Respiratory Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What gender is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis more common in?

A

Men (twice as likely).

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2
Q

What are the criteria for LTOT in COPD patients?

A
< 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
nocturnal hypoxaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension

ABGs results are based on 2 results, 3 week apart

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3
Q

What must be done before offering azithromycin in patients with COPD.

A

Only offered if having frequent exacerbations despite optimum therapy in patients who DO NOT SMOKE.

Should have CT to exclude bronchietasis.
Sputum cultures for TB and atypical infections e.g. mycoplasma.
LFTs and ECG (prolongs QTc)

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4
Q

What are the features of cor pulmonale?

A

Features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, loud P2.

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5
Q

What is the treatment of cor pulmonale?

A

Loop diuretics +/- LTOT

ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers and alpha blockers are not recommended.

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6
Q

What things improve survival in COPD

A

smoking cessation - the single most important intervention in patients who are still smoking
long term oxygen therapy in patients who fit criteria
lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients

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7
Q

What happens in ARDS?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, i.e. non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.

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8
Q

What are the causes of ARDS?

A
infection: sepsis, pneumonia
massive blood transfusion
trauma
smoke inhalation
acute pancreatitis
cardio-pulmonary bypass
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9
Q

What are the criteria for ARDS?

A

acute onset (within 1 week of a known risk factor)
pulmonary oedema: bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray (‘not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse or nodules)
non-cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if doubt)
pO2/FiO2 < 40kPa (200 mmHg)

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10
Q

What is the main role of alpha 1 antitrypsan

A

it is a protease inhibitor

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11
Q

Where is A1AT produced?

A

liver

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12
Q

What gene is A1AT deficiency located on

A

chromosome 14

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13
Q

What type of inheritance is A1AT deficiency

A

autosomal recessive

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14
Q

Outline the genotypes in alpha1 antitrypsan deficiecny

A

Normal = PiMM
PiSS (50 percent normal levels)
PiZZ (10 percent normal levels)

Patients who manifest the disease phenotypicall usually have PiZZ genotype

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15
Q

What does A1AT defiency result in

A

Emphysema
Liver cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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16
Q

What type of lung cancer is most commonly associated with cavitating lesions?

A

Squamous

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17
Q

What is the treatment of OSA

A

Weight loss
First line in moderate/severe is CPAP overnight
Intra oral devices can be uses if CPAP is not tolerated or in very mild cases

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18
Q

Outline the management of a primary pneumothorax

A

f the rim of air is < 2cm and the patient is not short of breath then discharge should be considered
otherwise, aspiration should be attempted
if this fails (defined as > 2 cm or still short of breath) then a chest drain should be inserted

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19
Q

Outline the management of a secondary pneumothorax

A

if the patient is > 50 years old and the rim of air is > 2cm and/or the patient is short of breath then a chest drain should be inserted.
otherwise aspiration should be attempted if the rim of air is between 1-2cm. If aspiration fails (i.e. pneumothorax is still greater then 1cm) a chest drain should be inserted. All patients should be admitted for at least 24 hours
if the pneumothorax is less the 1cm then the BTS guidelines suggest giving oxygen and admitting for 24 hours

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of varenicline?

A

Used to help smoking cessation.

Nicotinic receptor partial agonist.

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21
Q

How does sarcoidosis cause hypercalcaemia

A

Sarcoidosis mainly causes hypercalcaemia through forming increased concentrations of calcitriol, the active component of vitamin D. This is as a result of increased activity of 1α hydroxylase produced by the sarcoid macrophages.

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22
Q

What is sarcoidosis

A

multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granulomas. It is more common in young adults and in people of African descent

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23
Q

Name some characteristic features of sarcoidosis

A

acute: erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, polyarthralgia
insidious: dyspnoea, non-productive cough, malaise, weight loss
skin: lupus pernio
hypercalcaemia: macrophages inside the granulomas cause an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form

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24
Q

What is Lofgrens syndrome

A

acute form of sarcoidosis characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia. It usually carries an excellent prognosis

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25
What is Mikulicz syndrome
enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis or lymphoma
26
What is Heerfordt's syndrome
parotid enlargement, fever and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis
27
What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with small cell lung cancer
``` SIADH Cushings syndrome (high ACTH) Lambert Eaton (antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels at the NMJ) ```
28
What paraneoplastic features are associated with squamous cell lung cancer
parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp) secretion causing hypercalcaemia clubbing hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH
29
What paraneoplastic features are associated with adenocarcinoma of the lung?
gynaecomastia | hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
30
Describe the chest x ray stages in sarcoidosis
stage 0 = normal stage 1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL) stage 2 = BHL + interstitial infiltrates stage 3 = diffuse interstitial infiltrates only stage 4 = diffuse fibrosis
31
What is the most common cause of occupational asthma?
Isocyanates
32
what is loffler's syndrome
transient CXR shadowing and blood eosinophilia thought to be due to parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides causing an alveolar reaction presents with a fever, cough and night sweats which often last for less than 2 weeks. generally a self-limiting disease
33
What HLA is associated with bronchietasis
DR1
34
Which HLA is associated with SLE
DR2
35
What is HLA-DR3 associated with
autoimmune hepatitis, primary Sjogren syndrome, type 1 diabetes Mellitus, SLE
36
what is associated with HLA DR4
rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes Mellitus
37
What is associated with HLa-B27
ankylosing spondylitis, postgonococcal arthritis, acute anterior uveitis
38
give causes of bronchietasis
post-infective: tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, pneumonia cystic fibrosis bronchial obstruction e.g. lung cancer/foreign body immune deficiency: selective IgA, hypogammaglobulinaemia allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) ciliary dyskinetic syndromes: Kartagener's syndrome, Young's syndrome yellow nail syndrome
39
what features can be associated with mycoplasma pneumonia
erythema mutiforme | autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
40
what type of pneumonia classically occurs after flu
staph aureus
41
what pneumonia is classically caused by aspiration
klebsiella
42
what features are 'classic' of klebsiella pneumonia
cavitating | red currant jelly sputum
43
what lung causes fibrosis in the lower zone
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate asbestosis
44
what lung fibrosis occurs in the upper zone
hypersensitivity pneumonitis (also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis) coal worker's pneumoconiosis/progressive massive fibrosis silicosis sarcoidosis ankylosing spondylitis (rare) histiocytosis tuberculosis
45
what medication can precipitate Churg strauss
montelukast
46
at what pH of fluid would you insert a chest drain
7.2
47
what is the mechanism of action of montelukast
leukotriene receptor antagonist
48
what is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
results from an allergy to Aspergillus spores. In the exam questions often give a history of bronchiectasis and eosinophilia.
49
what are the major diagnostic criteria for allergic bronchopulmoanry aspergillosis
``` Clinical features of asthma Proximal bronchiectasis Blood eosinophilia Immediate skin reactivity to Aspergillus antigen Increased serum IgE (>1000 IU/ml) ```
50
what are the minor diagnotic criteria for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Fungal elements in sputum Brown flecks in sputum Delayed skin reactivity to fungal antigens
51
what causes raised TLCO
``` asthma pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener's, Goodpasture's) left-to-right cardiac shunts polycythaemia hyperkinetic states male gender, exercise ```
52
what causes lower TLCO
``` pulmonary fibrosis pneumonia pulmonary emboli pulmonary oedema emphysema anaemia low cardiac output ```
53
what is KCO
transfer coeffient of gas exchange corrected for lung volume
54
What conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO
pneumonectomy/lobectomy scoliosis/kyphosis neuromuscular weakness ankylosis of costovertebral joints e.g. ankylosing spondylitis
55
what classically causes 'egg shell calcification' on CT
silicosis
56
exposure to what material increases your risk of TB
silicosis
57
what is the most common side effect of varenciline
nausea
58
what is normal pulmonary arterial pressure?
less than 25 at rest, 30 if exercising
59
give some skin disorders associated with TB
lupus vulgaris (accounts for 50% of cases) erythema nodosum scarring alopecia scrofuloderma: breakdown of skin overlying a tuberculous focus verrucosa cutis gumma
60
what cell secrete surfactant
type 2 pneumocytes