General Flashcards
(213 cards)
1
Q
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?
A
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM
2
Q
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
A
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM
3
Q
All pilots should use the local altimeter setting because it provides
A
data to enable better vertical separation of aircraft
4
Q
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
A
Set your altimeter to 29.92 Hg
5
Q
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
A
Set the altimeter to 29.92 Hg and read the altitude indicated
6
Q
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92 Hg
A
Pressure
7
Q
Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting? It allows the altimeter to read
A
true altitude at field elevation
8
Q
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above
A
the standard datum plane
9
Q
(refer to figure 78) When eastbound on V86 between whitehall and livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
A
10,200 feet
10
Q
If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11 inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, the indicated altitude would be
A
150 feet lower
11
Q
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?
A
Pressure
12
Q
(refer to figure 91) What lighting is indicated on the chart for jackson hole airport?
A
Pilot controlled lighting
13
Q
(refer to figure 134) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2 bar VASI?
A
3.00 degree
14
Q
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?
A
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white
15
Q
The middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will
A
constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath
16
Q
Tricolor visual approach indicators normally consist of
A
a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path
17
Q
When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A
white and far bar as red
18
Q
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI, and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path
19
Q
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A
one light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber
20
Q
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
21
Q
(refer to figure 135) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3 bar VASI?
A
3.0 degree
22
Q
(refer to figure 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
A
5
23
Q
(refer to figure 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glide paths?
A
7
24
Q
(refer to figure 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glide paths?
A
4
25
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration depicts an on glidepath indication?
10
26
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration depicts a slightly low indication?
11
27
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5deg?
8
28
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is slightly high on the glidepath
9
29
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below the glide slope?
12
30
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL
31
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility
32
The runway hold position sign denotes
an entrance to runway from a taxiway
33
Runway hold position markings on the taxiway
identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway
34
The no entry sign identifies
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
35
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the taxiway directional sign indicates
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
36
Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
white lettering with a red background
37
(refer to figure 94) What sign is designated by illustration 7?
Mandatory instruction sign
38
(refer to figure 94) What colors are runway holding position signs?
White with a red background
39
(refer to figure 94) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consists of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway
40
(refer to figure 137) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
1000 feet
41
(refer to figure 137) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone maker?
500 feet
42
(refer to figure 137) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
500 feet
43
Which runway marking indications a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
Arrows leading to the threshold mark
44
(refer to figure 138) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights
45
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (non mountainous area)
1000 foot obstacle clearance
46
Class G airspace is that aircraft where
ATC does not control air traffic
47
Which aeronautical chart depicts military training routes (MTR) above 1500 feet?
IFR low altitude enroute chart
48
During a flight, the controller advises traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound. The pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
40 degree to the right of the aircraft's nose
49
A CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
vacate 4000 feet without notifying ATC
50
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance
51
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
As rapidly as practicable to 1000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude
52
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?
upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility
53
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace
54
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En route low altitude chart?
special use airspace
55
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the route of flight should be no more
than 80 NM apart
56
(refer to figure 24) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver center on:
118.575 MHz
57
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a non standard holding pattern?
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later
58
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later
59
ATC instructs you to hold at 6000 feet. What is the maximum indicated airspeed you may use?
200 knots
60
You are in a civil turbojet aircraft holding above 14,000 feet MSL. What is the maximum permitted airspeed?
265 knots
61
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
the 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
62
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the minimum sector altitude depicted on the IAP charts?
1000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigational signal coverage
63
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made
only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves
64
How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?
Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of non radar approaches
65
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests No STAR
66
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92 Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet
67
Descending from FL 350 to an approximate field elevation of 650 MSL, you fail to set the altimeter to 30.57. Upon landing, you altimeter shows
Sea level
68
While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92 Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
25,000 feet
69
Enroute at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?
206 feet below MSL
70
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
May cause hard to recognize symptoms
71
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation
72
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely on the indications of the flight instruments
73
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
74
Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level
75
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
76
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terran features during flight?
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway
77
Departure control has instructed you to resume own navigation after being vectored to a victor airway. You should
maintain the victor airway by use of your own navigation equipment
78
While on an IFR clearance, ATC tells you radar contact. This means
your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated
79
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to RESUME OWN NAVIGATION. This phrase means that
resume operations as filed and cleared
80
What is the definition of MEA?
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
81
The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum:
enroute altitude
82
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA
83
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
The MEA at which the fix is approached
84
MEA is an altitude which assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements
85
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA
86
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
22 NM of a VOR
87
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
22 NM
88
(refer to figure 193) On which frequencies could you communicate with the montgomery country FSS while on the ground at college station?
122.65, 122.2
89
(refer to figure 76) Which enroute low altitude navigation chart would cover the proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?
L 13
90
(refer to figure 24) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V382 between grand junction reg and Durango, La plata co airports?
15,300 feet
91
(refer to figure 24) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?
52 NM south of JNC
92
(refer to figure 24) What is the MOCA between JNC and HERRM intersection on V187?
12,100 feet MSL
93
(refer to figure 34) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?
16,000 feet MSL
94
(refer to figure 40) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight when crossing the LORAN intersection on V16 from BGS VORTAC to ABI VORTAC?
17,000 feet MSL
95
(refer to figure 53) Where is the VOP COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs?
20 DME from GVO VORTAC
96
(refer to figure 53) What service is indicated by the inverse H symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC?
availability of HIWAS
97
(refer to figure 65) You are flying east on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs? Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP?
34 DME from the LFT VORTAC
98
(refer to figure 65 and 67) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection
The localizer has an additional navigation function
99
(refer to figure 78) What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?
17,000 feet MSL
100
(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to lake charles?
30 NM east of DAS
101
(refer to figure 87) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Beaumont/Port Arthur Jack Brooks Regional Airport?
A published ILS localizer course, which has an additional navigation function
102
(refer to figure 87) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receiver De Ridder FSS in the lake charles area?
122.2, 122.3
103
(refer to figure 87) Why is the localizer back course at beaumont/port arthur jack brooks regional airport depicted?
The back course has an additional navigation function
104
(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?
halfway point
105
(refer to figure 89) When flying from milford municipal to bryce canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing cedar city VOR?
12,000 feet
106
(refer to figure 89) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with cedar city FSS?
122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1
107
(refer to figure 89) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?
127.55
108
(refer to figure 91) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?
8,600 feet
109
(refer to figure 91) What is the function of the great falls RCO (yellowstone vicinity)
Remote communications outlet for great falls FSS
110
(refer to figure 91) Where should you change VOR frequencies when enroute form DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?
60 NM from DBS VORTAC
111
(refer to figure 91) What is the minimum altitude you should be flying at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?
11,100 feet
112
(refer to figure 47) Enroute on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is
7000 feet
113
(refer to figure 47) When enroute on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?
One VOR receiver
114
(refer to figure 47) Enroute on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTACK, the minimum enroute altitude at TROTS intersection is
11,500 feet
115
(refer to figure 160) What is the TDZE for RWY 16L on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
369 feet MSL
116
(refer to figure 185) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?
6000 feet
117
(refer to figure 196) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
44 feet MSL
118
(refer to figure 210) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?
173 feet MSL
119
(refer to figure 210) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at bradley international?
ALSF2 and HIRL
120
(refer to figure 230) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
White cloud VOR/DME
121
When exiting the runway, the runway exit sign indicates the
direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway
122
Within aircraft movement areas, destination signs identify the
direction to specified destinations
123
The runway threshold marking indicates
the beginning of a runway available for landing when the threshold is displaced
124
What purpose does the ILS critical area boundary sign serve?
identifies the exit boundary for the ILS critical area
125
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as
coriolis illusion
126
Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by
reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting, and if in a turn, rolling wings level
127
When using deicing boots, the pilot should
activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer's guidance
128
if you experience icing during an approach, you should
retract flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot
129
On initial climbout after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation it is recommended that
the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged
130
How can you be sure the wing is free of critical ice?
Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection
131
For pneumatic de icer boot system, it is generally recommended that
the de icing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible
132
What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5 degree C OAT?
ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the de icing boots
133
Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?
airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings
134
Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?
pitot tube
135
Which is true concerning aircraft icing?
Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cause the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations
136
During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows flap deployment and was not evident prior to flap deployment is most likely due to
incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment
137
Regarding supercooled large droplets (SLD), which statement is true?
They can be present at high altitude even without precipitation
138
The term airport means an area of land or water that is
used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any
139
The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the
vestibular system
140
Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will
increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases
141
Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?
ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off
142
Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?
ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing
143
What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface?
small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation
144
Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?
air temperature probe
145
(refer to figure 254) While clearing an active runway, you see the top sign. You know
aircraft are prohibited
146
Pilot fatigue is a hazard because
fatigue can impair pilot judgment
147
Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?
on the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy
148
(refer to figure 254) While clearing the runway after landing, pilots contact ground control after passing
the solid lines of the middle sign
149
(refer to figure 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below glidepath?
12
150
Autopilot during cruise flight in icing conditions should be
periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled
151
(refer to figures 176, 176A, and 177) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the THRE for RWY 36L?
25 feet
152
Pilots of newer aircraft often use Electronic Flight Displays (EFDs). When an EFD fails in IFR conditions, the pilot should
continue the flight with backup/standby flight references
153
An engaged function of an autopilot means
the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged
154
In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have three important learning challenges;
how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft
155
Which is true concerning the use of primary flight display (PFD)?
the PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments
156
You are at a towered airport. You should state your position on the airport when
departing from a runway intersection
157
In an aircraft equipped with electronic flight displays (EFD's), a failure is usually signified by
a bold red x over the display
158
(refer to figure 158) Winds are reported as 330 degree at 5 knots. You are given instructions to taxi to runway 04 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner on rwy 29. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices.
the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway
159
During descent from FL 290, you fail to reset the altimeter to the local setting of 30.26. During approach to the minimums, this oversight results in a missed approach because the altimeter reads
343 feet below true altitude
160
Since software and databases in new avionics software are continually updated, that requires you the user to
continually learn system functions, capabilities, and limitations
161
Which NOTAMs are included in the FAA notices to airmen publication (NTAP)?
all permanent NOTAMs
162
Your flight may be completed after dark. How could your vision be affected?
Degraded by hypoxia
163
(refer to figure 259, illustration E) This sign indicates
your taxiway location
164
In an aircraft equipped with a multi-function display, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the
falidown or standby instrument
165
Complacency is a risk to pilots operating aircraft with full glass cockpit because they
provide greater situational awareness
166
When below the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see
red over red
167
What is an airspace designated to separate military activities from IFR traffic
MOA
168
There are two types of emergency conditions. Which one represents an urgency condition?
after deviating for weather, you are concerned you will not have enough fuel to reach your destination
169
When ATC clears you for a descent, you should
begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft
170
You are enroute at 8000 MSL on an IFR flight plan. What is the most appropriate source for obtaining the altimeter setting?
Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft
171
While descending in icing conditions for an instrument approach procedure, you extend the flaps to the approach position. While the flaps are in transit, you begin to notice vibrations and pulsing in the elevator control. What is the best procedure to follow?
immediately retract the flaps to their previous setting and increase airspeed as appropriate
172
(refer to figure 89) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency on V208, 53 NM north of the PGA VOR?
127.55
173
(refer to figure 247) What does the star symbol (*) next to the riverside tower frequency indicate?
part time tower operations
174
(refer to figure 34) You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception?
WASHO at 4000 feet
175
To ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
230 knots
176
(refer to figure 185) In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?
to indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport
177
You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperatures. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first?
on a small, thin pro turbulence
178
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight
179
(refer to figure 254, the top sign) The no entry sign identifies
a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
180
During the preflight of a rental aircraft for flight into IMC, you notice it is equipped with a heated windshield. How would you determine if the aircraft is approved for flight into known icing conditions?
Check the aircraft flight manual or the approved pilot's operating handbook
181
What action should be taken if you encounter an in flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation?
inform ATC immediately
182
ATC wants you to confirm your altitude, and you are at 21,000 feet MSL. How should report it?
level at two one zero
183
If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database?
a pilot
184
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond?
D
185
ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which roll correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn?
increase angle of bank
186
You are inbound to your destination for landing. You listen to ATIS and notice that it has not been updated in over an hour. You decide that
since it has been nearly an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now
187
(refer to figure 193) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at alice international airport? Position the aircraft on the taxiway near the FBO, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 272 degree
the OBS must center within plus or minus 4 degree with a FROM indication
188
When requesting to deviate around weather while flying on an IFR clearance,
radar limitations may affect ATC's ability to accommodate your request
189
(refer to figure 196) You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind conditions would prolong wake turbulence?
winds 180/5
190
(refer to figure 169) What lighting equipment installed for RWY 33 at ADS is designed to help identify the runway, which is surrounded by a preponderance of other lights?
REIL
191
A displaced threshold will
reduce available landing distance
192
When holding at a VOR above 14,000 feet, when should timing be started?
When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later
193
What does VFR-on-top permit allow you to do?
Fly a different altitude than what is assigned by ATC
194
ATC clears you to descend, but does not include at pilot's discretion. You should
descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft
195
At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will
increase
196
What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?
provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures
197
When operating VFR-on-top on an IFR flight plan, the pilot
is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements
198
(refer to figure 242) What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway?
13.9 NM
199
What should be done if signs of hyperventilation are suspected?
breathe at a normal rate
200
You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. After crossing the VOR, your CDI indicates a half scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on your present heading, the CDI still shows a half scale deflection. You should
turn toward the right to get back on course
201
Low altitude charts depict
the limits of controlled airspace
202
(refer to figure 252) Due to a runway closure at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What minimums apply to the ILS RWY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)?
ceiling 1,008 feet MSL
203
(refer to figure 254) Which answer refers to illustration C?
protected ILS critical area
204
If you suspect hyperventilation, you should
breath at a normal rate and depth
205
When making an approach to landing, you are slightly above glidepath when the indications of the 2 bar VASI show the
far bar change from red to white
206
While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is
extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind
207
Failure to maintain a heading may be a result of
fixation during cross check
208
ATC issues an amendment to your IFR clearance. Your readback should include
any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification
209
To maintain a constant airspeed when entering a standard rate turn you should
increase power
210
You must comply with the MEA on a federal airway because it assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance between the fixes
211
(refer to figure 193) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at easterwood field? Position the aircraft on the west edge of the parking ramp, tune the VOR receiver to 113.3 Mhz, an set the OBS to 097 degree.
The OBS must center within plus or minus 4 degree with a FROM indication
212
ATC has just assigned you a new heading. As you establish a standard rate turn, what must you do to maintain altitude and airspeed?
increase angle of attack and increase power
213
The major factor which influences sky wave propagation?
time of day
