage shaped pancreas) on imaging

+

disease response to glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 autoimmune pancreatitis?

A

Type 1: high igG4 positive cells in pancreatic tissue +/- High serum IgG4

type 2: normal IgG4 positive cell counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of type 1/2 autoimmune pancreatitis?

A

glucocorticoids

  • usually high dose oral prednisone tapered over 2-3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx of autoimmune pancreatitis?

A

prednisolone + azathioprine
- usually treat for 2-3 years before consideration of withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what liver lesion can be caused by OCP?

A

hepatic adenomas
- should stop OCP and undergo f/u imaging to confirm stability or regression in lesion size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in patients with selective IgA deficiency, what ix to test for coeliac disease?

A

IgG antibodies to deamidated gliadin peptide or TTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what ix is required to diagnose small intraheptic duct stenosis in PSC?

A

liver biopsy

  • when MRCP negative for large bile duct stenosis, may still be small duct PSC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when to start screening for colorectal cancer in patients with IBD?

A

surveillance colonoscopy should be done 8 years after diagnosis and then every 1 - 2 years thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what other specific cancer to screen for in women with IBD?

A

pap smear annually to screen for cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are causes of ascites with high SAAG (ie >11g/L)

A

cirrhosis and non cirrhotic causes e.g. heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how to differentiate between ascites caused by cirrhosis vs heart failure?

A

total protein level in cirrhosis ascites is low: <25g/L

total protein level in cardiac ascites is high > 25g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common cause of cholestatic hepatitis causing obstructive LFT derangement?

A

drug induced liver injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

need for follow up of incidental fundic gland polyps seen on endoscopy?

A

no follow up required

funds gland polyps are the most common benign epithelial gastric polyp

17
Q

when to restart warfarin in patients with GI bleeding after endoscopic treatment?

A

within 7 days after discontinuation

18
Q

screening for colon cancer/stomach and small bowel cancers in Lynch syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome: caused by mutations in mismatch repair genes MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2

colonoscopy from age 20-25,
upper endoscopy from age 30-35

19
Q

what size of gallbladder polyps would you be worried about?

A

size >1cm - Risk factor for malignancy
- should treat with cholecystectomy

*gallbladder polyps associated with gallbladder stones or PSC more likely to be neoplastic regardless of polyp size

20
Q

tx of functional dyspepsia not responsive to trial of PPI?

A

tricyclic antidepressant

21
Q

treatment of persistent H pylori infection after initial tx with triple therapy?

A

Bismuth + metronidazole, tetracycline + PPI

22
Q

ix to diagnose gastroparesis?

A

4 hour gastric scintigraphy

22
Q

what medications may cause microscopic colitis?

A

NSAIDs, PPIs, SSRIs

23
Q

management of microscopic colitis?

A
  • discontinue potentially causative medications
  • symptomatic tx with loperamide
  • possibly progression to oral budesonide
24
after GI bleeding, when to continue and when to stop aspirin afterwards?
aspirin for primary prevention of CVD should be stopped aspirin for secondary prevention of MI/Stroke should be restarted as soon as haemostasis is achieved
25
when to do cholecystectomy in patients who have had gallstone pancreatitis?
cholecystectomy before hospital discharge
26
what antibiotics are indicated for infected pancreatic necrosis?
- carbapenem alone (e.g. imipenem) or - quinolone, ceftazidime, cefepime + metronidazole
27
when to start screening colonoscopy in patients with first degree relative with colon cancer or advanced polyp
age 40 or 10 years earlier than the age at which relative was diagnosed
28
what is menetrier disease?
overproduction of TGF alpha stimulates EGF and proliferation of epithelial cells -> leading to protein losing hypertrophic gastropathy, presenting with epigastric pain, weight loss, nausea/vomiting, oedema
29
diagnosis of menetrier disease?
low albumin, upper endoscopy with biopsy: giant mucosal folds in gastric fungus and body - should also test for CMV, h pylori
30
what is the mechanism of action of cetuximab?
monoclonal antibody that targets EGFR
31
SIBO: how does this affect B12/ folate levels?
Usually high folate (may be elevated due to bacterial synthesis), low B12
32
mx of hydatid liver cyst?
albendazole + surgery
33
what tx for secondary prophylaxis for patients who are at high risk of c diff infection?
can given oral vancomycin prophylaxis for those receiving systemic abx
34
first line tx of achalasia?
endoscopy + pneumatic dilation
35
where are majority of gastrinomas found?
duodenum - minority in pancreas
36
how to differentiate between gastrinomas and other causes of hypergastrinaemia?
secretin stimulation test - gastrinoma cells release gastrin in response to secretin, while secretin inhibits normal gastric G cells
37
how often to repeat colonoscopy in patients with UC and PSC?
yearly