gastro Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Patients with dyspepsia and no red flag symptoms should be offered

A

4 weeks of full or standard dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) treatment

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2
Q

second-line treatment IBS

A

Low-dose amitriptyline

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3
Q

gastroenterological condition are probiotics MOST likely to be beneficial for

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

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4
Q

peristomal skin rash - inflamed and painful ulcers around the stoma site with purple edges

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

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5
Q

Alongside hyponatraemia, which SINGLE electrolyte imbalance is MOST particularly associated with high-output stomas?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

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6
Q

occurs between one and three hours of eating mackerel or tuna

A

Scombrotoxin food poisoning

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7
Q

food poisoning is characterised by a prodromal malaise, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, with vomiting being uncommon

A

Campylobacter

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8
Q

further treatment for IBS if pharmacological therapy has not controlled symptoms and declines CBT

A

Hypnotherapy

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9
Q

patients with oral lesions should be tested for what GI disease

A

coeliac

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10
Q

tiredness + itching + positive anti mitochondrial DNA

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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11
Q

erythema nodosum is associated with what GI condition

A

ulcerative colitis

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12
Q

one clinical feature that could differentiate UC with Chron’s

A

bleeding almost always in UC

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13
Q

was diagnosed with gastroenteritis now has back pain which imporves on movement, diagnosis? Management?

A

reactive arthritis - naproxen

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14
Q

bdominal pain or discomfort that is either relieved by defaecation or associated with altered bowel frequency or stool form

A

IBS

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15
Q

first-choice blood test to diagnose suspected coeliac disease is IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTGA). If serology is negative, then

A

Total serum IgA

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16
Q

steps in diagnosing coeliac disease

A

first choice - iga TGA, if negative then serum total IgA - is positive fo this then IgG endomysial and/or IgG TGA

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17
Q

treatment for severe oesophagitis - with dose

A

full dose PPI (lansoprazole 30mg OD) then if not better, high dose PPI

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18
Q

can be used to estimate risk of advanced liver fibrosis

A

FIB-4

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19
Q

Which one of the following co-infections MOST significantly ACCELERATES the progression of hepatitis C (HCV)-associated liver disease

A

HIV

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20
Q

presence of Howell–Jolly bodies

A

post Splenectomy

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21
Q

oesophagitis as side effect of whichh meds (x3)

A

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, bisphosphonates and tetracyclines

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22
Q

patients with what SHOULD always be tested for coeliac

A

type 1 diabetes, irritable bowel syndrome, dermatitis herpetiformis, autoimmune thyroid disease (such as Graves’ disease) and any first-degree relatives of people with coeliac disease.

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23
Q

Medications may cause or worsen dyspepsia

A

NSAIDs, CCB, nitrates, theophyllines, bisphosphonates and steroids

24
Q

Which is the SINGLE MOST likely risk factor for developing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

A

Type 2 diabetes

25
Campylobacter enteritis Severe infections are treated with
clarithromycin
26
common medication (non antibiotics) causing recurrent c diff infection
omeprazole/PPI
27
First line treatment for all patients with primary biliary cholangitis (also known as primary biliary cirrhosis)
oral ursodeoxycholic acid
28
monitoring when on oral mesalazine
renal function before starting, at 3 months and then annually
29
LFT raised in hepatitis A (usually)
AST
30
when to stop statin in view of LFTS
when LFTs doubles in 3 months from baseline
31
urgent referral for upper GI scope criteria
any age with dysphagia, over 55 with weight loss and who has either upper abdominal pain, relfux, dyspepsia
32
abdominal pain relieved by defecation
IBS
33
should be considered for people with IBS who do not respond to drug treatments after a year of trial and who continue to experience ongoing symptoms
Cognitive behavioural therapy, hypnotherapy
34
Grey Turner’s and Cullen’s signs
acute pancreatitis
35
PR bleeding in IBD
almost always in UC, arounf half in Chron's
36
hernia - inferior to the lateral tubvercle
Femoral hernia
37
hernia - superior medial to pubic tubercle
inguinal hernia
38
skip lesions
Chron's
39
LIF pain with microcytic anaemia
colorectal cancer
40
urgent referral to be seen within two weeks for hernias
wome with hernia to distinguish femoral vs inguinal
41
Which is the SINGLE MOST likely biochemical abnormality with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Relatively greater rise in alanine aminotransferase (ALT) than aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
42
test of eradication for h pylori (even if not recommended)
urea breath test after 4 weeks
43
severity scale for U/c
Truelove and Witts’ severity index
44
patient with positive Iga TTG, what to do next
refer to gastroenterologist for endomysial biopsy
45
normal screening pathway for colorectal cancer
FIT every 2 years
46
MOST likely malignant complication of untreated coeliac disease
Lymphoma
47
MOST appropriate monitoring investigation for nafld
Enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test
48
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate way of confirming compliance with a gluten-free diet?
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase - in most patients will be negative after one year of gluten free diet
49
toxic megacolon is a complication of
uc
50
MOST significant risk factor for development of more advanced liver disease in a patient with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Hypertension
51
Medications identified as risk factors for gallbladder disease include
semaglutide (glp1), hrt, ceftriaxone
52
Which is the SINGLE MOST likely vitamin deficiency associated with coeliac disease?
Vitamin D
53
grades the severity of liver cirrhosis
Child–Pugh
54
classification grades the severity of liver cirrhosis includes which parameters
Albumin, bilirubin, international normalised ratio (INR) and the degree of both ascites and encephalopathy
55
Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY most common cause of dyspepsia among adults?
Functional dyspepsia