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Pharmacology > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

(58 cards)

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1
Q

Biologics - what do monoclonal antibodies target and what is the suffix for the drug names

A

over-expressed cell surface receptors
Monoclonal AntiBodies end with ‘-mab’

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2
Q

biologics - what do small molecule inhibitors target and what is the suffic for the drug names

A

small molecule inhIBitors target intracellular molecules
‘-IB’

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3
Q

biologics - what do interleukin receptors act against

A

agonist and antagonist of interleukin receptors
‘-kin’

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4
Q

bethanecol action and indication

A

activates muscarinic receptors on smooth muscle of bladder
used for urinary retention
(call bethany to activate bladder)

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5
Q

carbachol action and indication

A

carbon copy of acetylcholine
used to constrict pupil intra-op

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6
Q

methacholine action and indication

A

activates muscarinic receptors in airways
used as diagnostic challenge for asthma

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7
Q

pilocarpine action and indication

A

contraction of pupillary sphincter and cilliary muscles
glaucoma, xerostoma in sjogrens

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8
Q

pyridostigmine indication

A

myaesthenia gravis
(gets rid of mg)

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9
Q

phytostigmine indication

A

atropine overdose
(phyts atropine)

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10
Q

neostigmine indication

A

myaesthenia gravis
post op / neurogenic ileus or bladder retention

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11
Q

what PDE inhibitor can cause cyanopia and how

A

cyanopia - blue tinted vision
= Sildenefil
due to inhibition of PDE-6 (Six, Sildenefil) in the retina

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12
Q

what medication may be given to prevent stenting re-stenosis and mechanism of action

A

PDE inhibitor - (platelet inhibitor) dipyridamole

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13
Q

what receptor is the adrenal medulla innervated by?

A

directly innervatied by presynaptic sympathetic fibres (Ach)

whereas all other sympathetic fibres have pregangliotic and post gangliotic fibres

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14
Q

what receptors are the sweat glands innervated by?

A

innervated by the Ach receptors

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15
Q

what is the effect of epinephrine on BP/MAP and HR after alpha blockade

A

reduced BP (greater diastolic decrease)
reduced MAP
reflex tachycardia

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16
Q

what is the effect of phenylephrine on BP/MAP and HR after alpha blockade

A

BP/MAP and HR decrease as it is a pure alpha agonist with no beta effects

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17
Q

what receptors do epinephrine, norepinephrine and isoproterenol act on and their effects on BP/MAP, HR and SVR

A

Norepinephrine (alpha > beta)
BP: widened PP, increases MAP
HR: reflex bradycardia, CO unchanged
SVR: increases

Epinephrine (beta>alpha)
BP: MAP increases
HR: increases, CO increases
SVR: decreases

Isoproterenol (beta1 = beta2)
BP: diastolic decreases, MAP decreases
HR: reflex tachycardia, CO increases
SVR: decreases

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18
Q

treatment of choice in patients with methicillin resistant staph aureus

A

vancomycin

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19
Q

what treatment is given to patients exposed to active tB

A

9 months isoniazid therapy

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20
Q

mode of action NSAIDS vs aspirin

A

NSAIDS = reversible inhibition COX1 and COX 2
aspirin = irreversible inhibition COX 1 and COX 2

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21
Q

reversibly binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome

A

tetracyclines i.e. doxycycline

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22
Q

reversibly binds to 50s subunit of 70S rRNA

A

macrolides i.e. erythromycin

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23
Q

bevacizumab indications and action

A

monoclonal antibody and anti-VEGF used systemically to reduce blood vessel supply to tumours i.e. breast, colon. Used intravitreally for ARMD.

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24
Q

chemotherapy agent that generates free radicals and results in DNA double-stranded breaks.

25
chemotherapy agent that is cross-linking DNA agent
cisplatin & cyclophosphamide
26
chemotherapy agent that works by inhibiting type II topoisomerase, and resistance arises from mutations in topoisomerase II.
etoposide
27
chemotherapy drug that prevents microtubule missassembly and inhibits tumour cell mitosis
pacitaxel
28
chemotherapy drugs that inhibit mitotic spindle formation and breakdown
formation -> vincristine breakdown -> pacitaxel
29
medication used for pre-exposure prophylaxis for HIV
tenofovir + emtricitabine
30
mode of action ciclosporin
calcineurin inhibitor. binds cyclophyllin which blocks T cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription
31
mode of action of tacrolimus
calcineurin inhibitor. Binds FK506 binding protein which blocks T cell activation by preventing IL-1 transcription
32
mode of action of azathioprine
precursor to 6- mercaptopurine, inhibits leukocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis
33
mode of action of basiliximab
monoclonal antibody - inhibits over expressed cell surface receptors
34
mode of action of sirolimus (rapamycin)
inhibits mTOR, binds FKBP preventing response to IL-2
35
name 2 immunosuppressants used for prophylaxis of acute organ rejection
basilixamab sirolimus (rapamycin)
36
immunosuppressant that can cause gingeval hyperplasia and hirutism
ciclosporin
37
concomitant use with what drug can cause increased toxicity of azathioprine
allopurinol 5 mercaptopurine broken down by xanthine oxidase so inhibitors like allopurinol will reduce breakdown of the drug
38
immunosuppressant with high risk of invasive CMV infective
mycophenalate
39
immunosuppressant with high risk of nephrotoxicity
calcineurin inhibitors i.e. ciclosporin, tacrolimus
40
action and indication of permethrin
scabies inhibits Na current channels on neuronal cells and inhibiting depolarization
41
what is the mechanism of gentamicin resistance
inactivation via enzyme modification
42
what is the mechanism of penicillin resistance
structural change in peptidases
43
what is the mechanism of resistance of vancomycin
amino acid modification from D-ALA D-ALA to D-ALA to D-LA
44
what anti cancer drug is used for solid tumours and ARMD
bevacizumab is a vascular endothelial growth factor used for wet age related macular degeneration and inhibits neovascularisation in solid tumours
45
tx for vancomycin induced transfusoin reaction (red man syndrome)
diphenydramine + slower infusion rate
46
inhibits viral DNA polymerase
'ovir' i.e. aciclovir
47
mode of action of mycophenalate
reversibly inhibits IMP dehydrogenase preventing purine synthesis of B and T cells
48
mode of action of vancomycin
block peptidoglycan synthesis
49
mode of action of penicillin
block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross linking
50
what antimuscarinic drug is used for motion sickness
scopolamine
51
what type of drug is suxamethonium and its side effects
depolarising neuromuscular blcoker used for rapid induction of anaesthesia side effects: malignant hyperthermia, hyperkalaemia, hypotension, increased saliva production, rash
52
mode of action of depolarising neuromusclar blockers
i.e. suxamethonium binds to nicotininic acetylcholine receptors prolonging depolarising nerve end plate
53
mode of action of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers
i.e. rocuronium competitive nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonists
54
what patients is suxamethonium contrainidicated
patients with glaucoma or penetrating eye injuries as it raised intra-ocular pressure
55
what beta blocker may cause tachycardia
nifedipine (dipyridamole CCB) causes vasodilatation which may cause reflex tachycardia
56
what drugs increase risk of statin induced rhabdomyolysis
macrolides amiodarone
57
probenacid can increase toxicity of certain medications, how
inhibits organic ion transporter
58
what can be used for both hypertension and osteoporosis
thiazide like diuretics cause Ca reabsorption for bone

Pharmacology (15 decks)

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