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gastro Flashcards

1
Q

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency: pathophysiology:

A

alpha-1-antitrypsin is a gene for a protease inhibitor
Elastase is an enzyme secreted by neutrophils. This enzyme digests connective tissues. Alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) is mainly produced in the liver, travels around the body and offers protection by inhibiting the neutrophil elastase enzyme. A1AT is coded for on chromosome 14. In A1AT deficiency, there is an autosomal recessive defect in the gene for A1AT.

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2
Q

which organs does A1AT deficiency effect?

A

lungs and liver

  • cirrhosis (50yos)
  • bronchiectasis and emphysema (30yos)
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3
Q

cx of A1AT deficiency in liver over time?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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4
Q

which condition are all new T1DM’s investigated for as they are linked?

A

coeliac disease

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5
Q

what 2 findings will endoscopy and biopsy show in coeliac disease? (duodenal biopsy)

A

villous atrophy

crypt hypertrophy

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6
Q

how do you test for coeliac antibodies in a patient with IgA deficiency?

A

so anti-TTG and anti-EMA are both IgA - when these are tested for its important to test for total IgA abs too - if deficient they can be false negative
–> test for the IgG version of anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies or simply do an endoscopy with biopsies.

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7
Q

name some cx of untreated coeliac disease? (5)

A 
vitamin deficiency 
anaemia
OP
ulcerative jejunitis
EATL of the intestine 
NHL
adenocarcinoma of small bowel
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8
Q

rare neurological presentation of coeliac?

A

peripheral neuropathy
cerebellar ataxia
epilepsy

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9
Q

what rash may be seen in coeliac disease - describe?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (an itchy blistering skin rash typically on the abdomen)

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10
Q

type of anaemia seen in coeliac?

A

anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency

could be either micro or macrocytic

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11
Q

Crohn’s (crows NESTS) mnemonic:

A

N – No blood or mucus (less common)
E – Entire GI tract
S – “Skip lesions” on endoscopy
T – Terminal ileum most affected and Transmural (full thickness) inflammation
S – Smoking is a risk factor (don’t set the nest on fire)
Crohn’s is also associated with weight loss, strictures and fistulas, gallstones, increased goblet cells

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12
Q

Ulcerative Colitis (remember U – C – CLOSEUP):

A 
C – Continuous inflammation
L – Limited to colon and rectum (rectum commonest)
O – Only superficial mucosa affected
S – Smoking is protective
E – Excrete blood and mucus
U – Use aminosalicylates
P – Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
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13
Q

what is a useful investigation for IBD?

A

faecal calprotectin (90% cases)

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14
Q

diagnostic test for IBD?

A

endoscopy + biopsy

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15
Q

what type of condition is proctitis?

A

type of ulcerative collitis

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16
Q

should you start someone on suspected UC on anti-diarrhoea drugs?

A

no - can precipitate life threatening cx toxic megacolon

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17
Q

what cardiac cx of carcinoid syndrome ca?

A

pulmonary stenosis and tricuspid insufficiency

affects right side of heart

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18
Q

ix carcinoid syndrome?

A

urinary 5-HIAA

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19
Q

tx carcinoid syndrome?

A

somatostatin analogue - octreotide - sx relief

diarrhoea - cryptoheptadine

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20
Q

mild normocytic anaemia and raised urea on U&Es indicates:

A

GI bleed - especially in context of long term NSAID use with no PPI prescription

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21
Q

If ? GI bleed - ix?

A

endoscopy within 24 hours

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22
Q

tx for c diff 1st line?

A

oral metronidazole 10-14/7

2nd is PO vanc alone

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23
Q

c diff - what should happen to pt other than abx treatmetn?

A

isolated for 48 hours and barrier nursed

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24
Q

other than abx, main risk factor drug for c diff?

A

PPI

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25
Q

difference between toxin and antigen tests in c diff?

A

toxin in stool during current infection - stool sample

antigen just indicates exposure, not necessarily current infection - only tx if active infection

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26
Q

severe/resistant to 1st line c diff tx?

A

oral vancomycin

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27
Q

biologic tx c diff?

A

bezlotoxumab

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28
Q

Positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAg implies???

A

chronic current Hep B infection

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29
Q

anti-HBS positive, all else negative ->

A

had a vaccine

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30
Q

HBcAb +
HBsAg negative
__>

A

previous Hep B infection >6/12 ago, not a carrier

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31
Q

HBcAb +

HBsAg + ->

A

previous infection, now a carrier

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32
Q

4 months post- cholecystectomy - floating diarrhoea stools tx??

A

cholestryramine

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33
Q

what type of cancer does barret’s oesophagus and GORD increase risk of ?

A

adenocarcinoma of oesophagus

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34
Q

what type of cancer does achalasia increase the risk of?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

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35
Q

which cancers affect which regions of the oesophagus?

A

upper 2/3 - squamous cell

lower 1/3 - adenocarcinoma

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36
Q

mx of severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

prednisolone

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37
Q

gamma-GT is characteristically elevated

the ratio of AST:ALT is normally > 2, a ratio of > 3 is strongly suggestive of acute ______________?

A

alcoholic hepatitis

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38
Q

what formula is used in the acute setting to decide which alcoholic hepatitis patients would benefit from tx?

A

Maddrey’s discriminant function (DF)

prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration

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39
Q

78-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with severe haematemesis. He is brought for urgent endoscopy, which shows oesophageal varices. first line during endoscopy to stop the bleeding?

A

band ligation
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
TIPSS if ligation fails

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40
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage:

A

Propranolol

EVL

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41
Q

raised bili

bigger raise in ALP and GGT than ALT - dx?

A

obstructive jaundice

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42
Q

cardinal sign of pancreatic ca?

A

painless jaundice

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43
Q

what does a ‘double-duct’ sign indicate?

A

pancreatic ca on CT

simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts

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44
Q

increased echogenicity of the liver. The patient is 1.8m in height and weighs 120kg. Their abdomen is distended. The patient is currently on no medications, drinks no more than 2 pints of cider a week and is a non-smoker. best advice to give?

A

lose weight - first line for NAFLD

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45
Q

advice on alcohol intake units:

A

they advise ‘if you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more’

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46
Q

commonest manifestation of crohn’s disease in children?

A

abdo pain

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47
Q

Positive antimitochondrial antibodies are commonly associated with which condition?

A

Primary billiary cholangitis

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48
Q

what should AI hepatitis show on LFTs?

A

predominantly raised ALT, AST compared with ALP (also raised, but not by as much)

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49
Q

which 2 vessels does a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure connect??

A

hepatic vein and portal vein

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50
Q

PBC - the M rule:

A

IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females

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51
Q

what disease presents with the triad of sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

USS is ix of choice with doppler flow

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52
Q

what is a saag used for??

A

to determine whether if the ascites has been caused by portal hypertension or not. A raised SAAG (>11g/L) indicates that it is portal hypertension that has caused the ascites

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53
Q

what is the pathology of budd-chiari syndrome?

A

hepatic vein thrombosis

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54
Q

what is the single strongest risk factor for the development of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

GORD

then male, smoking, obesity

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55
Q

The Mackler triad for Boerhaave syndrome:

A

vomiting, thoracic pain, subcutaneous emphysema. It typically presents in middle aged men with a background of alcohol abuse

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56
Q

Severe vomiting → painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction resulting in haematemesis. Common in alcoholics is which syndrome??

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

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57
Q 
Triad of:
dysphagia (secondary to oesophageal webs)
glossitis
iron-deficiency anaemia
which syndrome?
A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

tx: iron supplementation and dilation of the webs

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58
Q

in macrocytic anaemia picture - which antibodies test for?

A

Intrinsic factor abs

more specific than anti gastric parietal cell abs

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59
Q

odynophagia indicates???

A

oesophageal cancer

2ww

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60
Q

LFTs in paracetamol OD:

A

hepatocellular picture:
high ALT, normal ALP, ALT/ALP ratio high
PT a better marker - v increased

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61
Q

which drugs can cause a cholestatic picture on LFTs?

A

COCP
abx
steroids
sulfonylureas

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62
Q

72-year-old man presents to the GP with trouble swallowing. On further questioning, he explains that some of the food is coming back up and his breath smells much worse than normal.
Given the most likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

A

likely dx - Pharyngeal pouch requires surgical treatment

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63
Q

tx for oesophageal spasm?

A

CCB

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64
Q

treatment for myasthenia gravis:

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

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65
Q

classical ‘bird’s beak’ appearance of the lower oesophagus that is seen in::

A

achalasia

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66
Q

dysphagia of BOTH liquids and solids indicates a dx of:

A

achalasia

lack of lower oesophageal sphincter relaxing during swallowing

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67
Q

lead pipe colon on barium enema?

A

UC

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68
Q

tenesmus is a symptom seen in ?

A

UC

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69
Q

ix a woman with microcytic anaemia picked up during an infective AECOPD. which blood tests should you add?

A

iron studies including TRANSFERRIN, TIBC

ferritin is unreliable during acute infection

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70
Q

A severe flare of ulcerative colitis should be treated in hospital with???????

A

IV hydrocortisone

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71
Q

which drug can be used to induce remission in a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis, but is not suitable for induction of remission in severe cases.?

A

oral mesalazine

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72
Q

which UC drug particularly efficacious in distal proctitis but it is not suitable for acute SEVERE exacerbations.?

A

rectal mesalazine

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73
Q

which drug is most useful to maintain remission after exacerbations of UC (usually 2 in 1 year) which have required steroids.??

A

azathioprine PO

or PO mercaptopurine

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74
Q

2nd line in inducing remission of UC tx?

A

PO steroid

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75
Q

combination of liver and neurological disease points towards ______?

A

wilsons disease

copper

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76
Q

what is the treatment of choice for small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome?

A

rifaximin

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77
Q

risk factors for SIBO?

A

neonates
DM
scleroderma

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78
Q

50-F gastrointestinal clinic with jaundice. eyes were yellow over the past 2 weeks. fatigue and general itch over the past 3 months before her clinic appointment today. emollients have been trialled - no success. no abdominal tenderness. Excoriation was noted across her hands and feet. IgM. M2. raised alp, raised bili, ggt
dx?

A

primary biliary cholangitis

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79
Q

which tx slows progression of primary biliary cholangitis

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

2nd line Obeticholic acid

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80
Q

mx ascitis?

A

reduce dietary na, fluid restrict if na<125
spiro
drain if tense

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81
Q

Fetor hepaticus, sweet and fecal breath, is a sign of ?

A

acute liver failure

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82
Q

68M with T2DM is admitted to hospital unwell. has features of septic shock and RUQ tenderness. He is not jaundiced. Imaging shows a normal calibre bile duct and no stones in the gallbladder.
dx?

A

acalculous cholecystitis

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83
Q

43F known gallstones is admitted with a high fever and jaundice. looks extremely unwell. Her abdomen is generally soft although there is some mild tenderness in the RUQ.
dx?

A

cholangitis

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84
Q

34F is admitted with a 3/7 hx of colicky RUQ pain which radiates to her back. now more constant. On examination she is not jaundiced, but has a temperature of 38.5oC. She has localised peritonism in the RUQ.
dx?

A

acute cholecystitis

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85
Q

what generally used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease?

A 
glucocorticoids only 
po,top,iv - any 
diet changes 
2nd line sulfasalazine
3rd line azathioprine 
4th infliximab
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86
Q

maintaining crohns remission?

A

azathioprine or mercaptopurine 1st line
stop smoking
2. MTX
mesalazine if had previous surgery

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87
Q

dypepsia + weight loss needs?

A

urgent referral

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88
Q

tx of variceal haemorrhage?

A

terlipressin

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89
Q

what is used in the management of upper GI bleeds which are not caused by variceal bleeding?

A

IV omeprazole

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90
Q

which drugs are strongly linked to Clostridium difficile?

A

clindamycin and cephalosporins

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91
Q

what is pseudomembranous colitis caused by ?

A

c.diff

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92
Q

XR: lead pipe appearance of the colon (red arrows). Ankylosis of the left sacroiliac joint and partial ankylosis on the right (yellow arrow), reinforcing the link with sacroilitis. dx?

A

UC

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93
Q

barium enema for UC:

3

A

loss of haustrations
superficial ulceration, ‘pseudopolyps’
long standing disease: colon is narrow and short -‘drainpipe colon’

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94
Q

which 2 drugs are used for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose and rifaximin

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95
Q

Intestinal metaplasia with a villiform pattern noted. Multiple intermediate mucous cells and goblet cells noted. No dyplasia noted.
this oesophaageal biopsy report confirms:

A

barrets oesophagous

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96
Q

mx barrets oesophagus?

A

high dose PPI and endoscopic surveillance

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97
Q

In life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection treatment is with? (this can present as toxic megacolon)

A

PO vanc and IV metronidazole

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98
Q

abdominal radiograph shows large bowel distension (diameter > 5.5cm). in?

A

toxic megacolon

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99
Q

alcohol units equation =

A

volume (mls) x ABV (%) / 1000

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100
Q

Jaundice following abdominal pain and pruritus during pregnancy think

A

acute fatty liver of pregnancy

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101
Q

triad of CVD, high lactate and soft but tender abdomen:

A 
mesenteric ischemia (aka intestinal angina)
metabolic acidosis
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102
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically managed?

A

IM B12 injection replacement, loading regimen then 2-3 monthly injections

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103
Q

A cachectic 32-year-old man with severe perineal Crohns disease is receiving treatment with intravenous antibiotics. Over the past 72 hours he has complained of intermittent dysphagia and odynophagia.
cause of dysphagia?

A

oesophageal candidiasis

barium swallow -> narrowing irregularity

104
Q

A 78-year-old lady presents 6 years following a successfully treated squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus. She has a long history of dysphagia but it is not progressive.
cause dysphagia?

A

post-radiation fibrosis

105
Q

A 32-year-old lady presents with dysphagia. She has a 10 year history of anaemia secondary to menorrhagia and has been strongly resistant to treatment.
cause dysphaagia?

A

plummer-vinson syndrome

oesophageal web

106
Q

which condition develops in around 10% of primary sclerosing cholangitis patients?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

107
Q

jaundice, weight loss, pruritus and persistent biliary symptoms. this indicates?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

108
Q

A 64-year-old woman who is reviewed due to multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling generally unwell for many months. Examination findings include a blood pressure of 138/72 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

vit C deficiency

scurvy

109
Q

Abdominal pain with blood and leucocytes on dipstick should prompt you to look for?

A

stones

non contrast CT abdo and renal tract

110
Q

raised ALT >1000 following MI think?

A

ischemic hepatitis

111
Q

What is the main benefit of prescribing albumin when treating large volume ascites’?

A

this reduces paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality

112
Q

which GI drugs can cause hyponatraemia?

A

PPI

113
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis: most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture:

A

Ecoli

then klebsiella

114
Q

anaemia and low ferritin/folate levels, all characteristic of?

A

coeliac disease

115
Q

Acute hypoperfusion (e.g. low BP secondary to blood loss) may result in ________ which causes deranged LFTs?

A

ischemic hepatitis

116
Q

Liver enzymes are a poor way to look at liver function - they are usually low in end-stage cirrhosis whereas _________ are better measures

A

coag and albumin

117
Q

what is the characteristic iron study profile in haemochromatosis?

A

Raised transferrin saturation and ferritin, with low TIBC

118
Q

hereditary haemochromatosis genetics?

A

autosomal recessive

119
Q

first and second line haemochromatosis tx?

A

first line: venesection

second line: desferrioxamine

120
Q

xerostomia: define

A

dry mouth

121
Q

primary biliary cholangitis AKA:

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

122
Q

differentiating between Primary biliary cholangitis and sjogrens?

A

ALP raised in PBC

sjogrens seen in 80% of PBC patients

123
Q

what do patients who have had an episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis require in future?

A

abx prophylaxis - ciprofloxacin

if saag<15

124
Q

60M 2-year history of diarrhoea and occasional abdominal cramps. Several kilograms of weight loss. Episodes where he becomes very flushed. These episodes began 4 months ago and last for approximately 30 minutes. No triggers. Episodic palpitations.
Dry, flushed skin and the liver edge is palpable 2cm below the costal margin. dx?

A

carcinoid syndrome

with a gut cancer - bad prog as liver mets present

125
Q

HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive, IgG anti-HBc positive -

A

previous infection
immune due to natural infection
not a carrier

126
Q

HBsAg positive, anti-HBs negative, IgM anti-HBc positive -

A

acute infection

127
Q

71F worsening RUQ pain
all LFTs raised
CT shows abscess
what abscess and what tx?

A

pyogenic abscess

IV Abx and image-guided percutaneous drainage

128
Q

You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 30-year-old woman with coeliac disease. what does she need as part of her treatment? (vax)

A

5-yearly booster of pneumococcal vaccine

coeliacs could develop overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism

129
Q

42M jaundice, pruritus and abdominal pain. PMH: ulcerative colitis, biliary colic and diabetes mellitus. raised ALP and a positive p-ANCA titre.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

130
Q

PSC ix:

A

MRCP/ERCP

131
Q

78M sudden onset, severe, diffuse abdominal pain at 7:30pm after meal. It is intermittent and severe in nature. Abdo soft on examination. 1 episode of non-bloody emesis. Initial imaging does not yield any diagnosis. BG: GORD, hernia repair, hypertension, myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

ischemic colitis

132
Q

‘thumbprinting’ may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage in which condition?

A

ischemic colitis

133
Q

mesenteric ischemia tx?

A

surgery urgently

134
Q

19M past six months his family have noted increasing behavioural and speech problems. He himself has noticed that he is more clumsy than normal and reports excessive salivation. His older brother died of liver disease. Given the likely underlying condition what is the most appropriate therapy?

A

wilsons disease

penicillamine

135
Q 
54M 5-hour history of vomiting and abdominal pains. BG alcohol-related liver cirrhosis.
Urinalysis positive for ketones only. 
ABG: metabolic acidosis
random glucose: 4.5 (N)
dx and first line tx?
A

alcoholic ketoacidosis

IV thiamine and 0.9% saline

136
Q

Iron defiency anaemia vs. anaemia of chronic disease: how to distinguish?

A

TIBC is high in IDA vs normal/low in ACID

137
Q

Antinuclear antibodies, anti-smooth muscle antibodies and raised IgG levels are characteristic of??

A

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

138
Q

what is characterized by anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1) and affects children only?

A

Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis

139
Q

mx Autoimmune hepatitis?

A

steroids

azathioprine

140
Q

h pylori triple therapy?

A

amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole.

141
Q

which gastro drug if taken long term can cause hypomagnesia -> muscle aches?

A

PPI

142
Q

what is a complication of wilsons disease?

A

psychosis

143
Q

what should be stopped 2 weeks before an upper GI endoscopy?

A

PPI

144
Q

64-F ED severe upper abdominal pain of sudden onset.
HR 112/min BP 146/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is rigid and particularly tender in the epigastrium. DRE: some soft stools in the rectum.
PMH: OA, previously peptic ulcer disease. She is known to be poorly compliant with her medications.
What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A

dx: perforated ulcer
ix: erect CXR

145
Q

34F hx of ETOH is admitted with abdominal swelling to AMU. A diagnosis of ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis is made and paracentesis is performed. creatinine on admission is 95. Ten days after admission urine output decreases significantly and blood tests reveal: creat 221. hyponatraemia, high urea. albumin given. further mx (and dx)?

A

terlipressin
hepatorenal syndrome

2nd line (TIPS)

146
Q

gallstone first line mx:

A

observation

surgery if complications (stones in CBD)

147
Q

gallstone ix:

A

MRCP

148
Q

woman with longstanding UC known to extend to the ascending colon (extending past the left side of the colon) presents to her GP during an acute flare. 4 motions/day, mild bleeding and mildly raised temperature of 37.4ºC. It is thus classed as a mild to moderate flare according to Truelove and Witt’s criteria.
She has been prescribed daily rectal aminosalicylates by the GP but symptoms remain.
What is the most appropriate addition to current therapy?

A

PO aminosalicylates

149
Q

what are recommended for acute moderate to severe flares of ulcerative colitis?

A

steroids

150
Q

inpatient tx of flares of UC: (severe)

A

IV steroids first line
IV ciclosporin (if CI to steroids or if no response to IV steroids after 72h)
surgery if no response

151
Q

how many stools per day in mild-mod-sev UC?

A

<4 mild
4-6 mod
>6 sev (bloody)

152
Q

general maintaining remission in UC:

A

aminosalicylates (top/po)

153
Q

woman comes in wanting testing for coeliac disease. has been gluten free for 6 weeks so far. what should you tell her?

A

come back after eating gluten for 6 weeks

paired tissue transglutaminase (TTG) and IgA

154
Q

cause of itch in gallstone-disease?

A

hyperbilirubinaemia

155
Q

T2DM with abnormal LFTs - ?

A

NAFLD

do ELF tests

156
Q

27-M gastroenterology clinic due to a 4 month history of diarrhoea. He is now passing around 6 loose non-bloody stools per day. weight loss of 5 kg. He suffers from colicky abdominal pains, particularly after eating.
A barium study: terminal ileum in a ‘string like’ configuration in keeping with a long stricture segment. Termed ‘Kantor’s string sign’. dx?

A

crohn’s

157
Q

23-year-old female with a history of diarrhoea and weight loss has a colonoscopy to investigate her symptoms. biopsy:
Pigment laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. dx?

A

laxative abuse

158
Q

loperamide MODA:

A

reduces gastric motility through stimulation of u-opioid receptors
(no systemic fx as not absorbed through the gut)

159
Q

28M->ED 4 days of watery diarrhoea and fever. He states he has had diarrhoea for the past 6 months but had put it down to the stress and poor diet. Lost 10 kilograms in weight. His abdomen is very tender and distended. Bowel sounds are present. A colonoscopy shows diffuse erythema with deep ulcers in a patchy distribution. Samples are taken for pathology. Considering the likely diagnosis what treatment should be initiated immediately?

A

IV Hydrocortisone
likely crohns

if tried this for 5 days and no improvement - infliximab

160
Q

A 24-year-old smoker presents with intermittent diarrhoea for the past 6 months. She feels bloated, especially around her periods. Bloods tests are normal.
dx?

A

IBS
loperamide 1st line in IBS
2nd sertraline, amitryptiline

161
Q

A 23-year-old student is admitted due to a two-week history of bloody diarrhoea. He is normally fit and well and has not been abroad recently. His CRP is raised at 56 on admission.
dx?

A

UC

162
Q

A 72-year-old woman presents with a two day history of diarrhoea and pain in the left iliac fossa. Her temperature is 37.8ºC. She has a past history of constipation.
dx?

A

diverticulitis

163
Q

which test is the only test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy?

A

urea breath test

do not use if abx or PPI used in last 4/52

164
Q

clostridium difficile ix (active infection):

A

stool toxin test

stool ag if exposure rather than active infection

165
Q

PO mesalazine for UC increases risk of ?

A

pancreatitis (acute)
more so than sulfasalazine
also agranulocytosis

166
Q

Surgical treatment of achalasia -

A

heller cardiomyotomy

pneumatic (balloon) dilation first line usually

167
Q

In an acute upper GI bleed, the Blatchford score 0 indicates:

A

low risk pt - dischargee and f/u in clinic

168
Q

which part of the bowel is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis?

A

splenic flexure

169
Q

65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and hypertension presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain accompanied by some rectal bleeding. He has had associated diarrhoea. This has happened several times before, and tends to be mostly after eating a large meal. dx?

A

ischemic colitis

worse after meal as increased blood requirement of the gut to digest

170
Q

triad of encephalopathy, jaundice and coagulopathy:

A

acute liver failure

171
Q

46M-> GP as he is concerned about reduced libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife also reports that he has ‘no energy’ and comments that he has a ‘permanent suntan’. During the review of systems he also complains of pains in both hands. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to reveal the diagnosis?

A

ferritin

haemochromatosis

172
Q

29-M known UC admitted to hospital with a flare-up. 3/7 hx passing five bloody stools per day. Over the past 24 hours he has also developed abdominal pain and a low grade pyrexia. Bloods show increased inflammatory markers. dx, ix?

A 
toxic megacolon
Abdo XR (transverse colon >6cm diameter)
173
Q

which blood marker checked for HCC recurrence?

A

AFP

also in dx

174
Q

causes for decompensation in liver patients:

A

infection, electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, upper GI bleeds or increased alcohol intake
constipation

175
Q

Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with which conditions?

A

duodenal ulcer / gastric ulcer
gastric adenocarcinoma
MALT
atrophic gastritis

176
Q

55-M -> ED 24h of dark urine, pale stools and right upper quadrant pain. He mentions he is a part-time teacher and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. Sclera appear yellow and his BMI is 29 kg/m².
Which ix will be the most valuable?

A

USS abdo

177
Q

progressive nature of symptoms (first solids and now liquids) suggests dysphagia caused by?

A

oesophageal malignancy

growing obstruction

178
Q

cause of raised ferritin with no raise in transferrin saturation?

A

alcohol excess

179
Q

what is a key differential for abdominal pain and fever in patients with cirrhosis and portal hypertension?

A

SBP

180
Q

child-pugh classification for liver failure takes into account 5 things for SEVERITY: (cirrhosis)

A 
bili
albumin
PT
encephalopathy
ascites
181
Q

UK MELD score considers 3 things for MORTALITY:

A

bilirubin, creatinine, and INR

182
Q

autoimmune condition that causes inflammation and sclerosis of the hepatic bile ducts. This has a strong association with ulcerative colitis. Anti-smooth muscle and anti-nuclear antibodies tend to be positive. dx?

A

PSC

183
Q

macrocytic anaemia, raised GGT and the ratio of AST/ALT being greater than 2:1 along with a mildly raised amylase point towards this being a case of

A

alcoholic hepatitis

184
Q

29-F RIF pain. PMH: ectopic 8 months previously with right sided salpingectomy. USS 3 days previously which demonstrated a viable intrauterine pregnancy. Clinically she is Rovsing sign positive with raised inflammatory markers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

appendicitis

185
Q

The most common type of inherited colorectal cancer:

A

hereditary non-polyposis coorectal cancer

186
Q

Raised transaminases in an obese individual who does not have a history of excessive alcohol consumption should raise the suspicion of ?

A

nafld

187
Q

59-M 3/12 hx of dyspepsia and weight-loss. He denies any vomiting, change in bowel habit or abdominal pain. He is not known to have gord
What is the most appropriate first step in management?

A

Upper GI endoscopy (OGD as part of 2ww)

>55 + wt loss

188
Q

flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and weight loss. =

A

carcinoid syndrome

189
Q

increasingly confused 54-M with alcoholic liver disease who presented 5 days ago feeling generally unwell. He is being treated for SBP with IV antibiotics and seemed well on the morning ward round. Blood pressure is 112/76 mmHg and heart rate is 91 beats per minute. The nurses inform you that he last opened his bowels 2 days ago. What is the most likely underlying cause for the patient’s confusion?

A

ammonia concentration in systemic circulation

190
Q

main RF for HCC?

A

liver cirrhosis secondary to hep C> B, alcohol, haemochromatosis and primary biliary cirrhosis.

191
Q

what is a characteristic biochemical sign in patients at risk of refeeding syndrome?

A

hypophosphataemia

hypomg, hypokalaemia, thiamine deficient

192
Q

Courvoisier’s sign states that:

A

in a patient with a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice the cause is unlikely to be gallstones. Furthermore, it is more likely to be a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree.

193
Q

gilbert’s syndrome:

A

benign mild raise in bili - reassurance - no tx

194
Q

dark rings around the iris of both eyes.

???

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings are seen in the eyes of patients with Wilson’s disease

195
Q

what weight loss is diagnostic of malnutrition?

A

> 10% weight loss in past 3-6 months unintentional

196
Q

A 57-year-old woman with a history of gallstones presents with progressive right upper quadrant pain, rigors and jaundice.
dx?

A

ascending cholangitis

197
Q

A 62-year-old presents with upper abdominal pain. She has recently been discharged from hospital where she underwent an ERCP to investigate cholestatic liver function tests. The pain is severe. On examination she is apyrexial and has a pulse of 96 / min. dx?

A

pancreatitis

198
Q

A 76-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, distension and vomiting. She recently had an episode of acute cholecystitis and is awaiting a cholecystectomy. She feels her symptoms have returned over the past few days. On examination her abdomen is distended. dx?

A

gallstone ileus

199
Q

which drugs should be held during c diff infection?

A

opioids

200
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents with swallowing difficulties for the past 5 weeks. She has also noticed some double vision. dx?

A

myasthenia gravis

201
Q

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is associated with an increased risk of which other ca?

A

pancreatic
also endometrial

MSH2 gene. autosomal dominant

202
Q

diagnostic investigation of choice for pancreatic cancer???

A

high resolution CT scan

203
Q

what is done prior to appendicectomy?

A

IV prophylactic abx

204
Q

how to differentiate type 1 v type 2 hepatorenal syndrome?

A

speed of onset - t1 < 2wks

205
Q

the investigation of choice to detect liver cirrhosis?

A

transient elastography

206
Q

Dyspepsia is a very common side effect of ?

A

bisphosphonates

207
Q

When treating dyspepsia, if either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach has failed then?

A

try the other approach

208
Q

other than SCLC, which other tumours can also secrete pituitary hormones, such as ACTH?

A

carcinoid tumour

209
Q

Hypotension + melaena →?

A

bleeding peptic ulcer

210
Q

what LFTs in pancreatic ca?

A

cholestatic picture

211
Q

plain abdominal film classically shows small bowel obstruction and air in the biliary tree (pneumobilia)
dx?

A

gallstone ileus

212
Q

dilated transverse colon. The abdomen demonstrates a markedly dilated transverse colon (9 cm) with an impression of slight dilatation of the descending colon with some ‘thumb printing’ in the wall. No free subphrenic gas is seen. dx?

A

toxic megacolon secondary to UC

213
Q

74-M abdominal pain consistent with mesenteric ischaemia and he is taken to theatre for an emergency laparotomy. The segment of bowel found to be ischaemic is from the splenic flexure of the colon through to the rectum. At what vertebral level does the blocked artery branch from the aorta?

A

L3
inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut
distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line

214
Q

A 23-year-old student who has recently returned from a trip to North Africa presents with anorexia, nausea, mild right upper quadrant pain and lethargy. Blood tests show a marked elevation of his alanine aminotransferase level.
dx?

A

viral hepatitis

215
Q

A 72-year-old man who is known to have heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a persistent dull ache in his right upper quadrant. Blood tests show a mild elevation of the alanine aminotransferase level.
dx?

A

congestive hepatomegaly secondary to HF

216
Q

which drugs are are major risk factors for duodenal ulcers?

A

SSRIs - sertraline

217
Q

Ulcerative colitis + cholestatis (e.g. jaundice, raised ALP) → ?

A

PSC

218
Q

15M admitted with colicky abdominal pain of 6 hours duration. Soft abdomen, brownish spots around his mouth, feet and hands. His mother intussusception, aged 12, and has similar lesions. dx?

A

peutz-jeghers syndrome
AD - numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles

219
Q

22M crampy abdominal pain diarrhoea and bloating. Returned from Egypt. Swimming in the local pool three weeks ago. Opening his bowels 5 times a day. The stool floats in the toilet water, but there is no blood. What is the most likely cause?

A

giardia lamblia
- fat malabsorption, therefore greasy stool can occur. It is resistant to chlorination, hence risk of transfer in swimming pools.

220
Q

45F GP difficulty swallowing. PMH: RA, hypertension and anxiety. Smooth, glossy tongue and conjunctival pallor. Cheilitis is also noted on the corners of her mouth. dx?

A

IDA

- severe can cause dysphagia - post-cricoid webs (part of Plummer-Vinson syndrome)

221
Q

2 causes glossitis (smooth glossy tongue)?

A

IDA

B12 deficiency

222
Q

In a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis extending past the left-sided colon - mx?

A

oral aminosalicylates should be added to rectal aminosalicylates, as enemas only reach so far

223
Q

Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal side effects, the earliest of which is mainly??

A

acute dystonia

can’t move eyes

224
Q

2 Upper GI risk assessment tools and when to use them?

A

use the Blatchford score at first assessment, and

the full Rockall score after endoscopy

225
Q

Dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, halitosis → ?

A

pharyngeal pouch

226
Q

You wish to screen a patient for hepatitis B infection. Which one of the following is the most suitable test to perform?

A

HBsAg

227
Q

A 54-year-old man presents with a 3 month history of ‘heartburn’. He has noticed that swallowing is painful, particularly when he eats meat or bread. After eating and at night he has an ‘unpleasant’ retrosternal sensation. Clinical examination is unremarkable - dx?

A

oesophagitis

228
Q

A 67-year-old woman presents with a 5-week history of food getting stuck. She is currently treated for COPD and was recently noted to have a macrocytosis and raised gamma-glutamyl transferase on routine bloods. On a number of occasions, she has vomited during the meal and says she has no taste for food anymore. dx?

A

oesophageal cancer

229
Q

A 43-year-old woman with a history of anxiety complains of problems swallowing. On examination she is noted to have a number of small white lumps on her hands and telangiectasia on her face dx?

A

systemic sclerosis

230
Q

A 55-year-old man with treatment-resistant gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) has been referred to the surgeons for fundoplication. Investigation will be required by the surgeon’s before the surgery is performed?

A

oesophageal pH and manometry studies

endoscopy, barium swallow

231
Q

An overweight 47-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of pain in the right upper quadrant which is brought on by eating fatty food.??

A

biliary colic

232
Q

A 56-year-old woman who is known to have gallstones presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. On examination she is apyrexial and tender in the epigastrium. dx?

A

acute pancreatitis

233
Q

GP bloods for Wilson’s?

A

reduced serum copper

reduced caeruloplasmin

234
Q

what should be assessed before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine therapy in Crohn’s disease?

A 
Thiopurine Methyltransferase (TPMT) activity 
if absent/low - severe sfx
235
Q

TB drug leads to peripheral neuropathy and why?

A

Isoniazid - b6 deficiency

236
Q

52F - GP progressive dyspepsia, dysphagia and fatigue. Long history of dark brown stools, but no fresh blood is present. She has not had any unexpected weight loss. She had surgery for a peptic ulcer 10 years ago. H pylori positive. mx?

A

2ww endoscopy to r/o upper GI cancer

describes meleana

237
Q

bloating, tenesmus, urgency, mucus with stool passage all features of?

A

IBS

238
Q

Dysplasia on biopsy in Barrett’s oesophagus> mx?

A

endoscopic mucosal resection

239
Q

most sensitive and specific lab finding for diagnosis of liver cirrhosis in those with chronic liver disease??

A

thrombocytopaenia

240
Q

pt with known polycythaemia rubra vera comes in sudden onset worsening abdominal pain, ruq tenderness, hepatomegaly ->

A

Budd-chiari syndrome

241
Q

seafood -> hepatitis?

A

A

242
Q

A 37-year-old woman presents with a three week history of diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pains. On examination she is noted to have a number of perianal skin tags. dx?

A

crohn’s

243
Q

man with RIF pain but what do you also have to rule out?

A

testicular causes

244
Q

A 48-year-old female presents to the GP complaining of a ‘lump in my throat’. She can swallow foods and liquids normally if she tries, although she has noticed the discomfort is worse on swallowing saliva. She does not have any pain on swallowing, chest pain or heartburn. Her appetite is normal. dx?

A

globus pharyngis

245
Q

children with tracheo-oesophageal fistulas will commonly develop?

A

benign oesophageal strictures

246
Q

deranged LFTs combined with secondary amenorrhoea in young female =

A

AI hepatitis

247
Q

ddx duodenal and gastric ulcers:

A

gastric worse after eating

duod better then worse 3h later

248
Q

skin changes with pernicious anaemia?

A

lemon tinge

also neuropathy

249
Q

severe, colicky post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and an abdominal bruit -

A

chronic mesenteric ischaemia

250
Q

vitamin teratogenic in high doses?

A

A

251
Q

firm, smooth, tender and pulsatile liver edge??

A

right heart failure

252
Q

49F gastro clinic 3/12 epigastric pain and diarrhoea. Her GP initially prescribed lansoprazole 30mg od but this didn’t alleviate her symptoms. PMH hyperparathyroidism. Endoscopy revealed multiple duodenal ulcerations. dx?

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (MEN-1)

epigastric pain and diarrhoea

253
Q

what can TIPS exacerbate (eg confused pt)

A

alcoholic encephalopathy

254
Q

Dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia/delusions, leading to death

A

pellagra

B3 def

255
Q

signet ring cells in?

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

256
Q

coma is only a feature of which grade hep encephalopathy?

A

4

3b/4 (19 decks)

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