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General Flashcards

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1
Q

What conditions reduce hold over time the quickest

A

Freezing rain, freezing fog, snow, high velocity jet blast, aircraft skin below outside temp

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2
Q

What is a QDM

A

A magnetic heading to a station

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3
Q

Why climb at constant IAS then swap for Mach

A

Due to speed of sound differences-

lower = higher speed of sound, so IAS limiting

Higher = Mach due to lower speed of sound

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4
Q

Air pressure, density and temp with alt

A

All decrease, so does IAS

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5
Q

Purpose of winglets

A

Reduce induced drag which lowers fuel consumption, better for the environment

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6
Q

How do swept wings work

A

Delay start of supersonic flow by introducing spanwise flow to reduce acceleration of air over the wing

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7
Q

Disadvantage of swept wings

A

Left nearer the stalls at slow speeds as higher AOA. Wing tip stall first

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8
Q

What happens if wing tips stall first

A

Lose aileron control at the onset of the stall, nose up pitching moment due to centre of pressure moving towards LE

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9
Q

How do slats work

A

Extra lift at low speeds, increase surface area and camber of wing

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10
Q

What is spanwise flow

A

The movement of air from high pressure beneath wing to low pressure above

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11
Q

Effects of spanwise flow

A

-reduced aileron efficiency
-reversed spanwise flow
-wing tip vortices
-disturbed airflow = wing tip stall

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12
Q

What is Mcrit

A

lowest Mach number at which the airflow over any part of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.

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13
Q

Role of spoilers

A

Reduce lift, air brakes, roll devices

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14
Q

Where does a swept wing stall first

A

Wing tips

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15
Q

What to use to reduce wing tip stall

A

-Vortex generators
-stall fence
-stall strip
-stick shaker/warner, limiter

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16
Q

What is the INS

A

A navigation device that use motion sensors (accelerometers), rotation sensors (gyro) and a computer to calculate position, orientation and velocity by dead reckoning

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17
Q

Shortest distance on earth shown by what

A

Great circle distance

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18
Q

What is RNAV

A

Navigation method allowing operation on a flight path within coverage of ground or space based nav aids

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19
Q

What is RNP

A

Requirement for keeping a stated level of accuracy and equipment, 95% of time, RNP forms PBN and adds to the accuracy standards

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20
Q

4 requirements for operating in RVSM

A
  1. Two primary altimeter systems (within 200ft)
  2. One automatic altitude control system
  3. One altitude altering system
  4. Transponder that can be connected to altitude measurement system in use
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21
Q

Aircraft spacing on take off

A

Heavy- 2 mins (same position or parallel runway < 760m)

Heavy- 3 mins (intermediate point)

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22
Q

What is Vmca

A

Lowest speed that a multi engine aircraft can fly and maintain heading following critical engine failure

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23
Q

Vmcg

A

Minimum speed for control on the ground, maintaining directional control with rudder after critical engine failure

Less than or equal to 1

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24
Q

How many climb segments are there

A

4

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25
1st climb segment and config
35ft (screen height) to gear retract TO power, flaps and gear down, positive roc
26
2nd climb segment and config
Gear retraction to acceleration alt (min 400ft, max 1000ftagl) Gear up, V2, 2.4% climb rate, flaps down
27
3rd climb segment and config
Acceleration alt to flap retraction Gear up, V2, 1.2% gradient, flaps up
28
4th climb segment and config
Flap retraction to 1500ft Gear up, flap up, MCT, 1.2% gradient
29
V1
Take of decision speed Highest speed that take off can be aborted following a critical failure Lowest speed that take off continues following engine failure
30
V2
Take off safety speed (TOSS) Speed at which aircraft is controllable and maintain a climb of 200ft with OEI
31
Rough estimate for critical AOA cambered wing
16degs
32
What is bypass ratio
Ratio between mass flow of bypass stream flow mass flow entering core
33
Most thrust from which engine flow?
Bypass flow
34
Do jets have critical engines
No, but crosswinds can cause upwind engine to be more critical (less rudder authority)
35
What is a turbo charger
Turbine driven induction device which increases internal combustion efficiency by forcing extra compressed air into the combustion chamber
36
What is a super charger
Air compressor that increases the pressure or density of air supplied. More oxygen, more fuel burnt, more power output
37
2 stroke v 4 stroke
2 revs for one power stroke (more torque) 4 revs for one power stroke
38
Critical engine for clockwise propeller when viewed behind
Left engine
39
How to calculate magnetic headings given true and variation
C D M V T Cadburys dairy milk very tasty
40
Types of flaps
Plain, slotted, fowler, double slotted, split, Zat
41
How does an altimeter work
Partially evacuated capsule in case, static pressure fed into the case. Static pressure decreases with alt, case expands. Moves mechanisms. Opposite decent
42
How does a VSI work
Uses differential pressure. Metering valve, casing and diaphragm Rate of static pressure change measured, case pressure remains the same. Diaphragm contracts, showing climb
43
How does an ASI work
Works from a pitot static system. Dynamic pressure used to indicate reading
44
Information transmitted from mode S transponder
Squawk code, altitude, aircraft ID
45
Fly by wire principle
Pilot moves control, which turns into an electrical signal which is interpreted by computers and moves flight control surface
46
Where to find visibility requirements for landing minima
Pan Ops
47
Advection fog
Warm moist air flows across colder surface, cooling and condensing air
48
What should thunderstorms be avoided by
5000ft vertically, 20nm laterally
49
What is rime ice
Small, supercooled water droplets which freeze on contact with a surface temp below freezing
50
Cloud base height calculate
(Temp - dew point) x 400
51
MEA
Minimum en route altitude to ensure nav aids received, comms, obstacle clearance, ATC procedures etc
52
Missed approach gradient
2.5%
53
3 sections to go around segments
Initial missed approach segment Intermediate Final
54
What is an LVO approach
Any approach below cat 1 minima
55
Minimum vis for take off no LVO
400m
56
How does a VOR work
Signal emitted from antenna in all directions
57
NDB frequency band
190-535
58
Runway centreline and edge light colours
Centreline line = White lights, then 900 to 300m alternate white and red, then last 300m is red Edge lights = white then turn yellow 600m to go
59
Location of 3% enroute alternate to reduce contingency fuel
Circle radius equal to 20% flight plan route, with the centre at a distance of 25% of the flight planned route from destination (or 20% +50nm, whatever is greater)
60
Contaminated and wet difference
Contaminated = more than 25% and covered by more than 3mm Wet = surface covered in moisture or wet but no significant areas of standing water
61
How many lights needed for take off if rvr 125/125/125
As centreline lights at 15m interval, expect 8 lights (7 it assume one behind you)
62
Cat 1, 2 and 3 approach limits
Cat I - DH not lower than 200ft, rvr of 550m or more, or 800m vis Cat II- DH lower than 200ft, but not less than 100ft, RVR 300m or more, 150m at midpoint Cat IIIA- DH lower than 100ft, but not less than 50ft, rvr 200m or more, 150m at midpoint Cat IIIB- DH lower than 50ft but not less than 0, rvr 50m (75 common) or more, 50m at midpoint Cat IIIC- DH of 0ft, rvr 0m
63
RVR take off with HILS
150m at tochdown zone, with midpoint rvr equal to TDZ rvr No stop end factor
64
RVR t/o no HILS
200m rvr, midpoint same, no stop end factor
65
Air navigation order prevents all CAT 2 and 3 take off and landings when rvr is below what
150m
66
Where can all low vis procedures (TO, landing, roll out, system minima etc) be found?
EU Ops sub part E
67
Take off obstacle clearance with one engine failed
50ft + 0.01xD or 90m horizontally + 0.125xD Where D is the horizontal distance travelled from end of TODA Wing span < 60m, 60 + 0.125xD can be used
68
Max angle of bank before and after 400ft
15degs before and not more than 25degs after
69
Minimum roc required if all engines operating enroute
300ft/min
70
Clearance required when OEI at MCT
Within 5nm of track…. 1000ft when roc is 0 or more 2000ft when roc is < 0
71
Wet runway landing factor
1.15
72
9 core competencies
-problem solving and decision making -leadership and team work -communication -knowledge -flight path manual -flight path automation -situational awareness - work load management -application of procedures
73
High to low, look out below used when
When going from high pressure/temp, to a lower value (altimeter over reading, true alt is less)
74
1944 Chicago convention
Established the creation of ICAO, rules regarding airspace, registration, safety etc
75
1963 Tokyo convention
Relates to safety and security of people on board and details offences and acts that are not permitted on board
76
1970 Hague convention
Agreement to prohibit and punish those involved in hijacking or related events
77
1971 Montreal convention
Defines unlawful acts against safety of aviation, violence on board, damage to aircraft, bombs, interference etc
78
1999 Montreal convention
Relates to rights of passengers

Interview Technical Questions (11 decks)

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