General Flashcards
(248 cards)
1
Q
What are your requirements as an aircraft mechanic when you have a change of address?
A
Notify the FAA in writing within 30 days of any change to your permanent address.
2
Q
Is a person with a private pilot’s certificate allowed to perform maintenance and, if so, what are his/her limitations?
A
A pilot may perform preventative maintenance in accordance with FAR Part 43.3, 43.7 and appendix A on an airplane owned by the pilot. He/she can also approve the aircraft for return to service following that maintenance.
3
Q
What should a mechanic do if his/her temporary certificate is about to expire?
A
Contact the local FAA office and seek assistance.
4
Q
What is the duration of a temporary airman’s certificate?
A
120 days.
5
Q
If a mechanics certificate is revoked, how long must he/she wait before applying for a new certificate?
A
One year unless the revocation order states otherwise.
6
Q
May a mechanic supervise an inspection (or portion of an inspection) and then approve the aircraft for return to service?
A
No only the mechanic approving the aircraft for return to service must actually perform the inspection.
7
Q
When may a mechanic perform an annual inspection and return the aircraft to service?
A
Mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization.
8
Q
In addition to performing maintenance, what other privileges are granted to a powerplant mechanic?
A
A powerplant mechanic may perform a 100-hour on an engine and approve the engine for return to service.
9
Q
What are privileges and limitations of an A&P mechanic regarding major repairs and alterations to airframe and engines and their approval for return to service?
A
A&P mechanics may perform major repairs and alterations but may not approve them for return to service unless they hold an Inspection Authorization.
10
Q
What is the duration of a mechanics certificate.?
A
Valid until:
*Surrendered.
*Suspended.
*Revoked.
11
Q
What are the privileges of an A&P mechanic regarding inspections?
A
A mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe or engine following a 100-hour inspection.
12
Q
What authority does a mechanic have regarding approval for return to service?
A
A mechanic may approve an aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller or appliance for return to service in accordance with the provisions of FAR part 65.
13
Q
What are the requirements for recent experience in order to exercise the privileges of mechanic’s certificate or rating?
A
You must have worked as a mechanic or technically supervised other mechanics for at least 6 months out of the past 24 months.
14
Q
Is a mechanic allowed to repair or alter an aircraft instrument?
A
No, Mechanics may not perform any repairs or alterations on instruments. Only the manufacturer or Instrument Repair facility approved by the manufacturer.
15
Q
What are the limitations to a mechanic’s privileges with regard to propellers?
A
A mechanic may not perform or supervise major repairs or major alterations of propellers.
16
Q
Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to perform maintenance on engines?
A
Not unless they are supervised by a certificated powerplant mechanic.
17
Q
What types of work may a certificated mechanic perform?
A
A certificated mechanic may perform or supervise:
*Maintenance.
*Preventive maintenance.
*Alterations.
18
Q
What are the ratings issued under a mechanics certificate?
A
*Airframe
*Powerplant
19
Q
Where are the FARSs will you find the certification requirements for mechanics?
A
FAR part 65
20
Q
What publication should a mechanic consult to determine if a repair is considered major or minor?
A
14 CFR (FAR) Part 43, appendix A
21
Q
How can you determine that an aircraft part or appliance you receive is serviceable?
A
By an approval for return to service in the maintenance record for the part or appliance. With completed Form 337.
22
Q
When performing an inspection required by FAR Part 91, what rotorcraft systems must be inspected in accordance with the manufacturer’s maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness?
A
Drive shafts or similar systems.
*Main rotor transmission gearbox for obvious defects.
*Main rotor & center section.
*Auxiliary rotor on helicopters.
23
Q
What is the difference between the terms “overhaul” and “rebuilding as they pertain to aircraft engine maintenance records?
A
“Overhauled” engines must be tested and approved or acceptable current standards and technical data.
“Rebuilt” engines must be tested to the same tolerance and limits as a new engine.
24
Q
What persons are authorized to make the required maintenance entry approving the return to service after a progressive inspection is performed at a location other than the aircrafts home base?
A
*Certified mechanic.
*Appropriate rated repair station.
*Aircraft manufacturer.
25
What are the penalties for making fraudulent or intentionally false entries in any required record or report?
Certificate(s) can be:
*Suspended.
*Revoked.
26
How do the regulations define "time in service" in regards to maintenance record entries?
With respect to maintenance entries, "time in service" begins with the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches at the next point of landing.
27
Are there any circumstances when more than two copies of Form 337 are required, and if so, when?
Yes. Three copies are required when a fuel tank is installed in the passenger or baggage compartment. The third copy must be kept aboard the aircraft.
28
Who has the authority to rebuild an aircraft engine and return the operating time to zero?
Only the engine manufacturer or an overhaul facility approved by the manufacturer.
29
What regulation authorizes a certificated mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization to approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration?
FAR 65.95
30
What maintenance record entries are required to contain the aircraft total time in service?
Only records of inspection require the total time.
31
What documents must be prepared when a required inspection is performed and defects are found which render the aircraft or engine unairworthy?
The required maintenance entries must be made and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items must be given to the owner.
32
What person makes the final maintenance record entry after a 100-hour inspection is completed?
The person approving the aircraft for return to service.
33
What must be entered into the aircraft records after maintenance is performed?
*Description of work performed and or reference to acceptable data.
*Date work completed.
*Signature, certificate number & type of certificate of the person approving the aircraft for return to service
34
Where should a 100-hour inspection be recorded?
In the appropriate maintenance record for the airframe, powerplant, propeller or appliance.
35
In what publication may a mechanic find an example of a maintenance record entry for a 100-hour inspection
FAR Part 43.11
36
For what period of time must an aircraft owner maintain the records of a 100-hour inspection?
*Until the work is superseded
or
*For 1 year after the inspection.
37
When an aircraft is sold, what do the regulations require regarding the disposition of records that contain the current status of Airworthiness Directives?
The seller must transfer the records to the buyer at the time of sale.
38
When completion of FAA Form 337 is required, how many copies are normally prepared and what is their distribution?
Two signed copies:
*One is given to the aircraft owner.
*One is sent to the local FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours for the approval or return to service.
39
Records of a major alteration must be made in what two places?
The aircraft maintenance records and FAA Form 337.
40
Where do you find the minimum scope and detail requirements that a 100-hour inspection checklist must contain?
FAR Part 43 Appendix D
41
How are AD updates issued to subscribers to the Summary of Airworthiness Directives?
Through biweekly supplements.
42
As a certificated mechanic, will you automatically receive all AD's?
No. ADs are AUTOMATICALLY sent ONLY to registered aircraft owners.
43
How often is the summary of ADs published?
Every two years.
44
If you need to determine the serviceable dimensional limits for an engine part, what publication would you consult?
The current engine manufacturer's overhaul manual.
45
What kinds of publications are used by aircraft manufacturers to notify owners of design defects and product improvements?
*Service bulletins.
*Service letters.
.Service instructions.
46
Under what circumstances is compliance with a Manufacturers Service Bulletin mandatory?
When the service bulletin is incorporated in an AD (or other approved data).
47
Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of symmetrical objects, and give their proper name.
*HIDDEN views are shown with HIDDEN LINES, which are short evenly spaced dashes.
*ALTERNATE positions are shown with PHANTOM LINES made up of light alternating long dashes and two short dashes.
*CENTER LINE consisting of alternating long and short dashes, show the middle of symmetrical objects.
48
What reference material can be used to determine if an aircraft is certificated in more than one category?
*Type Certificate Data Sheets.
*Aircraft Specifications.
49
In what FAA publication could you find a list of engines approved for use in a specific make and model of airplane?
*Type Certificate Data Sheets.
*Aircraft Specifications.
50
What publication would you consult to determine an aircraft's (or engine's or propeller's) type design and it's limitations?
*Type Certificate Data Sheets.
*Aircraft Specifications.
51
What are Advisory Circulars?
Non-regulatory information of interest to the aviation public.
52
What publication might you consult for guidance when maintaining an old aircraft for which no maintenance manual exists?
AC 43. 13-1B or its latest revision.
53
How can you determine if the repair of damage is a major or minor repair?
FAR Part 43, Appendix A defines major and minor repairs as well as preventive maintenance.
54
If a mechanic wishes to develop a checklist for an annual or 100-hour inspection, what publication contains the guidelines for required inspection items?
FAR Part 43 Appendix D contains the scope and detail of an inspection checklist.
55
How do you determine the time frame within which AD compliance is required?
The AD contains the compliance time or period for completing the corrective action.
56
How does the FAA notify the aircraft owner of unsafe conditions that must be corrected?
By issuing Airworthiness Directives.
57
Why are Airworthiness Directives issued?
To correct unsafe conditions found in aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances.
58
Who is responsible for ensuring that only the most current information is used when performing maintenance on a aircraft?
The person performing the maintenance.
59
What part of the FARs describes the performance characteristics that small aircraft must demonstrate in order to be airworthy?
FAR Part 23
60
What part of the FARs describes the airworthiness standards for Transport Category airplanes?
FAR Part 25
61
What federal aviation regulation prescribes the requirements for issuance of a type certificate?
FAR (14 CFR) Part 21.
62
What are the indications of water in the aircraft fuel after draining a sample from the fuel sumps?
*Cloudy or hazy appearance.
*Solid slug of water
63
Under what conditions may automobile gasoline be used in an aircraft engine?
Only if approved by the FAA, usually by the issuance of a (STC) Supplemental Type Certificate.
64
Under what conditions should a reciprocating engine be pre-oiled?
Prior to starting a new engine.
or
*One that has been preserved for storage.
These ensures adequate lubrication on initial startup.
65
Where can the standard aircraft taxi hand signals be found?
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
66
The Marking requirements for oil tank filler openings are specified by FAR 23.1557. What markings are required for a piston engine powered airplane?
The word "OIL" and the permissible grades and/or types or a reference to appropriate Airplane Flight Manual for permissible grades and/or types.
67
Describe the important precautions that should be observed when fueling an aircraft.
*Use the correct fuel,
*Properly ground the aircraft & refueling unit.
*Protect the aircraft surfaces from hose or nozzle damage.
68
Part 23.973 of the FAA regulations specifies that certain markings must be paced adjacent to fuel filler openings. What markings are used for reciprocating engine powered airplanes?
The filler openings must be marked with fuel grade and the word "AVGAS".
*Refers to Part 23.1557
69
What are some of the possible outcomes of using a lower grade of AVGAS than the specified grade?
*Chance of engine damage due to detonation.
*Loss of engine power
*Increased probability of overheating.
70
Is it permissible to use avgas in a turbine engine?
Limited operation may be allowed by the manufacturer. Continued use may be reduced efficiency due to lead deposits on the turbine blades.
71
What does the number 100 signify in the 100LL aviation gasoline?
It refers to the lean mixture performance number (or octane rating ) of the fuel.
72
A mixture of aviation gasoline and jet fuel is used in a reciprocating aircraft engine, what are the possible results?
Avgas contaminated by jet fuel must not be used in piston engines - the engines may be damaged or destroyed.
73
Why should an aircraft technician become familiar with standard light signals?
Light signals may be used when taxiing an airplane without a radio or when a radio becomes inoperative on a tower controlled aircraft.
74
When towing an aircraft, should you use the tow vehicle or aircraft brakes to stop the aircraft?
The tow vehicle brakes should be used first, except in an emergency only then should aircraft brakes be applied.
75
What is meant by the term "Hot Start" when starting an engine?
Ignition occurs with an excessively rich mixture , leading to a rapid temperature rise that can exceed the exhaust gas temperature limit.
76
What is the cause of hydraulic lock in large radial engines?
Oil seeps by the piston rings and accumulates in the combustion chamber of lower cylinders. When a piston comes up on its compression stroke, the in-compressible liquid seizes it.
77
What procedure should be followed prior to starting a large radial engine to detectable or prevent a hydraulic lock in the cylinders?
Pull the propeller through by hand three or four complete revolutions. Resistance to a prop turning indicates a possible hydraulic lock in at least one of the cylinders.
78
What safety procedure must be observed when hand-propping a small aircraft engine?
*Be thoroughly trained, with a qualified person in the cockpit.
*Check the brakes.
*Call "SWITCH OFF" before moving prop.
*Make sure you have solid footing.
*Call "CONTACT" and listen for the reply when ready to start.
*Swing the prop with the palm of your hand and move away from the prop arc.
79
If an engine induction fire occurs while starting a reciprocating engine, what procedure should you follow to extinguish the fire?
Continue cranking the engine to start it and sucked the fire into the engine. If the engine doesn't start and the fire continues to burn, discontinue the start attempt and extinguish the fire with a suitable fire extinguisher.
80
Describe the precautions that should be taken to protect life and property while starting and running an aircraft engine.
*Study the procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual.
*Be sure that the propeller or inlet area is clear and check for loose stones, gravel, etc. that could be sucked into the prop or engine.
*Ensure that prop or jet blast doesn't blow into hangars or other airplanes.
*Have a fire guard nearby.
81
What is the most generally used knot for tying down small aircraft?
The bowline (although other anti slip knots may be used).
82
Name at least three possible hazards that may be encountered during typical ground operations, such as during engine run-up or taxiing?
*Possibility of fire, especially during starting.
*Turning props, rotors, prop or jet blast and inlet areas.
*Other aircraft, vehicles, people and obstacles.
*Foreign objects such as rocks, gravel, rags, or loose hardware.
*High noise levels.
*Hydraulic lock in radial engines.
*Weather-veining of tail wheel aircraft.
83
List at least five examples of areas in an aircraft that are prone to corrosion?
*Battery compartment
*Exhaust trail areas
*Bilge areas
*Vent areas
*Landing gear and wheel wells
*Fuel tanks
*Wing flap recesses
*Around and below galleys and lavatories
*Piano hinges
*Any area that can trap water
84
Why should aircraft fabrics and plastics be cleaned only with recommended cleaners?
Recommended cleaners cause the least amount of deterioration or damage.
85
For what reason should you avoid cleaning anodized aluminum surfaces with aluminum or metal polish?
The metal polish removes the protective oxide coating.
86
What is the purpose of Alodine?
Chemical process that deposits a protective film on aluminum alloys. This film improves corrosion resistance and promotes paint adhesion.
87
Describe the effects of using steel brushes or steel wool to remove corrosion from aluminum surfaces?
Steel brushes or steel wool must not be used to clean aluminum because steel particles can become embedded in the aluminum and cause corrosion.
88
Describe the tools that should be used to remove corrosion from anodized aluminum surfaces.
*Nylon scrubber pads such as Scotch-Brite.
*Bristle brushes.
*Aluminum wool.
or
*Aluminum wire brushes.
89
Provide at least four examples of procedures used to prevent corrosion...
*Cleaning.
*Lubrication.
*Treatment.
*Sealing.
*Inspection.
*Installing protective covers.
*Keep drain holes free and clear.
90
What is the best way to protect piano hinges from corrosion?
Keep them clean and properly lubricated.
91
Why are piano-type hinges prime spots for corrosion?
The steel pin and aluminum hinge material are dissimilar metals and the hinge design tends to trap moisture and contaminates.
92
What are the visible signs of fretting corrosion?
The corrosion residue has a dark, smoky appearance and often appears around and streaming back from rivet heads.
93
What are two primary factors that may cause development of stress corrosion cracks?
*Corrosive environment.
*Sustained tensile stress.
94
What are the visible signs of filiform corrosion?
*Blistered paint surfaces.
*Worm like thread tracks under paint surface.
95
Name at least one cause of filiform corrosion.
*Improper or incomplete curing of a wash primer prior to painting.
*Failure to completely wash off acid surface contamination.
96
Name at least three forms of corrosion.
*Surface.
*Intergranular.
*Filliform.
*Galvanic.
*Oxidation.
*Pitting.
*Stress.
*Fretting.
97
Give at least three examples of the factors that cause or influence corrosion.
*Environmental conditions.
*Presence of dissimilar metals.
*Type of metal.
*Presence of electrolytes and/or contaminates.
*Condition of protective coating.
98
What type of cleaning agents should be used to remove grease, oil or fuel from aircraft tires?
Soap & water.
99
What are the preferred cleaners for plastic surfaces such as windshields?
*Mild soap & water.
or
*Manufacturer approved cleaner.
100
Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of symmetrical objects, and give their proper name.
*HIDDEN views are shown with HIDDEN LINES, which are short evenly spaced dashes.
*ALTERNATE positions are shown with PHANTOM LINES made up of light alternating long dashes and two short dashes.
*CENTER LINE consisting of alternating long and short dashes, show the middle of symmetrical objects.
101
What are some of the more common light-duty cleaners?
Soap or detergents and water.
102
Discuss the general precautions that should be observed when washing an airplane.
Avoid or protect areas, which may be damaged or contaminated, such as;
*Pitot ports.
*Static ports.
*Hinges.
*Sealed areas.
*Bearings.
103
Is there any requirement for cleaning an aircraft prior to an annual or 100-hour inspection?
It's a legal requirement specified in FAR Part 43, Appendix D
104
Describe the basic steps for conducting a magnetic particle inspection.
*Magnetize the part.
*Coat the surface with ferromagnetic particles.
*If a defect of discontinuity is present, the particles align with the discontinuity forming a visible pattern.
105
The penetration of a fillet welds has be what percentage of the base metal?
25 to 50 percent
106
What tell tale characteristics are evidence of a cold weld?
A cold weld has rough, irregular edges that are not feathered into the base metal and has variations in penetration amounts.
107
A correctly made butt weld will have what bead width and how much penetration?
*Bead width 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal.
*100% penetration.
108
What process occurs during the preparation stage of a dye penetrant inspection when the penetrating liquid is applied, and then removed from a cracked part?
The penetrant enters the crack by capillary action and remains there until made visible by the developer.
109
What are some of the non-destructive testing methods that may be used on aluminum parts?
*Visual.
*Dye penetrant.
*Eddy current.
*Ultrasonic testing.
*Radiography.
110
Name some tools that are commonly used to assist in making visual inspections of welds.
*Flashlight.
*Mirror.
*Bore-scope.
*Magnifying glass.
111
Describe the steps involved in a dye penetrant inspection.
*The surface is cleaned.
*Penetrant is applied & allowed to dwell for a specified time.
*Penetrant is removed with emulsifier or cleaner.
*Part is dried & then developer is applied.
*Results are then inspected & interpreted.
112
Why are quick disconnect fittings used?
Provide a quick means to connect or disconnect a fluid line without a loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.
113
What happens to the tube when a flare-less fitting is over tightened?
The tube is weakened when the nut drives the cutting edge of the sleeve too deeply into the tube.
114
If you fabricate a replacement for a flexible hose, what percentage of the total length must be added to allow for movement under pressure?
5 to 8 percent.
115
Describe the operation of quick disconnect couplings.
Each half has a valve that is held open when coupled and is spring-loaded closed when disconnected.
116
What precautions must be observed when deburring the end of a tube after it is cut?
The wall thickness must not be reduced in size or fractured.
117
How are flexible hose sizes designated?
By inside diameter, measured in 1/16th inch increments.
118
How can you determine if a flexible hose has been correctly or incorrectly installed?
The lay line will be straight if the hose is properly installed. A twisted lay line indicates an incorrect installation.
119
Describe the identification markings commonly found on flexible hoses.
*Lay line.
*Identification such as Mil Spec number.
*Manufacturers name or symbol.
*Hose size.
*Date code.
120
What are some important advantages of Teflon tubing?
*Compatibility with nearly every liquid.
*Wide operating temperature range.
*Low resistance to fluid flow.
*Very long shelf/service life.
121
In addition to being securely clamped, what is an additional requirement for installing metal fuel, oil, or hydraulic lines?
The lines must be electrically bonded to the structure.
122
What is the effect of over-tightening a flare type fitting?
The sealing surface may be damaged or the flare cut off.
123
How do you tell a flareless fitting from a flare-type fitting
Flareless fittings don't have a flare cone & there is no space between the threads and the end of the fitting.
124
What are the names of the parts of a flareless tube fitting?
*Nut.
*Ferrule or sleeve.
125
What are the most significant differences between AN and AC fittings?
*Sleeve lengths.
*Thread pitch.
*Shoulder between the threads and the flare cone on AN fittings.
126
How can you determine if a fitting is an AN type rather than AC type?
AN fittings have a shoulder between the flare cone and the end of the threads, AC fittings do not.
127
Describe the two types of flares commonly used on aircraft tubing
*Single flare.
*Double flare.
128
What is the function of the sleeve on a flared - tube fitting?
The nut fits over the sleeve and draws the sleeve and tubing flare tightly against the male fitting to form the seal.
129
When installing stainless steel tubing, what types of fittings should be used?
Stainless steel fittings.
130
What are the two types of fluid lines commonly found on aircraft?
*Rigid metal lines.
*Flexible hoses.
131
For what reason should a micrometer periodically be calibrated?
*If dropped the accuracy may be affected.
or
*If the spindle is overtightened, the frame may be sprung.
or
*Continually sliding objects between the anvil and the spindle may wear out the surface.
132
What type of precision measuring instruments can be used to measure the outside dimensions of aircraft parts?
*Outside micrometers.
or
*Vernier calipers.
133
What is the most commonly used type of aircraft control cable?
Extra flexible 7 X 19 stainless steel cable.
134
The maintenance procedures do not specify a toque value for a bolt or nut, how can you determine the proper values?
Consult a standard torque table such as found in AC 43.13-1B.
135
For what type of applications are self-locking nuts not allowed?
May not be used when either the bolt or the nut is subject to rotation.
136
What is the difference between a close tolerance bolt and general purpose bolt?
Close tolerance bolts are machined to more accurate dimensions.
137
In what way are AN standard bolts identified?
Code markings on the bolt heads.
138
What is the grip length of the bolt?
The length of the unthreaded portion.
139
How can you keep heat treated aluminum alloy rivets soft enough to install after the quenching process?
If the rivets are stored in a freezer they will remain soft for several days.
140
What is indicated by the markings on the heads of solid shank rivets?
*Material that they are made of.
*Indirectly, their strength.
141
Give one advantage of pre-preg ( pre-impregnated ) materials, other than saving time in the construction or repair of composite components.
*Pre-preg fabrics contain the correct amount of matrix.
*The matrix material evenly and completely permeates the reinforcing fibers
*The matrix has the resin and hardener in the correct proportions.
142
What are the reasons that alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment is usually less suitable for welding?
The maybe come brittle and lose its ductility in the area of the weld.
143
What are some of the materials that are commonly used as the reinforcing component in a composite structure?
*Fiberglass.
*Aramid (Kevlar).
*Graphite (carbon) fiber.
*Linen & paper
144
Name one of the types of resin commonly used as matrix material for aircraft composite laminates.
*Polyester resin.
*Epoxy resin.
145
Explain how thermoplastic or thermosetting resins are commonly used in modern aircraft.
*Thermoplastic resin commonly used for windshields and windows.
*Thermosetting resins are most often used as the matrix material in composite structures.
146
Describe the primary difference between a thermosetting and thermoplastic resin.
*Thermosetting resin doesn't soften when heated and chars or burns rather than melting.
*Thermoplastic resins become soft and pliable when heated, and harden when cooled.
147
How do you work harden a piece of metal?
Cold working the metal.
148
How does the CG range of a helicopter compare to that of a fixed wing airplane?
Helicopters typically have a much smaller CG range.
149
Installation of several new radios in the nose of an aircraft causes the forward C.G. limit to be exceeded. How can you correct this problem without removing the new equipment?
Ballast may be installed in the tail to move the C.G. aft.
150
What is ballast, and why would you use it in an airplane?
Ballast is weight added to an airplane to bring its C.G. into the allowable or desired range.
151
What is the purpose of an aircraft loading graph?
It is a method for determining how to distribute the load so as to keep the C.G. within allowable limits.
152
Describe the two most common ways of showing the C.G. location and / or C.G. range.
*Inches from the datum.
*Percent of Mac.
153
Define the term "Mean Aerodynamic Chord" or MAC.
Mean Aerodynamic Chord is the chord drawn through the center of the wing plan area.
154
Where are leveling instructions found, and describe one method of leveling an aircraft?
Leveling instructions are found in the Type Certificate Data Sheets.
An aircraft may be leveled by using:
*Spirit level at specified points.
or
*Plumb bob from a designated point along with a leveling scale or protractor.
155
How should you account for fuel when weighing an aircraft to determine weight and balance?
Either:
*Drain the fuel system until only usable fuel remains.
or
*Fill the tanks full and subtract the weight of usable fuel.
156
Define the term " residual oil ."
Any oil that remains in the tanks, lines, and engines, after the system has been drained.
157
As you prepare an aircraft for weighing, you determine that there is equipment aboard that is not permanently installed and recorded on the equipment list. What should you do with this equipment?
All equipment not permanently installed in the aircraft or included on the equipment list should be removed from the aircraft.
158
How does the category of aircraft affect it's loaded weight?
Aircraft certificated in more than one category, such as Normal or Aerobatic, may have two different maximum gross weights and different useful loads.
159
What should be done to obtain a negative movement forward of the datum?
Add weight.
160
What should be done to obtain a positive movement forward of the datum?
Remove weight.
161
What should be done to obtain a negative movement aft of the datum?
Remove weight
162
What should be done to obtain a positive movement aft of the datum?
Add weight
163
What are two ways to determine the arm of an item of equipment?
*Measure the distance between the item and the datum.
or
*Use data supplied by the manufacturer.
164
How do you determine the moment of an item of equipment?
The weight of the item is multiplied by its arm., which is the distance between the item and the datum.
165
What is the datum of an aircraft and what is it's function?
The datum is an imaginary vertical plane at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the airplane. It is the reference point from which all horizontal measurements are taken.
166
Why is control of the weight and balance of an aircraft important?
To provide maximum safety.
167
If a piece of equipment such as a radio is added to an aircraft, how can you determine the effect on weight and balance without re-weighing the aircraft?
If the weight and balance records are up to date, a new weight and C.G. location can be determined by computation.
168
Define "tare weight" and describe how it is handled when weighing an aircraft.
"Tare weight " is the weight of anything on the scales that is not part of the aircraft. It must be subtracted from the scale weight reading to determine the net weight of the airplane.
169
If all the records of an aircraft are missing, how would you determine the empty weight and empty weight C.G.?
The aircraft would have to be weighed, and new weight and balance records would have to be prepared.
170
If an aircraft is loaded so that the aft C.G. limit is exceeded, what undesirable flight characteristic is likely to result?
The aircraft will be tail-heavy and maybe unable to recover from a stall or spin.
171
How many views are required to represent the important details of most aircraft parts?
One, two, or three are usually enough.
172
What kinds of parts can be by one - view drawings?
Parts with uniform thickness:
*Shims.
*Plates.
*Gaskets.
173
What is the name for a part of a drawing used to bring out important details ad how is it drawn?
A detailed view, which is usually drawn to a larger scale than the main drawing.
174
What is the purpose of schematic diagrams?
They are primarily used for troubleshooting systems.
175
Describe an orthographic projection.
It is a way of drawing an object using using different views at right angles to each other such as a top, bottom, front, back and side views.
176
Why do manufacturers use symbols on aircraft drawings?
Symbols are a form of shorthand to describe characteristics of a component in relation to each other with minimum drawing.
177
Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of symmetrical objects, and give their proper name.
*HIDDEN views are shown with HIDDEN LINES, which are short evenly spaced dashes.
*ALTERNATE positions are shown with PHANTOM LINES made up of light alternating long dashes and two short dashes.
*CENTER LINE consisting of alternating long and short dashes, show the middle of symmetrical objects.
178
How can you determine if a drawing has been changed?
A record of the changes is listed either in a revision block or in ruled columns, which may be in a corner of the drawing or next to the title block.
179
How are dimensions shown on aircraft drawings, and what is their purpose?
*Dimension lines are usually solid and generally broken at the midpoint for insertion of the measurement.
*They provide a means to accurately represent the size of an object.
180
What is the difference between an "allowance" and a "tolerance "?
*Allowance is the nominal dimension and the maximum and minimum permissible sizes.
*Tolerance is the difference between the extreme permissible dimensions, which may be found by adding the plus and minus allowances.
181
What is meant by "clearance" when used on aircraft drawings?
Allowable dimension between two parts.
182
What kinds of information about an aircraft drawing can be found in the title block?
*Part or assembly name.
*Drawing size, scale.
*Date.
*Company name.
*Name or initials of the people responsible for creating or approving the drawing.
183
What information is contained in a "bill of materials"?
A list of the materials and parts needed to fabricate or assemble the component or system shown in the drawing.
184
One kilowatt is equal to how many watts?
1000 watts.
185
What law describes the most fundamental or basic relationships in an electrical circuit?
Ohm's law
186
What are the three elements of ohm's law
*Voltage.
*Current.
*Resistance.
187
How would you write ohm's law as an equation?
*E = I X R.
*R = E ÷ I.
*I = E ÷ R.
188
If the resistance in a DC circuit remains the same but the voltage doubles, what happens to the amount of current flowing in the circuit?
It also doubles
189
In DC circuits, what unit measures power?
Watts
190
What three elements are required to form an electrical circuit?
*Source of electrical energy.
*Load or resistance to use the electricity.
*Wires or conductors to connect the source to the load.
191
DC circuits can take one of three forms or types. What are they?
*Series.
*Parallel .
*Complex (or series -parallel)
192
A 24 volt lead acid battery has how many cells?
Twelve
193
A fully charged lead-acid battery has a specific gravity that varies between what two values?
1.275 & 1.300
194
You must apply a correction to specific gravity reading of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery when the temperature is outside what two values?
Temperature is less than 70°F or more than 90°F.
195
What is the reason for having separate facilities for storing and servicing nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries?
The electrolyte in the two types of batteries is chemically opposite and the fumes from one type can contaminate the electrolyte of the other type.
196
The state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery cannot be determined by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte for what reason?
There is no significant change in the electrolyte as the battery is charged or discharged.
197
What is the principal advantage of AC current over DC current?
*Power can be transported overlong distances more efficiently
*Smaller wires used because the voltage can be easily increased or decreased by a transformer.
198
What are three causes of opposition to current flow in an AC circuit?
*Resistance
*Inductive reactance
*Capacitive reactance
199
Define Inductance
An induced voltage that is opposite in the direction to the applied voltage.
200
What component creates capacitance in AC circuit
Capacitor
201
How does a capacitor store electricity?
The energy is stored in the form of an electrostatic charge or field that exists between two conductors separated by an insulator
202
What property of an AC circuit is defined by the term "impedance"?
Total opposition to current flow.
203
What are to reasons that might cause a nickel-cadmium battery to fail to deliver it's rated capacity?
*Faulty cells
*Cell imbalance.
204
What electrical values are measured by a typical multimeter?
*Voltage
*Current
*Resistance
205
Define matter
Object that occupies space & has mass
206
Matter may exist in what three states?
*Solid
*Liquid
*Gas
207
Define kinetic energy.
The energy of motion.
208
Work is the product of what two factors?
Force & distance moved.
209
What are the parts of a lever?
*Rigid bar
*Fulcrum.
210
A wheelbarrow is an example of what class of lever?
Second-class lever
211
Are all three states of matter affected by thermal expansion and if so, which state is affected the most?
All three states are affected, with gasses being affected the most.
212
What is a British Thermal Unit?
The amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 degree Fahrenheit
213
Name three methods of heat transfer?
*Conduction
*Convection
*Radiation
214
What term defines the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases?
Absolute zero
215
Can liquids be compressed?
No
Liquids are generally considered incompressible.
216
What are the customary units used to express hydraulic or pneumatic pressure in the United States?
PSI
Pounds per Square Inch
217
Describe how pressure is transmitted when force is applied to a confined liquid.
* Pressure is transmitted equally in all directions.
* Pascals Law.
218
What formula expresses the relationship between force, pressure and area?
FORCE equals AREA times PRESSURE
F=AxP
219
What is the approximate speed of sound at sea level on a standard day?
*661 knots
or
*340 meters per second.
220
What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level on a standard day?
*29.92 inches of mercury
or
*1013.2 millibars
221
On a standard day at sea level, what is the value for temperature?
*59°F
or
*15°C
222
What are the factors that determine density altitude?
*Temperature
*Atmospheric pressure.
223
What is the term used to describe the ratio between the amount of moisture actually present in the atmosphere as compared to the amount of air could hold if it were completely saturated?
Relative humidity
224
What are the four principal forces acting on an airplane in flight?
*Lift
*Drag
*Thrust
*Gravity
225
What is the term that describes the angle between the relative wind and the chord line of an airfoil?
Angle of Attack
226
What are the factors that cause an airplane wing to stall?
A stall is caused when the angle of attack exceeds a critical value and the airflow separates from the upper surface and becomes turbulent.
227
What are the principal effects that result from lowering the flaps in flight?
*Lift increases
*Drag increases
*Stall speed decreases.
228
What is the function of a wing mounted vortex generator?
Vortex generators delay or keep the airflow from separating from the upper surface of a wing during high speed flight.
229
How does blade-flapping help to compensate for dissymmetry of lift in helicopter main rotor systems?
*Flapping increases the angle of attack and lift on the retreating blade.
and
*Decreases the angle of attack and lift on the advancing blade.
230
How does airflow through the main rotor of a helicopter change during the transition from normal flight to autorotation?
*NORMAL FLIGHT the air moves downward
*AUTO-ROTATION the air moves upward.
231
What is friction?
The opposition to relative motion between two objects in contact with each other.
232
Describe the result of adding a large positive number, and a smaller negative number.
The result is a smaller positive number, and is the same as ignoring the signs and subtracting the smaller number from the larger.
233
How do you convert a fraction to a decimal?
Divide the top number (numerator)by the bottom number (denominator)
234
What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fractions?
You must find the lowest (least) common denominator.
235
How do you divide one fraction by another?
You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together.
*Cross multiply
236
How can you convert a fraction into a percent?
*Convert it to a decimal
*Move the decimal point 2 places to the right
*Add the percent sign.
237
How can you convert a decimal into a percent?
*Multiply the decimal by 100 and add the percent sign.
or
*Move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign.
238
How do you change a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction?
Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction.
239
What are two different ways that a ratio can be expressed?
*Fraction.
or
*Placing a colon (:) between two numbers.
or
*Using the word "to" between the two numbers.
240
What is a proportion?
A statement of equality between two or more ratios.
241
What is meant by the root of a number?
A root is two or more equal smaller numbers that, when multiplied together, equal the specific number.
242
How do you find the square of a number? Give an example.
Multiply the number by itself.
(Example; 4×4=16, 7×7=49)
243
What is a common method of making computations involving very large or very small numbers more manageable?
Convert the numbers into scientific notation by using powers of 10.
244
How is 100,000 expressed as a power of 10?
10 to the 5th power
245
What formula is used to find the area of a rectangle and or a triangle?
*Rectangle, area equals length times width. A = L X W
*Triangle, one half base times height.
1/2 (B X H)
246
Define Pi
Pi is a constant that expresses the relationship between the circumference of a circle and it's diameter and is approximately equal to 3.1416
247
Describe a trapezoid
A trapezoid is a closed, four-sided figure having two parallel sides and two sides that are not parallel.
248
What is the formula for computing the area of a circle?
Area = Pi x r^2
