General Bullets #2 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in General Bullets #2 Deck (200):
1

An _______________ is a group of people who share one or more common characteristics.

aggregate

2

______________ is a technique used to desensitize a client with a phobia.

Flooding

3

Fluvoxamine (Luvox) is used to treat

OCD

4

One characteristic of Native Americans is that they're

future oriented.

5

A Latin-American client may seek assistance and guidance of a ___________________, a folk or faith healer.

curandero

6

During the postoperative phase, a pink-red stoma is __________; a stoma with a dark red or purplish hue indicates ________________; and a brown or black stoma indicates _______________.

normal; ischemia; necrosis

7

Unless contraindicated, place a client on his left side with the right knee flexed when inserting a

suppository

8

When bottle-feeding a newborn with a cleft palate, hold the infant's head in an _______________ position.

upright

9

Because of circulating maternal antibodies that will decrease the immune response, the MMR vaccine shouldn't be given until the infant has reached:

1 year of age

10

If a client complains of increased pain when palpating the testicle, suspect:

testicular torsion

11

If a client is relieved when the scrotum is lifted, suspect:

epididymitis

12

A __________________ is a written policy, regulation, order, or rule that provides specific guidance on how to handle a particular treatment issue, problem, or concern.

standing order

13

Boneless, skinless baked chicken is low in:

fat and triglycerides

14

If a client is _______________, call the physician and report this information before applying a transdermal patch.

febrile

15

______________ is a practice of Asian cultures wherein the edge of a coin is rubbed back and forth across a person's oiled skin to rid the body of disease.

Coining

16

Coining causes:

welt-like lesions

17

In _______________, a bottle or other container is filled with steam and placed against the skin to draw out poison. In the process, the skin is burned.

cupping

18

Muslims will accept an _______________ if it will prolong life.

organ transplant

19

Last-rite chanting often follows the death of a:

Buddhist

20

In the _______________________, burial is believed to reflect proper care of the remains; cremation is discouraged.

Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (Mormons)

21

Friends (Quakers) don't believe in life after death, and they believe God is ______________.

in everyone

22

Baptism is mandatory in the ________________ religion. Organ transplant is acceptable.

Roman Catholic

23

The ______________ believe that a healthy boy is a gift from parents and ancestors.

Chinese

24

_____________ believe that the universe is controlled by God's will and there are supernatural forces in existence.

Filipinos

25

___________ people believe that good health is the balance between yin and yang, which are the opposing yet complementary aspects of all creation.

Vietnamese

26

In _______________ culture, illness is thought to be caused by an imbalance between hot and cold. Illness is seen as a punishment from ____________.

Hispanic; God

27

____________________ believe that health is derived from being in harmony with nature and the universe.

Native Americans

28

Frozen human milk shouldn't be microwaved because it decreases the milk's:

anti-infective factors.

29

A newborn typically wets:

6-10 diapers per day

30

Normal v/s of a neonate include:

HR 120-140, RR 30-50, axillary temp 97.3-98.6 F

31

Gavage feeding is the preferred method of ensuring adequate nutrition of neonates who are unable to:

suck effectively

32

When blood is drawn from an infant under a phototherapy lamp, the light is turned off to prevent:

destruction of bilirubin.

33

Signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease are:

Severe cramping
Malodorous vaginal discharge
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea

34

The most adequate diet for an infant in the first 6 months of life is:

breast milk.

35

An infant can usually chew food by:

7 months.

36

An infant can usually hold a spoon by:

9 months

37

An infant can usually drink fluid from a cup by:

1 year of age

38

Choking from __________________ is the leading cause of death (by suffocation) for infants younger than 1 year of age.

mechanical obstruction

39

The _____________ is used to determine the patency of the fallopian tubes.

Rubin test

40

Sickling, as seen in sickle cell anemia, is caused by:

hypoxemia

41

One of the easiest methods used to prevent sickling of RBC's is:

hemodilution (increasing fluid intake).

42

Folic acid is needed by the body to form _____, the iron-containing protein in hemoglobin.

heme

43

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

left side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.

44

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:

just below the umbilicus on the left side.

45

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the left occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother's left side.

46

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right sacrum anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

right side of the maternal abdomen just above the umbilicus.

47

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput posterior lie, place the stethoscope:

just below the umbilicus on the right side.

48

To best assess FHT when a fetus is in the right occiput anterior lie, place the stethoscope on the:

lower aspect of the abdomen on the mother's right side.

49

Typical non-life-threatening adverse effects of chemotherapy include:

Nausea & vomiting
Alopecia
Changes in taste perception

50

Toxic effects of chemotherapy that may be life-threatening include:

hematologic toxicity (bone marrow depression)
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity

51

A nurse should wear gloves at all times when working with a:

chemotherapeutic agent

52

___________ is for IV use only and can be fatal if given intrathecally.

Oncovin (vincristine)

53

Monitor a client receiving vincristine for life-threatening:

bronchospasms.

54

An early sign of mitral valve prolapse is:

systolic click

55

Signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer are:

dysphagia
a sensation of something in the throat
pain during swallowing
substernal pain

56

The primary symptom of _____________ is dyspnea on exertion initially and then dyspnea at rest.

pulmonary hypertension

57

Early complications of tracheostomy are:

bleeding
air embolism
pneumothorax
laryngeal nerve damage

58

The most common complication of a teen pregnancy is:

preeclampsia

59

______________ is a term used to describe an infant who falls below the 5th percentile for weight and height on a standard measurement chart.

Failure to thrive

60

A _________ medication shouldn't be swallowed.

sublingual

61

Problem solving approaches include:

intuition
research
trial and error
the scientific method

62

Developmental theories include:

Havighurst's age periods and developmental tasks
Freud's five stages of development
Kohlberg's stages of moral development
Erikson's eight stages of development
Piaget's phases of cognitive development

63

Macrosomia occurs in an infant with a birth weight greater than:

4,000 grams (8 pound, 13 ounces)

64

The primary concern with infusing large volumes of fluid is:

circulatory overload.

65

Infant hazards:

falls
burns
suffocation

66

Toddler hazards

burns
poisoning
drowning

67

Preschooler hazards:

playground equipment accidents
choking
poisoning
drowning

68

Adolescent hazards:

automobile accidents
drowning
fires
firearm accidents

69

Factors that contribute to suicide include:

prolonged medical illness
loss of a lifelong mate
uncontrolled pain
major depression
social isolation

70

__________ are more likely to commit suicide.

White adult males

71

In Islam, __________ is prohibited; meat products must be slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines; and daytime fasting occurs during:

pork; Ramadan

72

In Judaism, food must be prepared in accordance with ____________; only meat from animals that are vegetable eaters, cloven-hoofed animals, and animals slaughtered in accordance with religious guidelines are permitted.

kosher law

73

In Judaism, fish with ____________ are allowed under religious law (shellfish wouldn't be).

scales and fins

74

Jews fast for 24 hours during _______________ (the very ill and pregnant women are exempted from complying).

Yom Kippur

75

In Judaism, combinations of ________________ are prohibited.

meat and milk

76

During Passover, only _______________ bread can be consumed in the Jewish faith.

unleavened

77

For Jehovah's Witnesses, any food or food product that has ________ added to it is prohibited.

blood

78

For Buddhists, Seventh Day Adventists (Church of God), and Baptists, _____________ is prohibited.

alcohol

79

Roman Catholics fast on ___________ and ____________. During Lent, meat is discouraged on _______.

Ash Wednesday; Good Friday
Friday

80

In the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints (Mormons), ____________, ______, and ________ are prohibited; fasting occurs on the first _____________ of the month.

alcohol
coffee
tea

81

In Hinduism, ______ and ______ are prohibited; various sects fast at different times of the week; __________ are prohibited from fasting; and members of this faith are vegetarians.

veal; beef
children

82

Food preferences of Hispanic Americans generally include:

beans
fried foods
spicy foods
corn products

83

Food preferences of African Americans generally include:

greens
fried foods
pork

84

Food preferences of Native Americans generally include:

fruits and berries
blue cornmeal
fish and game

85

An ________________ occurs when there's a conflict between two seemingly equal ethical principles.

ethical dilemma

86

A child in Bryant's traction who's younger than 3 or weighs less than 30 lb should have the:

buttocks slightly elevated and clear of bed
knees should be slightly flexed
legs should be extended at a right angle to body

87

Unlike false labor, true labor produces:

regular rhythmic contractions
abdominal discomfort
progressive descent of the fetus
show
progressive effacement & dilation of cervix

88

Pernicious anemia results from the failure to absorb ___________ in the GI tract and causes primarily GI and neurologic signs and symptoms.

Vitamin B12

89

In a client with hypokalemia, presenting S/S include:

muscle weakness
cardiac arrhythmias

90

A client who has a pressure ulcer should consume a diet high in __________________ and ____________ unless contraindicated.

protein
calories

91

The CK-MB isoenzyme level is used to assess tissue damage in:

MI

92

After a 12-hour fast, the normal fasting blood glucose level is:

80-120 mg/dL

93

A blood pressure cuff that's too narrow can cause a falsely:

elevated blood pressure

94

A blood pressure cuff that's too wide can cause a falsely:

decreased blood pressure

95

A client who's experiencing digoxin toxicity may report:

nausea/vomiting
diplopia
blurred vision
light flashes
yellow-green halos around images

96

Administering high levels of oxygen to a premature neonate can cause blindness secondary to:

retrolental fibroplasia

97

Anuria is daily urine output of:

98

A woman or girl taking a _____________ is at risk of candidiasis because of an overgrowth of Candida albicans.

corticosteroid

99

_____________ are the rumbling sounds heard on lung auscultation. They're more pronounced on________________.

Rhonchi; expiration

100

___________ is forced feeding, usually through a gastric tube.

Gavage

101

Risk of a fat embolism is greatest in the first _____ hours after the fracture of a long bone and is manifested as respiratory distress.

48

102

To help venous blood return in a client who's in shock, the nurse should elevate the client's legs no more than ________. This procedure is contraindicated in a client with a head injury, however.

45 degrees

103

The _______________ is the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates when taken simultaneously by two nurses using the same watch.

pulse deficit

104

To reduce the client's risk of vomiting and aspiration, the nurse should schedule postural drainage before _____ or _____________ hours after meals.

before; 2-4 hours

105

A positive _____________, seen in meningitis, occurs when an attempt to flex the hip of a recumbent patient causes painful spasms of the hamstring muscle and resistance to further extension of the leg at the knee.

Kernig's sign

106

After an orchiectomy, the ____________________ level is monitored for elevation. A rising level of this tumor marker is consistent with nonseminomatous malignancy of the testicle that has spread to other parts of the body.

alpha feto protein

107

Herniated nucleus pulposus (intervertebral disk) most commonly occurs in the:

lumbar and lumbosacral regions

108

_____________ is surgical removal of the herniated portion of an intervertebral disc.

Laminectomy

109

Surgical treatment of a gastric ulcer includes severing the vagus nerve (vagotomy) to reduce the amount of ____________ secreted by the gastric cells.

gastric acid

110

_______________ is an alteration in thought processes that's characterized by skipping from one topic to another, unrelated topic.

Flight of ideas

111

__________________ is the lack of concern for a profound disability, such as blindness, deafness, or paralysis that may occur in a client who has a conversion disorder.

La bell indifference

112

In an infant, a bulging fontanel is the most significant sign of increasing _____.

ICP

113

Moderate anxiety decreases a person's ability to perceive and concentrate. The person is selectively inattentive (focuses on immediate concerns), and the perceptual field narrows (______________).

tunnelvision

114

A client who has a phobic disorder uses self-protective ______________ as an ego defense mechanism.

avoidance

115

In a client with anorexia nervosa, the highest treatment priority is correction of ___________ and __________ imbalances.

nutritional and electrolyte

116

A normal lithium therapeutic level is:

0.5 to 1.2 mEq/L

117

The ______________ forces exhalation against a closed glottis, such as when taking a deep breath to blow up a balloon or bearing down, as with a bowel movement. it increases _______________ and often slows tachycardia.

Valsalva maneuver
intrathoracic

118

Early s/s of alcohol withdrawal include:

anxiety
anorexia
tremors
insomnia

119

S/s of alcohol withdrawal may begin as early as _____ after the last alcohol intake or be delayed as long as _______ days.

8 hours
7-10

120

Thorazine =

chlorpromazine

121

The nurse shouldn't administer chlorpromazine (Thorazine) to a client who has ingested _________ because it may cause oversedation and _____________.

alcohol
respiratory distress

122

When mean arterial pressure falls below ______ and systolic blood pressure drops below ________, vital organ perfusion is seriously compromised.

60 mmHg
80 mmHg

123

Lidocaine =

Xylocaine

124

Lidocaine is the drug of choice for reducing ____________________.

premature ventricular contractions

125

Lithium toxicity can occur when sodium and fluid intake are insufficient, causing:

lithium retention

126

_______________ is artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes.

Amniotomy

127

An alcoholic who achieves sobriety is called a _________________ because there's no cure for alcoholism.

recovering alcoholic

128

A client is at greatest risk of dying during the first _________ after a myocardial infarction.

24-48

129

During a myocardial infarction, the _____ ventricle usually sustains the greatest damage.

left

130

The pain of a myocardial infarction results from myocardial ischemia cause by:

anoxia.

131

An oral ________________ solution should be given after meals and client should swish the drug in his mouth.

nystatin (Mycostatin)

132

_____________ is more likely to affect a full-term infant than a premature infant because of the slow growth of the full-term infant and the initial decreased amount of nutritional intake.

Pyloric stenosis

133

For a client who has heart failure or cardiogenic pulmonary edema, nursing interventions focus on:

decreasing venous return to the heart and increasing left ventricular output.

134

The interventions to decrease venous return and increase left ventricular output included:

placing client in high Fowler's
administering oxygen
diuretics
positive inotropic drugs

135

A positive tuberculin skin test is an induration of _______ or greater at the injection site.

10mm

136

The s/s of ________________, a chronic systemic fungal infection, resemble those of tuberculosis.

histoplasmosis

137

Fluid oscillation in the tubing of a chest drainage system indicates that the system is

working properly

138

In burn victims, the leading cause of death is _______________. The second leading cause is __________.

respiratory compromise
infection

139

The exocrine function of the pancreas is the secretion of enzymes used to digest:

carbohydrates, fats and proteins

140

A client with hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis) should consume a diet that's moderately high in fat and high in _____________ and __________, and should eat the largest meal in the ____________.

carbohydrates and protein
morning

141

The nurse should place a client who has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in

semi-Fowler's position

142

Esophageal balloon tamponade shouldn't be inflated

> 20 mm Hg

143

Overproduction of ____________ by the pituitary gland can cause galactorrhea and amenorrhea.

prolactin

144

Intermittent claudication is a classic symptom of _________________ in the leg.

Arterial insufficiency

145

During pregnancy, weight gain averages

25-30 lbs (11 - 13.5 kg)

146

In ________________, the most common finding is gross, painless, hematuria.

bladder carcinoma

147

The nurse can elicit _______________ by occluding the brachial or radial artery.

Trousseau's sign

148

Hand and finger spasms that occur during occlusion of the brachial or radial artery indicate Trousseau's sign and suggest:

hypocalcemia

149

Trousseau's sign can also be elicited by inflating a BP cuff 20 mmHg above the client's systolic pressure for:

2 minutes

150

Parenteral administration of heparin sodium is contraindicated in clients with:

renal or liver disease
GI bleeding
recent surgery or trauma
pregnant clients
women >60

151

Drugs that potentiate the effects of anticoagulants include:

aspirin
chloral hydrate
glucagon
anabolic steroids
chloramphenicol

152

According to Erikson, the school-age child (ages 6-12) is in the _____________________ stage of psychosocial development.

industry-versus-inferiority

153

For a burn patient, care priorities include:

maintaining a patent airway
preventing or correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalance
controlling pain
preventing infection

154

Elastic stockings should be worn on both legs and should only be removed for:

skin care

155

________________ is the formation of antibodies within the body in response to vaccination or exposure to disease. The length of immunity is longer than that of passive immunity.

Active immunity

156

_________________ is administration of antibodies that were preformed outside the body.

Passive immunization

157

Chickenpox causes a rash that has four stages:

macules
papules
vesicles
crusts

158

Chickenpox lesions of various stages occur ______________ during the illness.

simultaneously

159

A child with chickenpox can return to school after all the lesions have:

crusted

160

______________ has a teratogenic effect on the fetus during the first trimester. It produces abnormalities in up to 40% of cases without interrupting the pregnancy.

Rubella

161

To calculate a pediatric dose using ______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child's weight in pounds and divide the result by 150.

Clark's rule

162

To calculate a pediatric dose using _______________, the nurse should multiply the adult dose by the child's age in years and divide the result by the sum of the child's age plus 12.

Young's rule

163

A client who's receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) shouldn't receive a ___________ preparation because of the increased risk of ________________. Concomitant use may affect cardiac contractility and lead to arrhythmias.

calcium
digoxin toxicity

164

For blood transfusion in an adult, the appropriate needle size is

16 to 20 gauge

165

_____________________ is inflation of the lung during inspiration with compressed air or oxygen. The goal of this therapy is to keep the lung open.

Intermittent positive-pressure breathing

166

To prevent infection in clients with sickle cell anemia, penicillin prophylaxis is started at age

2 months

167

___________ is caused by paralysis of the extensor muscles in the forearm and hand.

Wristdrop

168

_____________ results from excessive plantar flexion and is usually a complication of prolonged bed rest.

Footdrop

169

The goal of diet therapy for a client with _______________ is to achieve normal body weight and to maintain it.

diabetes mellitus

170

______________ is pain that incapacitates a client and can't be relieved by drugs or conventional therapies.

Intractable pain

171

In clients who have glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, the RBC's can't metabolize adequate amounts of glucose, and _________ occurs.

hemolysis

172

The unit measurement of sound is

decibel

173

On-call medication is medication that should be ready for immediate administration when the call to administer it is received. It should be administered within _____ minutes of receiving the call.

5

174

If gagging, nausea, or vomiting occurs when an airway is removed, the nurse should place the client in a lateral position with the upper arm:

supported on a pillow

175

Emancipated minors are individuals younger than the age of majority who aren't under parental control, such as:

married minors
those who serve in the military
college students who live away from home

176

___________ consent is required for any invasive procedure.

Informed

177

A client who can't write his name to give consent for treatment must make an ________ in the presence of two witnesses, such as a nurse, priest, or physician.

X

178

When a postoperative client arrives in the recovery room, the nurse should position the client on his ______ or with his head turned to the _______ and the chin extended if he can't be placed on his side.

side; side

179

In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse should report a:

RR > 30
temp > 100 or

180

Immunity to rubella can be measured by a ___________________. This test identifies exposure to rubella infection and determines susceptibility in pregnant women. A titer _______ indicates immunity.

hemagglutination inhibition test (rubella titer)
1:8

181

When used to describe the degree of fetal descent during labor, _____________ means the presenting part isn't engaged in the pelvic inlet, but is freely movable (ballotable) above the pelvic inlet.

floating

182

Irreversible brain damage may occur if the central nervous system is deprived of oxygen for more than

4 minutes

183

When used to describe the degree of fetal descent, _____________ occurs when the largest diameter of the presenting part has passed through the pelvic inlet.

engagement

184

The _______________ I.M. injection technique seals the drug deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin irritation and staining. It requires a needle that's _____ or longer. The needle used to draw up the drug shouldn't be the one used to inject it.

Z-track
1"

185

Fetal station indicates the location of the presenting part in relation to the _____________. It's described as -1, -2, -3, -4, -5 to indicate the number of centimeters above the level. Station -5 is at the _________________.

ischial spine
pelvic inlet

186

Station 0 is at the level of the :

ischial spine

187

Fetal station +1, +2, +3, +4, +5 indicates the number of centimeters it is below the:

ischial spine

188

During the first stage of labor, the _____________ position usually provides the greatest degree of comfort., although the client may assume any comfortable position.

side-lying

189

During delivery, if the umbilical cord can't be loosened and slipped from around the neonate's neck, it should be:

clamped with two clamps and cut between the clamps
prepare to ventilate neonate during birth

190

An APGAR score of ________ indicates no immediate distress.

7-10

191

An APGAR score of ________ indicates moderate distress.

4-6

192

An APGAR score of ________ indicates severe distress.

0-3

193

Treatment for polycythemia vera includes______________ to suppress bone marrow growth:

administering oxygen
radioisotope therapy
chemotherapy agents (chlorambucil & nitrogen mustard)

194

A client with acute renal failure should receive a __________ calorie diet that's low in _________, __________, and ___________.

high
protein
potassium
sodium

195

Addison's disease is caused by hypofunction of the adrenal gland and is characterized by:

fatigue
anemia
weight loss
bronze skin pigmentation

196

Without _____________ therapy, Addison's disease is usually fatal.

cortisol replacement

197

The RACE acronym stand for:

R - remove the client
A - activate the alarm
C - contain the fire by closing the door
E - extinguish the fire if it can be done safely

198

When caring for a depressed client, the nurse's first priority is ____________ because of the increased risk of suicide.

safety

199

Glaucoma is managed conservatively with beta-adrenergic blockers such as timolol (Timoptic), which decrease ____________ sympathetic impulses to the eye, and with miotic eyedrops such as pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine), which ___________ the pupils.

sympathetic impulses
constrict

200

Miotics effectively treat glaucoma by reducing ____________. They do this by:

intraocular pressure;
constricting the pupil
contracting the ciliary muscles
opening the anterior chamber angle
increasing the outflow of aqueous humor