Gastro Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Councilman bodies on liver post mortem

A

Yellow fever

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2
Q

The three classical causes of ALT in the 1000s

A

Acute hepatitis
Ischaemia
Drug tox ( paracetamol, anaesthetic agents, alcohol, labetalol)

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3
Q

right upper quadrant pain, evidence of upper GI bleeding and jaundice after liver biopsy

A

Haemobilia
- bleeding into the biliary tree following connection between splanchnic circulation and either the intrahepatic or extrahepatic biliary system

Endoscopy only diagnostic in 12%
MRI with cholangiopancreatographic may help
Angiography is diagnostic and then embolisation of the lesion

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4
Q

Patient presents with drop in Hb. Colonoscopy and OGD normal two years ago. What investigation is more likely to contribute to diagnosis

A

Capsule endoscopy
?angiodysplasia - second leading cause of lower GI bleeding in >60yr

Treated with sclerotherapy,angioembolisatiob or selective resection

Capsule endoscopy used to identify the source of occult GIB when an OGD/colonoscopy N

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5
Q

How many bloody stools in a day is severe in UC

A

More than 6

<4 and 4-6 are mild and moderate

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6
Q

Patient with Crohn’s or coeliac disease, started on sertraline…what may develop?

A

Lymphocytic colitis

Lymphocytic infiltrates on biopsy

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7
Q

Patient presents with two years of Abdo pain and loose stool.

They then develop cognitive decline , and eye exam reveals upgaze palsy, and pendular oscillations of both eyes. With each eye movement there is concurrent movement of the jaw

Diagnosis

A

Whipple’s
Eye involvement is only in 20% but pathognomonic

Diagnose with jejunal biopsy

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8
Q

Eye features of Whipple’s disease occur in 20% but are thought to be pathognomonic. What are they?

A

upgaze palsy, and pendular oscillations of both eyes. With each eye movement there is concurrent movement of the jaw

Diagnose with jejunal biopsy

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9
Q

Patient with diabetes presents with chronic diarrhoea

Found to have low vitamin B 12 and high folate levels

A

Small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

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10
Q

Investigation for suspected Bile acid malabsorption

A

SeHCAT test - a form of nuclear imaging test

Mx: bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

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11
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pill use + acute abdominal pain/distension
ascites and deranged liver function tests
Diagnosis

A

?Budd-Chiari syndrome
Aka hepatic being thrombosis

Triad of sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

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12
Q

What is budd chiari

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis

…sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

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13
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is diagnosed with….

A

neutrophil count > 250 cells / mm^3

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14
Q

Variceal uncontrolled haemorrhage, not resolved by banding in endoscopy

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

If that fails then TIPSS (connects hepatic vein to portal vein, can exacerbate hep enceph)

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15
Q

UC flare marker of need for surgery

A

At day three CRP >45 mg/l or a stool freq of >8/day predicts the need for surgery in 85% of cases.

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16
Q

Jejunal biopsy shows deposition of macrophages containing PAS-positive granules

A

Whipple’s

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17
Q

Patient with Barrett’s management

A

Endoscopic surveillance w biopsy and high dose PPI

If metaplasia then Endoscopy 3-5y
If dysplasia then Endoscopic mucosal resection , radiofreq ablation

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18
Q

Risk of cancer for Crohn’s

A

Small bowel standard incidence ratio 40

Colorectal standard incidence ratio 2 (less than in UC)

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19
Q

Pt has varices so has TIPS. 2 months later develops breathless and reduced ET. No other symptoms.

A

Pulmonary hypertension is known complication

Causes an increased cardiac preload by diverting blood past cirrhotic liver, increasing peripheral resistance

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20
Q

Colonic Adenoma surveillance

A

Low risk:
1or 2 adenomas, less than 10mm….. 5y colonoscopy

Intermediate
3 or 4 small, or 1-2 w one >10mn……3y colonoscopy

High
5 or more smaller, or 3 / more but larger…….1y colo

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21
Q

What topical disease has mega-oesophagus? -dilated on barium

A

Chronic phase of Chagas disease
Trypanosoma cruzi

Can also have mega colon,CHF and Arrhythmia

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22
Q

Management of primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Ursodeoxycholine acid

AMA antibodies

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23
Q

Management for achalasia

A

pneumatic (balloon) dilation first line

Nifedipine , lowers oesoph pressure

24
Q

Absolute contraindications for transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt TIPPS

A

Severe and progressive liver failure (Child-Pugh score >12)
Uncontrolled hepatic enceph (commonly makes it worse)
R HF
Uncontrolled sepsis
Unrelieved biliary obstruction

25
What is TIPPS procedure
transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt percutaneous creation of a tract between the intrahepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein. So blood can bypass the liver and lowers portal pressure
26
Barrett's w low grade dysplasia. Management
PPI, repeat colonoscopy in 6m If there is still dysplasia, then enoscopic ablation
27
Progression rate of low grade dysplasia in barrett's oesoph
9%/yr to high grade or oesoph Ca
28
Cancer surveillance for Crohn's
1y scope in moderate/severe or PSC/fam hx in under 50/dysplasia/structure 3yr if mild, or fam hx over 50/postinflam polyps
29
colorectal carcinoma w liver mets management
staged surgical resection of carcinoma and liver lesions - 5-year survival rate of up to 30% biopsy is not an option as would seed the tumour
30
when do you get acalculous cholecystitis ?
Typically occurs in the very ill patient on the intensive care unit, or after extensive burns
31
what is a succussion splash?
AKA gastric splash sloshing sound heard through a stethoscope during sudden movement of the pt on abdo auscultation - gas and fluid in an obstructed organ, as in gastric outlet obstruction or gastroparesis
32
Pt w ulcerative proctitis on oral mesalazine 2g BD presents w flare: inflamed distal 7 cm of rectum, with normal mucosa above.... Management
Topical treatment with mesalazine suppositories is the most appropriate first-line measure for a proctitis flare. already on a high dose of oral 5-aminosalicylic acid
33
regurge of undigested food and halotosis
zenker's diverticulum | diagnosed w barium swallow
34
pt presents with change in bowel habit, PR bleeding, and history of Osteomas of the skull and mandible diagnosis
Gardner's syndrome variant of FAP w osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma and epidermoid cysts on the skin
35
features of Gardner's syndrome
variant of FAP w colorectal Ca, osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma and epidermoid cysts on the skin
36
mx of hepatic encephalopathy
treat any underlying cause | Lactulose and Rifaximin
37
MOA of Rifaximin and lactulose in hep encephalopathy
rifaxmin decreases ammonia production | Lactulose promotes excretion of ammonia and increasing the metabolism of ammonia by gut bacteria
38
diagnosis of autoimmune pancreatitis
imaging and raised serum IgG4
39
Classic presentation of graft Vs host disease post liver transplant
15 days post, abnormal LFTs jaundice hepatomegaly Macpap rash on palms and soles Diarrhoea Urgent USS and Doppler
40
Pt w UC | anorexia, jaundice, RUQ pain and weight loss over 6m
cholangiocarcinoma (in 10% of Primary sclerosing cholangitis)
41
east africa, eosinophiilia, liver failure, varices
Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma japonicum
42
most common autoimmune hepatitis
type 1 Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA)
43
scoring system for autoimmune hepatitis
revised original AIH score
44
tx of autoimmune hep
induce remission w pred, then taper and add azathioprine if IgG, ALT normalise then can stop treatment completely (40% req lifelong)
45
Chronic Hepatitis C complication
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Hepatocellular Cancer Cryoglobulinaemia: typically type II (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal) sjogrens
46
immunocompromised pt develops watery diarrhoea Management
Cryptosporidium Largely supportive Nitazoxanide is licensed in the US for immunocompetent patients
47
confused after transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt TIPPS
Hepatic encephalopathy TIPPS precipitates it in 25% increased portosystemic passage of nitrogen from the gut
48
in well-man check, patient has Ferritin 15, MCV 76, Hb 132
iron deficiency (without anaemia) Endoscopy if postmenopausal women and men >50yr,
49
which immunoglobulin is classically raised in autoimmune hepatitis?
IgG
50
Single most important factor to indicate the need for a liver transplant post paracetamol overdose
pH < 7.3 , 24hr after ingestion Or all of: PT>100 Cr >300 Grade 3 or 4 enceph (King's College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation)
51
Which autoimmune hepatitis has highest rate of cirrhosis?
``` Type 2 (82%) --Soluble liver-kidney antigen ``` T3 (75%) T1 (45%)
52
Which autoimmune hepatitis has best response to steroids
3
53
indication of alcoholic liver disease rather than non-alcoholic fatty liver
AST : ALT ratio > 2 Normal GGT can exclude alcohol only
54
Newly diagnoses coeliac disease , responded to gluten exclusion. Now asymptomatic. Abnormal transaminases, why?
Hepatic steatosis is common finding at diagnosis or within a yr of treatment Usually returns to normal Auto immune hep tends to be middle aged women, chronic fatigue & pruritis
55
sudden onset bilat red eyes in history of IBD. Mx?
Episcleritis (more common in Crohn's) | Topical corticosteroids
56
what do you measure to determine cause of ascites?
serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) Serum albumin / ascitic albumin >11g/L indicates portal hypertension