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CL-30 Recurrent > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

Wingspan of the 300/350?

A

300 = 63’10”
350 = 69’

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2
Q

Minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

58’
with a 5’ safety margin

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3
Q

Wingtip clearance for a 180 degree turn?

A

300 = 95’5”
350 = 101’

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4
Q

Max rotational travel each side of center of nose gear while towing?

A

120 degrees without disconnecting torque links.

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5
Q

At what degree of nose angle might the nose, landing gear swivel pins share? 

A

Beyond 123 degrees

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6
Q

With torque links disconnected what minimum nose gear strut extension is required in order to rotate the nose gear beyond the travel limits?

A

3.5 inches

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7
Q

How is the main entry door normally closed?

A

Electrically by inside switch or external switch

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8
Q

How is the main entry door closed if the electric switch or door motor is inoperative

A

Manually by ratcheting pull handle on the lower left side of the entry door

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9
Q

On the ground, you notice an amber cargo Door Caution CAS displayed. What condition has caused this?

A

The cargo door is not fully closed and Left Engine Switch is in Run.

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10
Q

What condition causes an amber PAX Door (Caution) CAS Message display when the aircraft is in flight?

A

Passenger door rollers, not fully engaged into fitting guides, door handle not down and locked or vent flap not closed.

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11
Q

On the ground?

A

Door is not closed and the Left Engine Run switch is placed to RUN.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the vent flap in the cabin door?

A

To equalize cabin pressure before the door locks are released

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13
Q

What doors are monitored by the door warning system?

A

Main passenger, emergency, exit, cargo, aft, equipment, and battery bay 

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14
Q

How many static dischargers are there on the CL 300? CL 350 ?

A

300 = 24
350 = 26

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15
Q

What emergency equipment is required to be in the cockpit?

A

Axe, fire extinguisher, oxygen, masks, smoke, goggles, PPE, and life vests.

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16
Q

What is the weather radar transmit danger zone?

A

5 feet

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17
Q

There are over 400 CAS messages that display in various colors. What are the colors and how are they prioritized?

A

Read - warning
Amber - caution
Cyan – advisory
White - status

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18
Q

What color denotes normal status of a component or no flow through a line?

A

White

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19
Q

What color denotes, component failure (no flow, energy, or pressure)?

A

Amber

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20
Q

What ICAS messages require immediate action?

A

Warnings (red)

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21
Q

On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indications to what color?

A

Red

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22
Q

What ICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and a flashing master caution light?

A

Caution (Amber)

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23
Q

Warning messages are always accompanied by what?

A

Triple chime, flashing master warning lights, red on the EICAS or synoptic page

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24
Q

A takeoff inhibit feature is active when?

A

Begins as the aircraft accelerates through 80 kts and ends at 400 feet or 60 seconds

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25
Q

A landing inhibit feature is active when?

A

Begins as the aircraft descends through 400 feet and ends at 40 knots or 60 seconds 

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26
Q

The aural warning channel mute panel is located where?

A

Above the circuit breaker panel over the copilot seat

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27
Q

What items trigger a takeoff configuration warning?

A

Auto pilot, 3-trim axis, spoilers, flaps, parking brake, disconnects.

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28
Q

If the left MFD fails, where does the EICAS transfer to?

A

It automatically transferred to the right MFD

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29
Q

Can we silence GS/flaps/terrain warnings?

A

Yes press the corresponding PBA on the landing gear panel

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30
Q

What synoptic buttons are pushed to display the maintenance diagnostic computer (MDC)?

A

Press Anti-Ice, ECS and FUEL buttons simultaneously 

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31
Q

What synoptic buttons are pushed to display the stall test diagnostic page?

A

Press Anti-ICE, ECS and HYD buttons simultaneously.

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32
Q

What engines are installed on the challenger 300/350?

A

CL 300 = AS907 HTF7000-1–1A
CL 350 = AS907 HTF7350-2-1A

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33
Q

What is the normal thrust rating?

A

CL 300 = 6,826 lbs at SL to ISA +15°
CL 350 = 7,323 lbs at SL to ISA +15°

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34
Q

APR provides rated thrust up to what temperature?

A

ISA +20°C

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35
Q

What is the minimum N2 ground idle?

A

46%

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36
Q

The FADEC is DC electrically powered during engine start. As N2 increases above 45%, how is the FADEC powered?

A

Permanent Magnet Alternator [PMA] takes over 

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37
Q

What is the takeoff thrust time limit?

A

Five minutes

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38
Q

When is auto APR armed?

A

Auto APR switch is on, thrust levers placed in TO detent.

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39
Q

Auto APR time limit?

A

10 minutes after which exceedances are recorded

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40
Q

Manual APR time limit?

A

Five minutes after which exceedances are recorded

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41
Q

List the three ways you can start an engine on the ground

A

APU, cross, bleed, and external air source

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42
Q

What are the two ways that APR can be activated?

A

Manually by selecting the thrust levers into the APR detent.
Automatically when there is an N2 mismatch in excess of 15%, or FADEC stops cross-communicating, and the throttle’s are in TO detent.

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43
Q

What type of oil is approved for our power plants?

A

Oils conforming to EMS–53110 type 2 turbine oil [ FlexJet recommends Eastman/Exxon/BP 2380].

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44
Q

What will happen if a Thrust Reverser becomes un-stowed in Flight?

A

The FADEC will come in the engine to idle

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45
Q

When is engine sync available?

A

Cruise or Climb power and and N1s within 5%

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46
Q

When is Mach Hold available?

A

Cruise thrust, ALT or ALTS mode, synch on - automatically adjusts N1 +/-3%

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47
Q

What components are mounted on the engine accessory gearbox?

A

Oil pump, oil reservoir, hydraulic pump, generator, Hydro, mechanical fuel, metering unit (HFMU), air turbine starter, permanent magnetic alternator (PMA).

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48
Q

What engine functions does the FADEC control?

A

Two channels;
fuel scheduling,
bleed air extraction,
ignition, engine starting, limits for N1/N2/ITT, overspeed protection, idle for ground/Flight/reverse, APR, engine sync and thrust annunciations

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49
Q

How is the engine oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

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50
Q

When should the oil be checked after engine shut down?

A

5 to 30 minutes

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51
Q

When checking the oil level on the ROLS, what does an amber Check Oil light indicate?

A

Oil is below the full level 

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52
Q

What should be done prior to Dispatch if oil level is below full?

A

You must visually check the site gauge to determine if the oil is below the No Dispatch Level

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53
Q

What type of oil is approved for use in our power plants

A

Oils conforming to
EMS–53110 Type 2 Turbine Oil (flexJet recommends Eastman/Exxon/BP 2380)

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54
Q

What are the minimum oil temperature limits for operation?

A

-40°C for engine start, 5°C for idle power,
15°C for takeoff (as long as cold weather operational procedures are followed)
above 27°C =green indication

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55
Q

How many Firex bottles are installed?

A

2

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56
Q

Where can the fire bottles be discharged into?

A

Number one into either engine, number two into either engine and APU.

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57
Q

Which Firex bottle provides protection for the APU?

A

Firex bottle number two 

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58
Q

Describe how the fire detection system recognizes a leak or fire

A

As the temperature increases the resistance in the fire detection loop decreases below a certain limit. When the Firex Control Unit detects this current increase, a warning indication is generated. 

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59
Q

What areas of the aircraft are monitored for leaks and/or fire?

A

Engine nacelles/core/pylon/gearbox, main landing gear bay, baggage compartment, bleed air supply, wing anti-ice supply, and APU 

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60
Q

Which areas have fire extinguishing?

A

Engine and APU

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61
Q

Is there a baggage compartment fire extinguishing system?

A

No

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62
Q

Is there a Lav smoke detector? 

A

No baggage compartment detector through vents

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63
Q

What does pushing the engine fire PBA do?

A

Closes the fuel/bleed/HYD SOVS, arms EXT 1 & 2 squibs, deactivates the Generator, FADEC commands engine, shut down.

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64
Q

Do we normally test the fire detection system?

A

No test only during abnormal situations when prompted by the checklist or MX 

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65
Q

What extinguishing agent is used in the fire extinguishing systems

A

Halon, 1301 

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66
Q

SPPR fuel quantity?

A

14,150 lbs total
7075 pounds per side [2100 gallons total/1050 gallons per side.] 

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67
Q

Over wing/gravity fuel quantity?

A

13,000 LBS 

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68
Q

Fuel tanks are divided into how many sections

A

Three sections main tank, collector tank, and surge tank

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69
Q

What ways are there to lateral transfer fuel between wing tanks?

A

Power transfer XFER via DC boost pumps and gravity transfer XFLOW 

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70
Q

How do you transfer a fuel from the left-wing to the right wing?

A

Left DC pump on, XFER open 

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71
Q

Fuel transfer with the right engine off and APU running

A

Left DC pump on, XFER open, right pump off.

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72
Q

How is the fuel heated to prevent fuel sludging/freezing? 

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

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73
Q

Do you need battery power to fuel the aircraft via the SPPR system?

A

Yes, fuel SOV are powered by the right battery bus

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74
Q

Is mixing of fuel types approved

A

Yes

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75
Q

What part of the fuel tank supplies fuel to the engine?

A

Collector tanks

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76
Q

What is the function of the surge tank at the outer tip of the fuel tanks?

A

To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system

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77
Q

How do the main ejectors and scavenge ejectors operate?

A

Converts high-pressure motive flow from the engine driven pumps into lower pressure/high volume fuel flow

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78
Q

Minimum wing fuel for go around

A

500 pounds per side

79
Q

Do we need fuel anti-icing additives as long as the minimum oil temperature is achieved

A

No . Fuel is heated through the fuel oil heat exchangers

80
Q

How many water drains are there in the fuel tanks?

A

6 total: 2 in surge tanks, 2 in main wing tanks, 2 in collector tanks 

81
Q

When do we set up the fuel tank drains?

A

When contamination is suspected

82
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the CL 350/300?

A

9 total: 2 engine driven pumps, 2 electric boost pumps, 2 main injectors 2 scavenge injectors, and APU mechanical pump. 

83
Q

If the fuel transfer valve, XFER fails to open when selected, what is the back up way of balancing the wing tanks?

A

Gravity transfer 

84
Q

In “auto” when do the electric fuel pumps automatically turn on?

A

Run switch to “run“ for engine start, low pressure indication (<6 psi), right pump for APU operation when right engine is not running .

85
Q

What are possible sources of DC power?

A

3 generators/2 24VDC 44 amp batteries/external power GPU/

86
Q

Are the right and left electrical systems normally split or tied together?

A

Split with a closable Bus Tie between the two systems 

87
Q

When does the Bus Tie automatically close?

A

When there is external power, battery power or single generator 

88
Q

Is there AC power?

A

 Yes. Passenger convenience, items and cabin lighting through inverters.

89
Q

How many CB panels are there?

A

CL 300: 7 total, 2 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 2 aft equipment bay.
CL 350: 8 total, 2 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 1 Lav (behind mirror), 2 aft equipment bay.

90
Q

What is the acceptable GPU voltage range and amperage

A

23 to 32 V, 1500 AMPS

91
Q

AVAIL (green switch indication) in the EXT PWR switch indicates what? 

A

The GPU is connected and meets the electrical quality criteria. When at least 5 V is sensed, AVAIL on the PBA is indicated and the electrical synoptic page displays a green GPU symbol. 

92
Q

Individual battery voltage can be read on?

A

Electrical synoptic page and summary page

93
Q

When do the generators automatically come online?

A

Automatically when the engine is running after start, except when a GPU is connected

94
Q

When do generators come online if a GPU is connected and being used?

A

After de-selecting the EXT PWR switch 

95
Q

Which buses are powered when operating on a single generator?

A

On the ground; all 6 (R&L essential, R&L Main, R&L AUX).
In flight; 4 (R&L essential, R&L main), AUX buses are load shed automatically.

96
Q

When are the auxiliary buses automatically load shed in Flight?

A

Single generator operation, and essential power only operation

97
Q

What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight (essential power only)?

A

Essential buses and battery buses

98
Q

Selecting the battery switch to the ON position connects the battery to what buses?

A

Essential buses

99
Q

What is the minimum voltage required on the left battery prior to APU start?

A

Greater than 20 V per AW300–24–0043 

100
Q

What type of batteries does the CL–30 have and what are they rated at?

A

(2) 24 V DC NiCad batteries rated at 44 amp per hour

101
Q

Which battery power is the APU starter?

A

Right battery but can revert to left battery if unavailable

102
Q

Can all three generators power the aircraft simultaneously

A

Yes, the right and APU normally share the load of the right side system

103
Q

When do the emergency lights come on automatically?

A

During right main bus failure

104
Q

Where do you plug in a GPU?

A

On the lower right side of the fuselage, just below the engine pylon

105
Q

Which battery is turned on first when powering up the aircraft?

A

Right battery to prevent and commanded APU starts

106
Q

What do the left and right AUX buses power?

A

Cabin AC/DC, right side window and foot warmers.

107
Q

What does the GND service PBA on the external power panel do?

A

Turn on cabin inverters to allow Service to be done

108
Q

After generator power loss, how long will the battery power last?

A

Main 24VDC 44 AMP batteries = 1 hour. Standby battery 3.5 hours. 

109
Q

What does a NWS Limit Exceeded CAS indicate and what action should be taken?

A

A call to MX is required. The nose wheel has been turned beyond 120°. Check share pins. If broken, then the nose wheel has exceeded 123° and possible damage has occurred. 

110
Q

How much steering authority is available with the tiller?

A

65°

111
Q

How much steering authority is available with the rudder pedals

A

7°

112
Q

The nose gear steering is actuated by which hydraulic system?

A

The left system

113
Q

What centers the nose gear during retraction?

A

Electrically by the steering control unit SCU.
Mechanically by cams on the top of the nose stretch

114
Q

Anti-skid is available down to what speed?

A

10 knots

115
Q

Why must we observe brake cooling times?

A

To ensure there is sufficient brake energy available to come to a complete stop within the shortest distance, if we reject a takeoff

116
Q

The landing gear is normally actuated by which hydraulic system?

A

The left system

117
Q

How is the landing gear held up?

A

Mechanical up-locks

118
Q

What do the brake accumulators provide us when there’s loss of R & L hydraulic pressure?

A

One continuous application of toe brakes to a complete stop

119
Q

The parking brake accumulator has sufficient pressure for how many applications

A

Six applications, should hold for 24 hours 

120
Q

If a gear control or left hydraulic system, failure occurs, how do we extend the landing gear?

A

Alternate method for the checklist – pull the manual release handle [LG Paul] – Geir extends via gravity

121
Q

What does the LG Pull handle do?

A

Manually release the up-locks (Nose and Main Gear).
Actuates the dump valves (ports fluid pressure to the return side of actuator).

122
Q

When should the “LG Pull“ handle be stowed?

A

After landing, and the gear pins installed

123
Q

What also assists the main gear freefalling to fully extend down and locked?

A

Main landing gear down lock assist accumulator

124
Q

Where do we read the down lock assist accumulator pressure?

A

Gauge is located in the battery compartment [purple banded gauge]

125
Q

If using the alternate gear extension procedure, because of a HYD Press Low red CAS, what is a concern if flaps have already extended? 

A

30 minutes to extend the landing gear. The landing Gear Down-Lock Assist Accumulator will retain pressure for 30 minutes. Gear must be down prior to this time limitation if the flaps are other than 0°. 

126
Q

How do we check the Brake Wear Indicators?

A

With the HYD system, pressurized and parking brake set; The wear pins are not flush with the housing.

127
Q

What are the brake accumulator gauges located?

A

In the battery bay

128
Q

Will we have anti-skid or differential breaking with a normal Brakes Fail Warning?

A

No

129
Q

When does the PTU operate in auto?

A

When left EDP failed, right EDP producing pressure and weight off wheels in the air with Gear not in the selected position, ie Gear is down with the handle up.

130
Q

What are the tire pressures?

A

Nose 113 - 119 psi
Mains CL300 157 - 165 psi
CL 350 167 -175 psi

131
Q

What prevents the main tires from exploding in an overheat situation?

A

Four fuse sensitive plugs in each wheel well assembly

132
Q

How many Brake Wear Indicator pins are there on each brake assembly?

A

Two pins on each assembly; one on top and one underneath

133
Q

What conditions cause gear warnings?

A

Below 500 feet AGL gear is up or in transit, thrust levers angle < 26°, aural warning “GEAR”. May also be accompanied by TAWS warning “TOO LOW - GEAR”. Flaps beyond 27° before all three landing gear are down and locked - Aural Warning “GEAR”.

134
Q

What are the gear warning indications?

A

Aural warning, triple chime, red warning light, red on Gear indications display.

135
Q

What components of the landing gear are monitored by the proximity sensing system?

A

Main Landing Gear, Nose Gear, Nose Gear Doors. 

136
Q

How many hydraulic pumps does the CL 300 have

A

Six total: 2 EDs, 2 DC MPs, PTU and AUX pump

137
Q

What is powered using the hydraulic system?

A

Flaps, Brakes, TRs, NWS, elevators, Rudder and Multifunction/Ground Spoilers.

138
Q

What is normal hydraulic system pressure?

A

3000 psi

139
Q

What does the left hydraulic system power?

A

Gear, inboard MFS, inboard Ground Spoilers, inboard brakes, left (upper) PCU, inboard Elevator PCUs, alt flaps, left TR, nose wheel steering.

140
Q

What does the right hydraulic system power?

A

Flaps, outboard MFS, outboard brakes, ground spoilers, lower PCU, outboard elevator PCUs, right TR, PTU, Main Landing Gear assist actuator.

141
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

It is a hydraulic motor driven from the right system to provide pressure to the left system primarily to retract the gear after takeoff with a left engine failure. It also pressurize is the left hydraulic reservoir.

142
Q

When does the PTU operate in auto?

A

Left ADP failed, right EDP producing pressure, weight off wheels (WOW) and air gear not in the selected position. I.e.… Gear is down with the handle UP.

143
Q

How is hydraulic fluid cooled?

A

Via a fuel/hydraulic heat exchanger in each wing tank

144
Q

Hydraulic SOV can be closed which three ways?

A

Pushing the PBA, pushing the FIRE PBA, hydraulic temperature exceeds 135°C for more than three seconds.

145
Q

What is the purpose of the AUX HYD system?

A

To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower Rudder PCU, if the right hydraulic system loses pressure less than 1800 psi via a switching valve

146
Q

In the event, generator power fails, and both EDP’s fail, which DCMP is not load shed and can still be powered?

A

The right DCMPF switch is selected to on

147
Q

When would we use the alternate flaps?

A

When directed by the checklist for Right, hydraulic pressure Low conditions or flap fault CAS

148
Q

After loss of the left and right hydraulic systems, what flight control is operated via the AUX hydraulic system?

A

The rudder through the lower Rudder PCU

149
Q

What accumulators are in the hydraulic systems?

A

Four; inboard/outboard brakes, Aux system, and maingear down lock assist

150
Q

Why does flap extension using only the right DCMP or alternate flaps take much longer than normal?

A

EDP pumps approximately 20 GPM, DCMP approximately 3 GPM.

151
Q

When does the AUX hydraulic pump automatically turn on?

A

AUX system pressure less than 2500 psi [OFF at 3350 psi]

152
Q

When do the DCMPs operate in the auto position?

A

Low hydraulic system pressure, when flaps are selected out of zero, and on the ground with NWS ON [left DCMP].

153
Q

Which electrical buses power, the right, and left DC MPs ?

A

Right DCMP is powered from left ESS bus, left the CMP is Power from Right Main bus.

154
Q

On A/C not modified with SB 100–2 9–18 brushless DCMs, what position to replace the DCMP switches after takeoff?

A

OFF – to prevent short circuits in a high temperature environment that could lead to a cascade electrical failure.

155
Q

On CL350 and A/C with modified SB 100–2 9–18, brushless DC MPs what position did replace the DCMP switch after takeoff?

A

Remain in the AUTO position. 

156
Q

What sources of pressurized air are available for the air conditioning/environmental system?

A

Engine, bleed APU bleed,/ external air cart.

157
Q

With the destination altitude below 7850’ when does the CABIN ALTITUDE CAS illuminate?

A

Caution (Amber) at 8500’ warning (Red) at 9400’. 

158
Q

Flying into Telluride KTEX (airport elevation above 7850’) the Cabin Altitude Warning high CAS illuminates. How does this affect the CABIN ALTITUDE CAS?

A

Increases CAUTION to field elevation +650’ increases WARNING to field elevation +1550’

159
Q

What is the IACS and how many are there?

A

Integrated Air System, Controller; controls, all pneumatics, environmental and anti-ice and leak monitoring controllers. Each has two channels.

160
Q

How many outflow valves are installed?

A

One

161
Q

Where is the outflow valve located?

A

Below the right wing leading edge, behind right landing lights.

162
Q

How is the outflow valve opened and closed?

A

Electrically by servo motors

163
Q

How many safety valves are installed and where are they located?

A

Two. On the aft pressure bulkhead.

164
Q

What is the function of the safety valves?

A

To provide overpressure and negative pressure release

165
Q

Do the safety valve require electrical power to operate?

A

No, they are pneumatically operated and spring loaded closed

166
Q

Does the environmental system use IP air or HP air?

A

IP intermediate pressure regulated 250 psi

167
Q

Most valves in the bleed and air conditioning system are controlled and actuated by?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated

168
Q

What two valves are electrically actuated?

A

Outflow valve and avionics cooling valve

169
Q

What conditions cause the IP bleed valve to be closed?

A

Fire switch PBA, loss of bleed pressure to valve, electrical power loss to valve and engine start

170
Q

What does the ozone converter do?

A

Convert the ozone from the IP bleed air into oxygen to combat fatigue and dehydration

171
Q

When the start switch is selected what happens to the flow control valves?

A

They automatically close to shut down the air conditioning system, allocating all bleed air to the engine starter (ATS)

172
Q

When does the ditching switch become active?

A

Below 15,000 feet the outflow valve opens on a depressurizing schedule. When pressurization Delta P is 0 , then the outflow valve closest to prevent water from entering

173
Q

What does ram air do?

A

Provides cooling air to the air/ heat exchangers and for cabin ventilation at low altitudes and pressurized below 10,000 feet if the pack and trim air fail or unpressurized flight is required

174
Q

Is the trim air hot or cold air?

A

Hot air

175
Q

Is the Pack Air cold or hot air?

A

 Cold air

176
Q

Pressing the Emer depress switch does what?

A

Went in auto mode cabin depressurerises at 2500 ft./min. to 14,000 feet plus -100 feet or aircraft altitude, which ever is lower. When in Manual Mode MAN cabin depressurerizes at 3000 ft./min. to 14,500 feet plus -500 feet or aircraft altitude, which ever is lower.

177
Q

How is temp controlled in auto?

A

Ventilated temp sensors in the cockpit and cabin input to the IASC’s to regulate set temperature

178
Q

How is temp control manual?

A

Direct control through the IAS, see us to regulate the temperature

179
Q

The temperature pull up/pull down, works under what conditions?

A

APU or pneumatic cart air pressure is available, air source equals normal, temp mode equals auto, main cabin door, not closed and more than 10° difference between selected and indicated temperature. [Increases flow to heat or cold faster. Increases noise and too much flow in cockpit usually].

180
Q

What modes of pressurization operation are there?

A

Three. Total modes: two in auto through IASC’s number one and number two, one in manual, direct control of outflow valve via rate knob max 3000 ft./min..

181
Q

What are the indications when an external air cart is being used?

A

ECS and summary pages indicate bleed pressure in the right and left side of the manifold. No green flow lines.

182
Q

Where do you find the “Cross-bleed”/“ External Air Cart” start procedures?

A

QRH volume 1 Supplemental Data tab, S-51–1

183
Q

How do you set landing altitude manually while in Auto Press Mode?

A

Landing altitude outer knob to manual and inner knob to Select Alt in 20 foot increments scion indication 

184
Q

Max Takeoff & Landing Altitude?

A

10,000’

185
Q

Max Tailwind Component

A

10 Kias

186
Q

Max runway slope for takeoff and landing?

A

+/- 2 degrees

187
Q

Max tailwind contaminated runway?

A

5 Kias

188
Q

Are aerobatic maneuvers &spins allowed?

A

No

189
Q

Maneuvering load factor flaps up

A

+2.6G to - 1.0 G

190
Q

Maneuvering load factors flaps extended?

A

+2.0G to 0.0G

191
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind T/O?

A

28 Kts

192
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind landing?

A

24 kts

193
Q

Max pressure altitude

A

45,000

CL-30 Recurrent (16 decks)

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