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Flashcards in General Anatomy Deck (110)
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1
Q

Which plane would you find the lumbar facets?

A

Sagittal;

C2 > T12 are coronal

2
Q

The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

A

C6

3
Q

What is the correct shape of the tracheal cartilage rings?

A

C shaped; open at posterior aspect

4
Q

The apex of the lung is located

A

Above the 1st rib;

Apex is also called the “cupola”

5
Q

Where is the carotid tubercle located

A

C6;

Cricoid cartilage is also found at C6

6
Q

In which part of the spine are the accessory processes located?

A

Lumbars

7
Q

The umbilicus is part of which dermatome?

A

T10;
Nipples = T4
Xyphoid = T7
Umbilius = T10

8
Q

Which of the following makes up the superior 2/5 of acetabular fossa?

A

Ilium;
Pubis = Anterior superior 1/5
Ischium = Fossa floor & posterior inferior 2/5

9
Q

Where is the horizontal transpyloric plane located?

A

T7;

Transpyloric means kidney

10
Q

What is directly distal to the coronoid fossa on the humerus?

A

Trochlea;

Olecranon fossa - on posterior humerus
Capitium - lateral & inferior to coronoid fossa
Olecranon process - on ulna

11
Q

Which carpal bone has the most articulations?

A

Capitate;
The Lunate entraps the median nerve
The Hamate entraps the ulnar nerve

12
Q

The epithelial later of the cornea and the lens are both derived from:

A

Ectoderm;
Nerve & skin > Ectoderm
Lungs and GI > Endoderm
Every other tissue > Mesoderm

13
Q

Which of the following best describes a “dermatome?”

A

A segmental band of dermis supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

14
Q

On which bone is the trochlear notch?

A

Ulna

15
Q

The conoid process is located on

A

Clavicle;
Coronoid > Ulna
Corocoid > Scapula

16
Q

The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the

A

Scaphoid

17
Q

The groove for the radial nerve is located on the

A

Posterior humerus;

Entrapment of the Radial nerve in the spiral groove of the Humerus causes: “crutch palsy” or “Saturday night palsy.”

18
Q

On which tubercle is the origin of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle?

A

Infraglenoid

19
Q

The soleal line is on:

A

Tibia

20
Q

The trochanteric fossa is located on the

A

Greater trochanter

21
Q

The sustentaculum tali is located on which bone?

A

Calcaneus

22
Q

On which bone is the lesser sciatic notch located?

A

Ischium

23
Q

Development of the upper limb, beginning with the appearance of the limb bud and ending with the separation of the digits occurs _____ days after fertilization?

A

26-52

24
Q

Which structure has a primary ossification center that appears after birth?

A

Clavicle;
Clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone of the body.
It has three ossification centers

25
Q

The primary ossification centers develop from the:

A

Diaphysis;

Metaphysis > Most metabolic area of the long bone.

26
Q

What is the primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate?

A

Longitudinal growth

27
Q

_______bone develops from membranous bone formation

A

Parietal

28
Q

Which reabsorbs bone matrix?

A

Osteoclasts;

Paget’s disease is caused by increased Osteoclastic activity

29
Q

The tensile strength of bone comes from

A

Collagen fibers

30
Q

Mineralization of the bone matrix occurs with which of the following activities?

A

Osteoblastic;

Osteoblastic activity increases alkaline phophatase

31
Q

Which of the following produces osteoid?

A

Osteoblast

32
Q

What separates the Haversian systems found in bone?

A

Interstitial lamellae

33
Q

What is the action of a trochoid joint?

A

Rotation;
Trochoid aka pivot
Example: Proximal radioulna joint

34
Q

A fibrous joint is classified as:

A

Syndesmosis;

Examples: Sutures, gomphosis, syndesmoses

35
Q

Which is an immoveable joint?

A

Synarthrodial

36
Q

What joint is responsible for circumduction?

A

Spheroid; Aka Ball & Socket

37
Q

The epiphyseal plate is classified as a _____ joint

A

Synchondrosis

38
Q

The articulation of the tooth with the jaw is classified as a _____ joint

A

Gomphosis;
Hold in your teeth with your “GOMS.”
Syndesmosis is a correct classification but not as specific

39
Q

With which structure does the head of the fibula articulate?

A

Tibia

40
Q

Which joint has an articular disc which completely divides the joint into two cavities?

A

Temporomandibula

41
Q

What articulates with the sternal angle?

A

Second rib;

AKA Sternal angle of Louis, where the sternum and manubrium meet

42
Q

The acetabular labrum is made up of

A

Fibrocartilage

43
Q

The primary joint of the ankle is

A

Talocrural

44
Q

The _____ and _____ bones are connected by the spring ligament

A

Calcaneus and navicular

45
Q

What type of movement is in the wrist?

A

Circumflex

46
Q

Movement of an ellipsoid joint would occur in how many axes?

A

Two

47
Q

The femoral head is directed medially ____ and ____

A

Superiorally; anteriorally

48
Q

The subtalar joint allows the foot to perform which movements?

A

Inversion and eversion;

Most common ankle sprain is internal

49
Q

Flexion of the head occurs primarily at:

A

Occiput-C1;
Occiput > C1 = “Yes”
C1 > C2 = “No”

50
Q

The distal part of the triceps brachii is on the

A

Decranon

51
Q

The pisiform bone lies within the tendon of which muscle

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris

52
Q

Which muscle would be most affected if there was damage to the ventral ramus of the C5 nerve?

A

Deltoids

53
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscle of the hypothenar eminence?

A

Ulnar;

Median nerve innervates thenar eminence muscles

54
Q

Which structure passes lateral to the antecubital fossa?

A

Radial nerve;
Radial nerve innervates extension of the phalanges, wrist, and elbow and is entrapped in the base of the snuff box

55
Q

What nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle?

A

Suprascapular;
Subscapular (Teres major)
Radial (Extensors)
Axillary (Deltoid & Teres minor)

56
Q

Which structure is a component of the pelvic diaphragm?

A

Levator ani muscles

57
Q

The tendon for the peroneus longus muscle runs through which bone?

A

Cuboid

58
Q

Which of the following peripheral nerves supplies the gluteus medius muscle?

A

Superior gluteal;
Inferior gluteal (Gluteus maximus)
Obturator (Adductors)

59
Q

Which nerve supplies the gracilis muscle?

A

Obturator

60
Q

Extensors of the knee are supplied by which nerve?

A

Femoral;

Remember Rectus Femoris crosses two joints.

61
Q

The urachus remains in the adult as a remnant of the:

A

Media umbilical ligament

62
Q

The muscles of the shoulder are derived from :

A

Cervical myotome

63
Q

Embryonic muscle growth occurs by fusion of which of the following?

A

Myoblasts;
Myo = muscle
Myelo = spinal cord

64
Q

Muscles of the lower limb are derived from:

A

Mesoderm

65
Q

After the 7th week of development both limb buds rotate, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A

Upper limbs rotate laterally 90° and lower rotate medially 85°

66
Q

Which fontanel is found in the adult?

A

Bregma;

Coronal suture > between frontal & parietal bones

67
Q

Which of the following separates the true pelvis from the false pelvis?

A

Arcuate line

68
Q

Which structures are found in the quadrangular space?

A

Axillary nerve; posterior circumflex humeral artery;

Triangular space has Circumflex Scapular Artery in it.

69
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of skeletal muscle?

A

Fosiform shape

70
Q

The capture and release of calcium is a function of ____ in muscle.

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

71
Q

The perimysium is a connective tissue that encloses a:

A

Fasciculus

72
Q

The stem cells of muscles are:

A

Myoblast;

Myo = muscle
Cyte = cells
Blast = build
Clast = break down

73
Q

The arch of the aorta is located in the ____ mediastinum

A

Superior

74
Q

What are the Purkinje cells?

A

Modified cardiac cell

75
Q

Which of the following structures is ONLY contained in the right ventricle?

A

Pectinate muscle

76
Q

Which of the following structures is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

A

AV node;
SA node = 60-80 beats per minute
AV node = 40-60 beats per minute
Bundle of His = 20-40 beats per minute
Purkinje fibers = 0-20 beats per minute

77
Q

Which of the following arteries is the main supply to the sinoatrial node?

A

Right coronary;
Coronary arteries are the only arteries controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system

78
Q

The following is a branch of the medial plantar artery?

A

Posterior tibial

79
Q

The ascending colon is supplied by what artery?

A

Right colic

80
Q

The lingual artery is a direct branch of the ____ artery.

A

External carotid

81
Q

Which two veins join to form the portal vein?

A

Superior mesenteric and splenic

82
Q

Which of the following veins drains into the proximal axillary vein?

A

Cephalic;

Jugular vein is the “main brain drain.”

83
Q

Which vein drains the majority of blood from the body?

A

Superior

84
Q

The external iliac vein receives blood from the following anatomical structure:

A

Lower limbs

85
Q

If you had tonsillitis, which lymph nodes would be affected?

A

Jugulodi gastric

86
Q

The majority of lymph enters the circulation through the:

A

Thoracic duct

87
Q

Blind ended lymph vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called:

A

Lacteals;

The appendix is a blind lacteal. Pain at McBurney’s point indicates appendicitis

88
Q

The sublingual caruncle is a duct for the ____gland

A

Submandibular

89
Q

Which structure in the fetal heart keeps atrial blood from entering the pulmonary circulation?

A

Foramen ovale;

Most congenital defects of the heart occur here!

90
Q

The thymus gland is derived from the ____ pharyngeal pouch

A

3rd;

Thymus gland is part of the immune system. (Reticuloendothelial system)

91
Q

Post partum, ductus arteriosus becomes the:

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

92
Q

Erythropoetin is secreted by which cell?

A

Extraglomerular masangium

93
Q

What is a cardiac skeleton made of?

A

Fibrous connective tissue

94
Q

Where are “Hassall corpuscles” located?

A

Thymus gland

95
Q

What cell attaches to capillaries and nerves?

A

Astrocytes

96
Q

The duct which crosses the masseter and opens the mouth originates from the ____ gland

A

Parotid

97
Q

Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?

A

Pulp cavity

98
Q

Where is the pharyngeal orifice of the auditory tube?

A

Roof of the nasopharynx

99
Q

What separates the nasopharynx and the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

100
Q

Payers Patches are most numerous in the:

A

Ileum

101
Q

The crypts of Lieberkuhn are located in which anatomical structure?

A

Small intestine

102
Q

The shape of the haustra in the large intestine is due to the:

A

Taenia coli

103
Q

The esophagogastric junction is surrounded by which portion of the stomach?

A

Cardia;

Fundus means most superior point

104
Q

Persistence of the yolk stalk may result in:

A

Meekel’s diverticulum

105
Q

The smooth muscle of the digestive system is derived from:

A

Splanchnic mesoderm;

Sclerotome originates from vertebral column

106
Q

What develops from the hindgut of the embryo?

A

Rectum

107
Q

What is the mucous membrane that forms the longitudinal folds in the distal end of the anal canal?

A

Columns

108
Q

Where does simple columnar meet stratified squamous?

A

Anal canal

109
Q

Where are Brunner’s glands located?

A

Duodenum;
Parietal cells are in the stomach.
They secrete IF and HCL.

110
Q

Which of the following cells secretes enzymes?

A

Paneth