Gastroenterology Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

What serology is present in acute Hep B infection?

A

HbsAg (hep B surface antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does anti HBs?

A

Implies immunity to hep B either by infection or vaccination - it is negative in chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does anti-HBc imply

A

previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does amylase do

A

breaks down starch to sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does maltase do

A

cleaves disaccharide maltose to glucose + glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does sucrase do

A

cleaves sucrose to fructose and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does lactase do

A

cleaves disaccharide lactose to glucose + galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the inheritance of haemochromatosis

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what antibiotics is most strongly associate with c diff

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the second line treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

rifaximin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what drug can help prevent recurrent c.diff

A

Bezlotoxumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what drugs can cause a hepatocellular picture

A
paracetamol
sodium valproate, phenytoin
MAOIs
halothane
anti-tuberculosis: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide
statins
alcohol
amiodarone
methyldopa
nitrofurantoin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what drugs cause a cholestatic picture

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name medications that cause cirrhosis

A

methotrexate
methyldopa
amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what HLA is associated with coeliac disease

A

HLA DQ2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what supplementation will likely be required following gastric bypass surgery

A

iron - as most surpass the duodenum where iron is absordbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is prophylaxis for SBP given

A

if ascited with protein level less than 15

choice is cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a rare complication of pancreatitis causing cotton wool spots on fundoscopy

A

ischaemic (Purtscher) retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what causes carcinoid synrome

A

release of serotinin

usually once carcinoid tumours have metastasised to liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how can u treat carcinoid syndrome

A

ocreatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is used to treat SBBOS

A

rifaximin is now the treatment of choice due to relatively low resistance. Co-amoxiclav or metronidazole are also effective in the majority of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is whipple’s disease

A

rare multi-system disorder caused by Tropheryma whippelii infection. It is more common in those who are HLA-B27 positive and in middle-aged men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

jejunal biopsy shows deposition of macrophages containing Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) granules is diagnostic of

A

whipples disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is whipples disease treated

A

co-trimox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how does teripressen work
causes contriction of the splanchnic vessels
26
older person, diarrhea, lots of mucus, hypokalaemia
villous adenoma
27
where is most likely affected in ischaemic colitis
splenic flexure
28
what rheumatological disease is most commonly associated with primary bilary cirrhosis
sjrogens
29
what is the triad of budd chairi
abdo pain ascites hepatomegaly
30
give causes of budd chiari
polycythaemia rubra vera thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies pregnancy oral contraceptive pil
31
describe the difference between type 1 and type 2 hepatorenal syndrome
type 1 -fast onset | type 2 - slower onset (slightly better prognosis)
32
what scoring system can be uses to estimate the likelihood of someone having appendictis
alvarado
33
what primary prevention is given for oesophageal varices
propranolol: reduced rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL)
34
what is the risk of endosopic variceal band ligation
ulcers - PPI given to prevent
35
what is dubin johnson syndrome
benign autosomal recessive disorder resulting in hyperbilirubinaemia (conjugated, therefore present in urine). It is due to a defect in the canillicular multispecific organic anion transporter (cMOAT) protein. This causes defective hepatic bilirubin excretion
36
what heart problem is angiodysplasia assoiciate with
aortic stenosis
37
what are the chances of having bowel cancer from a positive FOB test
5-15 percent | about 40 percent chance of having an adenoma
38
what gene mutations are most common in HNPCC
MSH2 (60 percent) MLH1 they are DNA mismatch repair genes
39
what other cancer is most commonly associated with HNPCC
endometrial cancer
40
how is vertical tranmission of hep B in pregncnay prevented
give newborn hep B vaccine AND immunoglobulin
41
what is the mode of inheritance of peutz jehgers
autosomal dominant
42
what blood group is associated with gastric cancer
A
43
what needs to be checked before commencing azathioprine
TPMT activity if deficient cannot metalobise azathioprine well and more prone to side effects
44
what can be used for resitant c diff
fidaxomicin
45
what are cardiac complications of carcidnoid
tricuspid insufficiency and pulmonary stenosis.
46
what is zollinger ellson syndrome
is condition characterised by excessive levels of gastrin, usually from a gastrin secreting tumour usually of the duodenum or pancreas. Around 30% occur as part of MEN type I syndrome
47
what is the diagnostic test for zollinger ellson syndrome
gastrin levels (fasting)
48
what is associated with gastric cancer on a pathology vlevel
signet ring cells
49
what blood test can be used to assess for chronic pancreatitis
faecal elastase
50
what conditions are associate with primary sclerosisng chonlangitis
UC HIV (also crohns)
51
what is the diagnostic investigation for PSC
ERCP
52
what cancers are you at increased risk from in PSC
cholangiocarcinoma (10 percent) | colon cancer
53
at what BMI can u be referred for bariatric surgery
``` no risk factors (>40) rish factors (>35) ```
54
what antibody is associated with primary biliary cholangitis
antimitochondrial
55
what is the gold standard investigation for GORD
24 hour oesophageal pH monitoring
56
what can be seen on imaging in pancreatic cancer
'double duct' sign - dilation of both the pancreatic and CBD
57
what biochemical marker is used to monitor efficacy of treatment in haemochromatosis
ferritin and transferin saturation
58
what investigation can confirm a diagnosis of gilberts syndrome
investigation: rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or IV nicotinic acid
59
for oesophageal/gastric cancer - what is the best method to assess for mural invasiion
endoscopic ultrasound
60
what is the carrier rate of CF
1 in 25
61
what clotting factor is paradoxically raised in liver failure
factor 8
62
what is the investigation of choice for bile acid malabsoption
the test of choice is SeHCAT nuclear medicine test using a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid (SeHCAT) scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention/loss of radiolabelled 75SeHCAT
63
where do VIPomas usually originate
pancreas
64
which type of colonic polyps are more strongly associate with malignancy
flat or 'sessile' polyps
65
what medical therapy can help prevent cancer in lynch syndrome
apirin 600mg