IFR and Navigation Flashcards
(430 cards)
1
Q
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the
A
minimums specified for the approach procedure selected
2
Q
If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must
A
convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility
3
Q
What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
A
The point of first intended landing
4
Q
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degree?
A
90 and 270 degree
5
Q
(refer to figure 91) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260 degree and your intended TAS is 185 knots? (VAR 17 degree E)
A
38 minutes
6
Q
(refer to figure 91) Southbound on V257, you cross over CPN VORTAC at 0950 and over DIVID intersection at 0954. At what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC?
A
1043
7
Q
(refer to figure 95) You are tracking the 170 course to the station. What is your lateral displacement from the desired course on the No. 1 NAV?
A
5.0 NM
8
Q
While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of
A
climbing or descending
9
Q
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 degree to a heading of 300 degree?
A
50 seconds
10
Q
If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degree?
A
90 seconds
11
Q
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
A
The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field
12
Q
The miniature airplane on the turn coordinator will indicate
A
rate of roll and rate of turn
13
Q
If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degree?
A
4 minutes
14
Q
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degree?
A
1 minute
15
Q
If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degree to heading of 180 degree?
A
1 minute
16
Q
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degree to a heading of 270 degree?
A
1 minute
17
Q
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A
climb
18
Q
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A
descent
19
Q
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
A
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right
20
Q
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
A
swing freely and indicate known headings
21
Q
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
A
The horizon bar tilts more than 5 degree while making taxi turns
22
Q
What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
A
The horizon bar should remain horizontal and not tilt more than 5 degrees during taxi
23
Q
What pretakeoff check should be made of vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
A
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns
24
Q
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
A
cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control
25
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
instrument cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control
26
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
aircraft control
27
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
instrument cross check
28
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitched instruments?
altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
29
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you
may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication
30
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
half bar width on the attitude indicator
31
Which instrument, in a primary secondary relationship, is the primary instrument for bank control in straight and level flight?
heading indicator
32
In straight and level instrument flight using primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?
altimeter
33
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
attitude indicator
34
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
power only
35
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
airspeed indicator
36
Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?
attitude indicator and turn coordinator
37
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?
10 percent
38
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately
10 percent of the vertical speed
39
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed
40
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude
41
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
50 feet
42
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb
43
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb
44
What indication is presented by the minimature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
indirect indication of the bank attitude
45
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
increase as angle of bank increases
46
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
altimeter and airspeed stabilize
47
If an airplane is in an usual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?
airspeed and altimeter
48
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude
49
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement
50
(refer to figure 145) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight using ailerons and rudder
51
(refer to figure 146 The DG shows a right turn. OAT is -1 degree C) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight and level flight
Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator, apply power, and turn on pitot heat to unblock
52
(refer to figure 147. Ignore the arrow above the DG, it shows a right turn) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading
53
(refer to figure 148) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned
climbing turn to right
54
(refer to figure 149) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
straight and level flight
55
(refer to figure 150) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
climbing turn to the right
56
To correct from an altitude deviation, identify the primary pitch instruments to include in your cross check
attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI
57
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degree
58
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
the first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator
59
Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?
The first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator
60
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?
5 degree
61
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
the airplane is flying away from the radial
62
(refer to figure 95) Using the Nav 1 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?
R 345
63
(refer to figure 95) To center the No. 1 NAV CDI with a TO indication, you should turn the OBS to
165 degree
64
(refer to figure 95) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?
4 degree
65
(refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?
174 degree
66
(refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?
354 degree
67
(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which aircraft position (s) does HSI presentation A correspond?
9 and 6
68
(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which aircraft position (s) does HSI presentation B correspond?
5 and 13
69
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation C correspond?
12
70
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation D correspond?
2
71
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation E correspond?
8 and 3
72
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation F correspond?
4
73
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation G correspond?
7 and 11
74
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation H correspond?
1
75
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation I correspond?
11
76
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation D correspond?
17
77
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation E correspond?
6
78
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation F correspond?
16
79
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation A correspond?
1
80
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation B correspond?
19
81
(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation C correspond?
12
82
(refer to figure 106) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degree. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing left of center?
2
83
(refer to figure 109) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northeast
84
(refer to figure 111) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
Northwest
85
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale
86
(refer to figure 192) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degree of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
10 to 20 degree
87
With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable?
One or more miles for each 1000 feet of altitude above the facility
88
(refer to figure 171) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV(GPS) RWY 33 approach be initiated?
immediately upon passage of the MAP waypoint with the runway environment not in sight
89
(refer to figure 171) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the approach procedure?
1240 feet MSL; 1 SM
90
(refer to figure 244) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at roanoke regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?
The LOC is offset from the runway
91
When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 degree
92
(refer to figures 139 and 140) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?
710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope
93
(refer to figures 139 and 141) Which displacement from the localizer and centerline and glide slope at the 1300 foot point from the runway is indicated?
21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline
94
(refer to figures 139 and 142) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?
1550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope
95
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?
A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach
96
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?
2 1/2 miles
97
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degree glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase
98
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
at standard temperature
99
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
when standard atmospheric conditions exist
100
(refer to figure 193) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Eastwood filed VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME
No.1 No. 2
097 degree FROM 101 degree FROM 3.3
101
(refer to figure 210) When on the RWY 6 approach procedure, when approaching the threshold or on the missed approach, you should expect to see
white light flashing all dots
102
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM
103
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
104
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
200 NM
105
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
No coded identification, but possible navigation indications
106
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This evidenced by
removal of the identification feature
107
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative
108
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6000 feet AGL?
1
109
When a VOR/DME is collected under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will report at an interval of
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz
110
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
in lieu of the OM
111
(refer to figure 240) How should a pilot determine when the DME at price/carbon county airport is inoperative?
The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone
112
What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?
The SDF course width is either 6 or 12 degree while the LDA course width is approximately 5 degree.
113
What is the difference between a localizer type directional aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?
The LDA is not aligned with the runway
114
How wide is an SDF course?
either 6 or 12 degree
115
What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider
116
Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?
middle compass locator
117
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?
compass locator
118
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?
six dots per second and a flashing white light
119
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
200 feet
120
Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glideslope warning flag appears. The pilot is
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA
121
Handheld GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
an aid to situational awareness
122
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
select another type of navigation and approach system
123
During IFR enroute and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage
124
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,
the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
125
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS
126
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
airport advisory service
127
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
airport advisories
128
If during a VFR practice instrument approach, radar approach control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR
129
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches
130
The most current enroute and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
flight service station
131
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
Enter No DP in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan
132
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
Destination and fix plus specific altitude
133
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description
134
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
When advised by the tower
135
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published
136
(refer to figure 87) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?
direct
137
(refer to figures 87 and 88) You are traveling westbound on V222, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FALSE intersection. Which VOR would you use?
When the CDI on VOR 2 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FALSE
138
(refer to figure 112, #1) While on a heading of 350 degree flying direct to the 15 DME fix from the ABC VORTAC, ATC issues you this clearance. HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX, LEFT TURNS, FIVE MILE LEGS, ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT 2215Z. What is the recommended entry?
direct entry
139
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
parallel only
140
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct
141
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.
Teardrop only
142
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct only
143
(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct only
144
(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTACK. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct only
145
(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
teardrop only
146
(refer to figure 115, #1) You receive this ATC clearance: HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350. Which holding entry procedure is recommended?
direct
147
(refer to figure 116, #2) HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 330. What is the recommended entry procedure?
teardrop entry
148
If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting timed approaches from a holding fix?
The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
149
(refer to figure 242) What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?
4 DME miles from FEHXE
150
Which of the following conditions is required before timed approaches from a holding fix may b conducted?
If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal
151
Prior to conducting timed approaches from a holding fix which one of the following is required?
The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.
152
When marking a timed approach from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the
holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time
153
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course
154
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
200 knots IAS
155
Which is true regarding STAR's?
STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures
156
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
established on a segment of a published route or IAP
157
While briefing the assigned approach, you review the missed approach procedure. If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must
fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns
158
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
on tower frequency
159
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
when radar vectors are provided
160
During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to
minimum altitude shown on the IAP
161
(refer to figure 240) What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the price/carbon county airport approach chart?
it provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
162
Which of the following statements is true regarding parallel ILS approahes?
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course
163
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published
164
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility
165
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a category B airspace, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
use the approach minimums appropriate for category C
166
Aircraft approach categories are based on
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight
167
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
168
You are being vectored on the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?
query ATC
169
What are the requirements for a contact approach to an aircraft that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?
The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds
170
When may you obtain a contact approach?
ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile
171
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
172
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions
173
If an ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
arrival at the DH on the glide slope
174
Which fixes on the IAP charts are initial approach fixes?
any fix that is identified by the letters IAF
175
When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land
176
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
in lieu of conducting a SIAP
177
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action be taken by the pilot?
maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC
178
You received the following clearance: CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT. When does ATC expect you to commence the side step maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight
179
During a no gyro approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns
standard rate unless otherwise advised
180
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a no gyro surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns
one half standard rate
181
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
When assigned a VFR-on-top clearance
182
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
To see and avoid other traffic
183
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
to the airport elevation
184
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting
185
Landing on a narrow runway may cause you to perceive the aircraft is
higher than actual altitude
186
You break out of the clouds on an instrument approach. A narrower than usual runway will have the same appearance as
an upsloping runway
187
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
coriolis illusion
188
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
false horizons
189
An abrupt transition from a climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of
tumbling backward
190
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
being in a nose up attitude
191
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments
192
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly
193
You are subject to spatial disorientation when you
use your sense of kinesthesia to interpret flight attitude
194
What does the runway visual range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP charts, represent?
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft
195
How can an IAF be identified on a standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) chart?
All fixes that are labeled IAF
196
(refer to figure 162) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at eugene/mahlon sweet field?
0600 2330
197
(refer to figure 184) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the tower for the yakima air terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
0600 to 2200
198
(refer to figure 64) The course deviation indicators (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the lafayette regional airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM
No. 1 No. 2
162 degree TO 346 degree FROM
199
(refer to figures 65 and 66) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?
West of GRICE intersection
200
(refer to figures 71 and 71A) You are traveling northbound on V213, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FLOSI. Which VOR would you use?
When the CDI on VOR 1 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FLOSI
201
(refer to figures 89 and 90) What is your relationship to the airway while enroute from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8?
Left of course on V8
202
(refer to figure 91) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR-on-top flight from DBS vortac to RANEY intersection (for 0 to 179 degree heading above the MEA)?
15,000 and 17,500
203
(refer figures 182 and 48) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206 radial of the instrument departure procedure?
On the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206
204
(refer to figure 211) Where does the STAKK THREE departure procedure end?
STAKK intersection
205
(refer to figure 211) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
10,200 feet MSL
206
(refer to figures 216 and 216A) After departing from RWY 16 at RNO, you discover you are unable to contact reno departure control. What procedure should you follow?
continue on assigned heading and via the I-RNO localizer south course until passing 10,000 MSL, then turn direct FMG
207
(refer to figures 174 and 175) At which point does the glen rose nine arrival begin?
JEN VOR
208
(refer to figures 174, 175, 176, and 176A) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL from the abilene VORTAC to DFW. Which frequencies would you anticipate using to contact regional approach control, tower, and ground control?
119.875, 124.15, 121.85
209
(refer to figures 208 and 209) At which location or condition does the STEL.STELA1 arrival begin?
CANAN intersection
210
(refer to figures 177) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability
211
(refer to figures 188) What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at portland international airport?
I-GPO 1.2 DME
212
(refer to figure 188) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at portland international?
700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM
213
(refer to figure 188) When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?
6,200 feet MSL
214
(refer to figure 188) You have been cleared to intercept the BTG VORTAC radial 054 at 7000 feet direct CREAK and the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX. You should descend to the procedure turn altitude
after CREAK outbound
215
(refer to figure 192) Under which conditions should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (paso robles municipal airport) is not in sight?
once you are over the VOR
216
(refer to figure 210) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
1800 feet MSL
217
(refer to figure 210) When should you execute the published missed approach for an S-ILS RWY 6 approach at BDL?
When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude
218
(refer to figure 213) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 28R approach to billings logan international, and plan to circle to land at 95 knots ground speed. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach?
B
219
(refer to figure 213) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (billings logan) approach procedure?
three
220
(refer to figure 217) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glideslope becomes inoperative?
1380 feet
221
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized
222
(refer to figure 221) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at glide slope intercept at
JETSA
223
(refer to figure 223) During the ILS RWY 31 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is
2400 feet MSL
224
(refer to figure 228) The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is
2:33 from PECAT
225
(refer to figure 232) When choosing a course reversal for the LOC RWY 35 approach to duncan/halliburton field, what options are available?
The type of turn is optional if it is made to the east of the approach course
226
(refer to figure 232) The point on the procedure turn where the turn in bound (LOC RWY 35 at duncan/halliburton), is initiated is determined by
DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit
227
(refer to figure 238) If cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 approach (lancaster/fairfield) over APE VORTAC, what will ATC expect of you?
Category A aircraft
Last assigned altitude 3000 feet
proceed straight in from FAIRF, descend after FAIRF
228
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box
229
(refer to figure 240) You are cruising at 12,000 feet and are cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach at COPUK. Once established on the PUC arc, you can descend
at COPUK, from 8,900 at PUKNE, and from 7,500 at WELEN
230
(refer to figure 242) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field (LIT)?
Any IFR approved GPS
231
(refer to figure 244) What are the course reversal restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?
Remain within 10 NM of EXUNE INT and on the south side of the approach course
232
(refer to figure 244) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?
Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24
233
(refer to figure 244) At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LDA RWY 6 approach at ROA?
4,300 MSL
234
(refer to figure 247) You are over seal beach VOR and have been cleared for the ILS RWY 9 at riverside muni. How should you proceed?
Fly at 3000 feet to JASER, descend using the LOC at 2500 feet, and intercept the glideslope
235
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable
236
What practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise
237
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid
238
What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn
239
(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?
Figure 142
240
Precision runway monitoring (RPM) is
a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways
241
(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicate you are high and to the right of the ILS course?
Figure 140
242
What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved flight simulator (airplane) or flight training device, within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight
243
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed
244
Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months
245
(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?
Figure 141
246
Which conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower than actual altitude?
air temperature warmer than standard
247
A hazardous situation can occur when true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. This can occur when you altimeter is set to 29.92
in colder than standard air temperature
248
(refer to figure 249) You are flying the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach to LBF, over BEMXI, and you receive a RAIM error. You should
continue to RW30 while climbing to 4900 feet, and then execute the missed approach instructions to AGHAN
249
(refer to figure 249) Which points are designated fly over waypoints?
RW30
250
When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints
are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing
251
(refer to figure 249) How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV approach?
At the RW30 waypoint
252
During a WAAS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should
descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid.
253
What is the maximum acceptable descent rate for a stabilized approach during a precision approach?
1000 FPM
254
Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to
determine that the waypoints are generally logical and in the correct order as per the procedure chart
255
The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between
decision altitude and the runway threshold
256
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
The approach mode annunciation will disengage
257
(refer to figure 249) You are 27 NM west of AJCIZ at 7000 feet and have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach. You should
remain at 7000 feet until AJCIZ, descend to 4700 feet in the holding pattern, cross AJCIZ and begin descent to cross BEMXI at 4600 feet
258
(refer to figure 249) Why is there a note stating a temperature limitation for executing this approach with Baro-VNAV equipment?
The decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower than chartered
259
How does Baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach?
by defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes throughout the procedure using the local altimeter setting
260
GPS systems certified for IFR operations can not be used as substitute for ADF and DME receivers
in selection of an alternate that requires use of ADF or DME
261
While on an IFR flight plan at 7000 feet, you encounter structural icing. You know that clear conditions are a few hundred feet above you. You contact ATC and request a climb to 9000 feet, but they are unable to give it to you. You then request a VFR-on-top clearance to 7500 feet which is granted. When you accept this clearance, your IFR clearance is
still in effect
262
(refer to figure 249) Which type waypoint is the AGHAN fix?
Fly by waypoint
263
When converting from conventional instruments to a primary flight display (PFD), experienced pilots of conventional instruments tend to
fixate on correcting for altitude deviations as small as two feet
264
When filing a composite flight plan where the first part of the fight will be IFR, you IFR flight plan must include
all points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix
265
You are flying on an IFR flight plan at 5,500 feet with a VFR on top clearance when you encounter icing. You know where is clear air above and you request 9500 feet from ATC. They deny the request, but give you 7500 feet. Are you still VFR on top?
Yes, you are still IFR with a VFR on top clearance
266
When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS
267
Upon arrival at your destination airport, there is an active NOTAM stating WAAS MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE. Your aircraft avionics indicate LNAV/VNAV service is available. You know that
LNAV/VNAV service is available and vertical guidance can be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service
268
(refer to figure 162) You are on a visual approach to RWY 16R at eugene mahlon sweet field at night, and you do not see the centerline lights. You are
lined up on the wrong runway
269
(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 18, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
185 degree
270
(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 27, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
275 degree
271
(refer to figure 233) The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 LNAV/VNAV procedure is
1903 feet MSL
272
(refer to figure 251) What is the slope of RWY 9
0.4% down
273
The standard IFR ATC climb gradient is
200 feet per NM
274
(refer to figure 232) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at duncan/halliburton field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
parallel
275
Aircraft operating under IFR with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for enroute navigation must also have installed
the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVID's along the route
276
(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on RWY 4, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
050 degree
277
(refer to figure 187) When the MALSR are NOTAM'd out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?
4500 RVR
278
(refer to figures 230 and 231) For an approach into Baldwin Muni, what minimum equipment is required for the procedure?
GPS or VOR and DME
279
(refer to figure 232) The missed approach point for the DUC LOC RWY 35 procedure is
2:27 from GYROE, 120 knots ground speed
280
(refer to figure 234) During the LOC RWY 18 missed approach at lincoln (LNK), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
parallel
281
(refer to figure 230) During the VOR/DME or GPS-A missed approach at Baldwin Muni (7D3), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
parallel
282
(refer to figure 240) During the VOR/DME RWY 36 missed approach at buck davis field (PUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
parallel
283
(refer to figure 148) Which instrument would aid in determining which system has malfunctioned?
Magnetic compass
284
During IFR enroute operations, using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation
the aircraft must have an approved alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
285
When the marker beacon shows a blue light with tones of all dashes on ILS approach, this indicates you are
near glide slope intercept
286
Before a pilot may plan to execute an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, what aircraft documentation is required?
There must be a statement in the airplane flight manual that the aircraft equipment has been demonstrated to support LPV approaches and is WAAS equipped
287
When planning a random IFR route, it is a good rule of thumb to avoid restricted and prohibited areas by at least
3 NM
288
(refer to figure 149. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the right.) During your instrument crosscheck, you notice the instruments disagree. What is the flight attitude, and which instrument has failed.
level turn to the right with a failed turn coordinator
289
(refer to figure 148. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the left.) Which system has malfunctioned if both the artificial horizon and directional gyro are providing false indications?
Vacuum pump or AC power
290
(refer to figure 149) Which system has malfunctioned?
Gyroscopic vacuum system
291
What is the purpose of an off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) along a designated route?
For emergencies and situational awareness
292
(refer to figure 245) The MAP for the RNAV (GPS)-B approach at CQX is
RW24 waypoint
293
(refer to figure 247) During a stabilized IMC approach, the pilot should have the aircraft in a landing configuration
established on the glide slope before descending below 1819 MSL
294
(refer to figures 195 and 196) You are on the ground just prior to runup, when you notice the cloud level has dropped. Rather than exiting the plane, how can you contact a Flight Service Station for an updated weather briefing?
122.35 and 800-992-7433
295
(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation B?
West of the waypoint, 080 bearing TO the waypoint
296
(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation E?
north of the waypoint
297
(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation F?
South of the waypoint, 180 bearing FROM the waypoint
298
(refer to figure 171) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV (GPS) RWY 33 approach procedure including the IF and missed approach procedure?
five waypoints
299
(refer to figure 236) During the ILS or LOC RWY 32 approach at dothan regional (DHN), if you can identify FEKRA, what is the difference between the minimums for Cat B circling?
360 feet
300
(refer to figure 249) What approach should be selected to ensure the safest approach at night?
LPV since it takes you to the lowest height above the runway and provides close guidance all the way to the DA, ensuring obstacle avoidance along the approach
301
(refer to figure 242) If using the hold for course reversal for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36, at what point would you turn inbound for the approach?
4 DME from FEHXE
302
If while on an instrument approach, approach control advises you of inoperative equipment, you must
increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment
303
(refer to figure 236) If you are cleared for the straight-in LOC RWY 32 approach at Dothan regional (DHN) from over OALDY, you have to
proceed on the approach segment without making a procedure turn
304
GPS systems certified for IFR enroute and terminal operations may be used to
fly the aircraft along a DME arc
305
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause the illusion of
turning or accelerating on a different axis
306
You are within 2 nautical miles of the final approach fix on the GPS approach and notice that the approach mode annunciation disappeared. In this situation you known that you
must fly the published missed approach procedure
307
In the event of an attitude and heading reference system (AHRS) failure, what becomes your primary pitch instrument?
PFD altimeter
308
(refer to figure 210) Cleared for the approach and about to pass HUNEE on the ILS RWY 6, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the approach light system has lost all power. You should
increase minimums to RVR 4000 to begin the approach
309
When the marker beacon shows an amber light with tones of alternating dots and dashes on ILS approach, how far is the airplane from the runway threshold?
3500 feet
310
What aural indication will you receive when passing the middle marker?
Dot, dash, dot, dash
311
Your IFR clearance is to fly at MEA on an airway that includes an MCA. When you arrive at the MCA waypoint, you should
be at the designated crossing altitude
312
(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying west on V306 from Lake Charles to Daisetta?
50 NM west of Lake Charles
313
what is the purpose of preferred IFR routes?
To increase system efficiency and capacity
314
If you accelerate while on a heading of 270, the magnetic compass will
initially indicate a turn to the north
315
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 12 correspond?
C
316
If you decelerate while on a heading of 090, the magnetic compass will
initially indicate a turn to the south
317
A pilot may conduct a contact approach
if ATC approves the PIC's request to do so
318
(refer to figure 141) Figure 141 indicates that
you are above the glide slope and to the left of the localizer
319
(refer to figure 31) You are flying on an IFR flight plan and encounter thunderstorms. You ask ATC for a new route of Rogue Valley (OED) to North Bend (OTH) via V287, and then Eugene (EUG) via V121. How much time will it take, and fuel consumed, given a TAS of 135 knots, altitude 10,000 feet, winds 340/25, and 15 gallons per hour?
1 hour 11 minutes; 17.7 gallons
320
What weather would you expect when moist, cool air blows over a warm land mass?
Thunderstorms
321
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VOR. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO SIX ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Teardrop only
322
(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation A?
West of the waypoint, 100 bearing TO the waypoint
323
(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation C?
South of the waypoint, 350 bearing TO the waypoint
324
(refer to figure 159) How would you enter the holding during the missed approach from the DRO ILS or LOC/DME RWY 3 approach?
Direct
325
(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended?
parallel
326
Flight at the MOCA gives
acceptable navigational signal coverage within 25SM on off airway routes
327
(refer to figure 236) You have just executed a missed approach from your original destination. What are the landing minimums at your alternate, the ILS RWY 32 at Dothan Regional?
200 AGL - 1/2 SM
328
(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Parallel only
329
(refer to figure 192) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB. Consider the IAP only specifies circling minimums. Under what conditions could you perform a straight in landing on runway 31?
A straight in landing may be performed if runway 31 is in sight and the aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach
330
(refer to figure 71) What is the MCA over the Huguenot VOR (HUO)?
start climb to 4000 feet over HUO northbound on V273
331
(refer to figure 186) You are cleared fo the ILS RWY 10R at portland international. At SCAPO the controller clears you to side step to RWY 10L. At which point can you side step to RWY 10L?
At 4.5 DME and when the runway environment is in sight
332
The minimum safe altitudes depicted in the MSA circle on an IAP are intended for
emergency use
333
(refer to figure 240) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating between R-293 and R-203?
12,400
334
(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 11 correspond?
I.
335
(refer to figure 40) What would be the total enroute time and fuel consumed from BGS to ABI on V16 at a true airspeed of 125 knots if the average fuel consumption is 12 GPH?
Wind 090/15
45 minutes and 8.9 gallons
336
```
(refer to figure 53) Calculate the time and fuel burn for an IFR flight from San Marcus (RZS) VORTAC to Paso Robles (PRB) VORTAC on V25 with the following conditions.
TAS 120 kts
altitude 8000 feet MSL
reported winds 070/25
fuel burn rate 12 GPH
```
38 minutes, 7.7 gallons
337
(refer to figure 106) Determine the correct HSI description for the aircraft shown in position 2 if the OBS were turned to 360.
The HSI would have a FROM flag, and the CDI would be to the left of center
338
(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 7 correspond?
G
339
(refer to figure 247) You arrive at riverside municipal after the tower is closed, and the ATIS is unavailable. You must raise the S-ILS 9 approach DA by
46 DA
340
(refer to figures 208 and 209) You are flying the STELA ONE ARRIVAL from AUDIL at FL 270 to KBDL. You are instructed Jet 123AB, cleared AUDIL, STELA ONE. Which of the following is true?
You must receive further verbal instructions to begin your descent
341
You are navigating on an IFR flight using GPS with RAIM, and you lose RAIM. You should
advise ATC and continue while actively monitoring required alternate navigation systems
342
When might you expect ATC to issue a visual approach as you approach your destination on an instrument flight plan?
When ATC deems it beneficial and the weather is reported as 1000 feet and visibility 3 SM
343
When issued a 4 DME hold on a VOR above 14,000 feet, when do you turn inbound from the outbound leg above 14,000 feet.
at 4 DME
344
a 180 turn at half standard rate would take
120 seconds
345
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Parallel only
346
(refer to figure 236) You are inbound at 2,600 feet via the initial approach fix OALDY for the ILS RWY 32 approach at dothan regional (DHN). You should
proceed inbound at 2,600 feet to CABTA, then descend to 2,200 feet to the FAF
347
(refer to figures 87 and 88) You are westbound on V222, and ATC asks you to report reaching FALSE intersection. To identify FALSE intersection, you should
adjust the OBS for #2 to 142 and expect the needle to center soon
348
```
(refer to figure 71) ATC has issued an amended clearance as follows. Cleared IGN V58 HELON V213 SAX. Calculate the time and fuel required to fly the amended route.
True airspeed: 110 knots
Average fuel consumption: 17 GPH
Winds: 180/20
Altitude: 6000 feet
```
41 minutes and 12 gallons
349
(refer to figure 247) You are enroute to RAL, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Inbound from PIRO to JASER, you experience complete two way radio failure. How should you proceed?
Proceed inbound, complete the approach, and land RWY 09
350
While taxiing for departure on an IFR flight, you notice that the altitude indicator tilts more than 10 degrees while making turns. You determine
the aircraft cannot be flown under IFR
351
(refer to figure 47) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V448 for a VFR-on-top flight from BTG to YKM (above the MEA)?
15,500 and 17,500 feet
352
(refer to figures 71 and 71A) You are northbound on V213, and ATC asks you to report reaching FLOSI intersection. (71A left figure is VOR 1, 71A right figure is VOR 2) To identify FLOSI intersection, you should
wait for the VOR 1 needle to center
353
While arriving at the final of a GPS approach in IMC conditions, you notice that the approach mode is not active. How does that affect the approach?
Immediately execute the missed approach procedure
354
(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying on V70 from the Lake Charles (LCH) VORTAC to the sabine pass (SBI) VOR/DME?
The halfway point
355
(refer to figure 114) You receive this ATC clearance N270BC, CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Direct only
356
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.
Parallel only
357
(refer to figure 230) You had a late departure due to weather. You are 90 minutes away from your destination (7D3). The sun is setting, what should you do?
Fly to your alternate
358
(refer to figure 150) The heading indicator shows a turn to the left. Which instrument should be used to determine bank?
Attitude indicator
359
(refer to legend 32 and figure 227) ATC has instructed you to expect the ILS RWY 35R approach to APA. How are the minimums affected when you learn the MALSR lighting system is out of service?
increases the visibility requirement by 1/4 mile
360
(refer to figure 78) You are southbound on V343 from SUZZY crossing BZN enroute to RANEY. The minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
10,500
361
(refer to figure 109) ATC has instructed to fly present position direct the VOR, you will turn to a heading of approximately
190
362
(refer to figure 159) You are approaching FIMGA. ATC as cleared you to FIMGA, and the 14 DME arc for the ILS RWY 3 approach at DRO. You should
proceed direct to FIMGA, fly the arc and complete the approach
363
What do instrument departure procedures enable?
A preplanned IFR obstruction clearance route from the terminal area to the enroute structure
364
While flying under IFR, which of the following equipment is required?
Navigation equipment suitable to the route to be flown
365
Cessna 733WS, cleared for takeoff Rwy 04 (magnetic heading 044), fly runway heading, winds 090 at 15 gust 25. You should
fly magnetic heading 044 with no wind correction
366
You are flying IFR in an aircraft equipped with GPS (no WAAS). Your destination airport approach requires GPS. Any alternate airport must have an instrument approach procedure
that is not GPS based
367
(refer to figures 98 and 99) Your aircraft has HSI presentation A. In which quadrant are you?
Northwest
368
(refer to figure 249) When approaching AJCIZ from the south, you
must use turn anticipation to avoid over flying the fix
369
(refer to figure 250) While flying at an assigned altitude of 7000 feet MSL, you are cleared for the GPS RWY 3 approach at OWK. At what point may you leave 7000 feet MSL?
Upon crossing UCCOX for the procedure turn
370
(refer to figure 177) You are at 4000 feet being vectored for the ILS RWY 36L at DFW. ATC gives you the following instructions: Lear 123AB, you are 3 miles from the final approach course, turn right heading 325, maintain 4000 you are cleared for the ILS RWY 36L, contact tower on 126.55. When may you begin a descent from 4000 feet?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP
371
If you are being radar vectored and cleared to fly an instrument approach, you should be aware that terrain and obstacle clearance depends upon
maintaining the last altitude assigned by ATC until the aircraft is established on a published segment
372
(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, left turns. What entry procedure is recommended?
teardrop
373
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 8 correspond?
E
374
(refer to figures 208 and 209) You are flying the STELA ONE ARRIVAL and ATC clears you JET 123AB, cleared AUDIL, STELA ONE, cross SWEDE at FL 230, then to Bradley International. When can you start you descent to Bradley international?
Begin the descent as cleared, crossing SWEDE at FL 230, but you must receive further verbal instructions from ATC before STELA
375
While flying an RNAV GPS approach, the published vertical descent angle can be used to
establish a stabilized descent from the FAF or step down fix to the MDA.
376
The main purpose of a vertical descent angle on a non precision approach
is advisory in nature and allows the pilot to establish a stabilized descent during the approach
377
(refer to figure 234) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. When crossing Clone, you observe a glideslope warning flap. Which of the following is true?
you may descend to 1,780 MSL while tracking the localizer inbound
378
(refer to figure 240) How do you determine that the Carbon VOR/DME is operating normally?
Listen for the correct Morse code or verify the signal decoded as PUC
379
(refer to figure 114) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO NINER RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
parallel only
380
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 5 correspond?
B
381
(refer to figure 157) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 11, circle to land RWY 29 at GJT. What are your landing minimums in an airplane with a 100 knot approach speed?
5380-1
382
(refer to figure 116, #2) You are given the following instruction. HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VOR, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended entry procedure?
teardrop only
383
(refer to figures 86 and 87) Referring to CDI indicators numbers 1 and 4, what is your position along V20 as you fly westbound?
Slightly south of V20 and past MOCKS intersection
384
(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194 at 8000 feet, ATC instructs you to hold west of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended?
direct
385
(refer to figure 78) When flying from billings on V611 toward ESTRO, what is the altitude that provides obstacle clearance but not signal coverage?
6000 feet MSL
386
(refer to figure 186) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 10R at portland international (PDX). At what point must you execute the missed approach if you do not have the runway environment in sight?
When the altimeter reads 223 feet MSL
387
(refer to figure 196) The ceiling is 300 feet AGL and visibility is 2 1/2 miles. ATC has cleared you for the RWY 4 LOC approach to HOU. After EISEN, the approach lighting system goes out. What action are you required to take?
raise visibility requirement by 1/2 mile
388
(refer to figure 217) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 13 approach at DSM. When should you initiate the missed approach if your ground speed is 90 knots?
1121 feet MSL
389
(refer to figure 192) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB. You should initiate the missed approach procedure if the runway environment is not in sight and
after passing the PRB VORTAC
390
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct
391
(refer to figure 34) While south west bound on V54, you are approaching WASHO. What does MRA 4000 indicate?
WASHO can be identified using a dual VOR receiver if you are 4000 feet MSL or higher
392
(refer to figure 78) When flying north from Billings (BIL) on V611, what does the *6000 indicate?
minimum altitude which provides reception within 25 SM of the BIL VORTAC and obstacle clearance along the entire route segment
393
(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CESSNA 270 BC, HOLD EAST OF THE XYZ VOR ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
direct only
394
(refer to figure 240) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating the area between the 023 bearing and the 293 bearing?
10,600
395
During a left turn, the primary flight display indicates a high airspeed and nose low pitch attitude. What actions are required to return the aircraft to level flight?
reduce power, level the wings, and bring the pitch attitude to level flight
396
ATC has cleared you direct to the XYZ VOR and instructed you to hold east as published. You should
proceed direct to the VOR and enter the published hold
397
(refer to figure 234) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at lincoln municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. ATC clears you direct to the lincoln VORTAC at 5000 feet. At what point can you descent to 3,200 feet?
when crossing lincoln VORTAC outbound
398
(refer to figure 78) The *6000 just north of the Billings VORTAC on V611 indicates
adequate obstacle clearance to ESTRO intersection and adequate signal within 22 NM of BIL VORTAC.
399
(refer to figures 174 and 175) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL. Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact regional approach control?
133.62
400
(refer to figure 223) You are established on the LOC 31 approach over CYCLN, and the glide slope is inoperative. Which MDA do you use?
1320
401
(refer to figure 78) When flying southbound on V187 toward billings (BIL), what is the minimum crossing altitude?
6,500 feet
402
What does a bolded square W mean on top of an RNAV approach plate?
Non reliable WAAS coverage zone
403
(refer to legend 32 and figure 178) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 13L approach into DAL and have been informed by ATC that the MALSR is inoperative. How does this information affect the minimums during your approach into DAL?
increase the visibility requirement by 1/4 mile
404
In order to guarantee navigation signal reception, what is the maximum distance between two VOR facilities when your enroute altitude is 7000 feet?
80 NM
405
(refer to figures 216 and 216A) What is the minimum climb rate to 10,900 feet at 100 knots ground speed when taking off from RWY 16L at RNO to meet the required climb gradient? The weather is 700 foot ceiling and 1 1/4 mile visibility.
587 feet per minute
406
(refer to figure 168) While inbound to Bonham (BYP) in a turbojet at FL 230, ATC gives you the following clearance. Descend via the bonham six arrival, cross KARLA at one thousand. When should you descend to 11,000 feet?
at pilot discretion
407
(refer to figure 247) ATC has cleared you to SLI with RAL as your destination, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Before reaching SLI, you experience complete two way radio failure. How should you proceed?
Upon reaching SLI, proceed to JASER, and then continue the ILS RWY 9 IAP
408
ATC directs you to resume own navigation after completing a no gyro surveillance or precision based approach. All turns should be
standard rate
409
(refer to figure 249) If the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach was the only IAP available at LBF, which of the following statements is true?
Circling to runway 17 is not authorized at night
410
The primary reason for departure procedures is
to provide obstacle clearance protection information for the pilot
411
(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 1 correspond?
H
412
What aural indication will you receive when passing the outer marker?
Dash, dash, dash
413
(refer to figure 248) The runway slope for RWY 9 is
1.1% up
414
(refer to figure 243) The 25 mile MSA for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 approach at ROA is determined from
the GPS missed approach point
415
(refer to figure 87) You are west of the sabine pass VOR flying east on V194 at 9000 MSL. ATC instructs you to hold south of SBI on the 180 radial. What entry procedure is recommended?
Direct
416
(refer to figure 78) What does 122.2 over the livingston VOR/DME NAVAID information box refer to?
Great Falls RCO frequency
417
(refer to figure 249) The missed approach procedure for the LNAV/VNAV procedure is initiated at
DA 3019 feet
418
Once established in a turn, the miniature airplane on the turn coordinator indicates
rate of turn
419
Spatial disorientation can be mitigated during instrument flight by
relying on the instruments
420
(refer to figure 243) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the ROA RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 to LP minimums?
at CAKIX at 1780 MSL
421
(refer to figure 228) For the ILS RWY 31 approach at FFC, what is the DA?
1081 MSL
422
When on an RNAV (GPS) approach and you lose GPS signal, you should
immediately fly the missed approach procedure
423
You cross a VOR, adn 7 minutes later you notice that you still have a half scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. You should
turn right to reintercept the course
424
The proper way to check a heading indicator before IFR flight is to set the heading indicator to the magnetic compass and
ensure the instrument functions properly during taxi
425
You are planning to fly to an airport with a VOR or GPS approach (no WAAS). In this case, you should
plan for an alternate approach procedure that is not GPS based
426
Which instrument serves as a primary backup in case your airspeed indicator fails
Tachometer
427
The controller has cleared you for a visual approach. What must the pilot have?
be able to remain in visual conditions
428
(refer to figure 232) On the inbound leg of the procedure turn, at what point would the pilot turn to intercept the approach course
localizer intercept when within 10 NM of GYROE
429
While in IMC, in order to overcome spatial disorientation, you need to
rely on correct interpretation of flight instruments
430
(refer to figure 110) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
northeast
