General ID AB Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

What is the incubation period of P. falciparum?

A

7-28 days

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2
Q

What are the features on blood film of P falciparum?

A

Multiple infected RBC
No enlargement of RBC
Crescent-shaped gametocytes
Ring-forms (chromatin)

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3
Q

What are the features on blood film of P vivax?

A

Few infected RBC
Swollen infected RBC
Fine eosinophilic dots (Schuffner’s dotsS)
Round/oval gametocytes

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4
Q

Give an example of the genetic basis of drug resistance in malaria.

A

Mefloquine & lumefantrine
- Pfmdr1 gene

Chloroquine

  • Pfmdr1 gene
  • Pfctr transporter
  • K76T

Antifolate drugs
- point mutations in DHFR and DHTS

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5
Q

Give two common effects of malaria in pregnancy

A

Spontaneous abortions

IUGR

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6
Q

What are the severe manifestations of malaria?

A
Unable to tolerate oral intake
Altered consciousness
>5% parasitaemia
Jaundice
Oligura
Hypoglycaemia
Severe anaemia
Acidosis 
ARDS
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7
Q

How long from illness onset does severe disease manifest?

A

3-7 days after illness onset

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8
Q

What is the mortality rate of severe malaria?

A

15-25%

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9
Q

What findings may you see on CBE in malaria?

A

Haemolytic anaemia
WCC normal/low
- No eosinophilia
Thrombocytopaenia (95%)

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10
Q

What is the management of severe P. falciparum?

A

IV Artesunate

IV quinine second line

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11
Q

What are some adverse drug reactions of IV Artesunate?

A

Cerebellar ataxia
Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea
ALT elevation

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12
Q

What comorbidity do you need to exclude prior to commencing quinine therapy?

A

G6PD deficiency (haemolysis)

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13
Q

How do you treat uncomplicated P falciparum?

A

First line: Artemether-Lumefantrine (Riamet)
- >95% cure rate in P falciparum

Second line: atovaquone-proguanil (Malarone)
- Slower parasite clearance

Third line: quinine + doxy/clindamycin

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14
Q

How do you treat P vivax/malariae/ovale?

A

Chloroquine

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15
Q

What are the options for chemoprophylaxis in malaria?

A

Chloroquine
- 1 week prior to 4 weeks after

Atovaquone + proguanil (malarone)
- 1-2 days prior, 7 days after

Doxycycline

  • 2 days prior to 4 weeks after
  • Can use in Mefloquine-resistant malaria (SEA)
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16
Q

What are the contraindications for Mefloquine?

A

Neuropsychiatric disorders
Epilepsy
Cardiac conduction defects

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17
Q

How do you treat Amoebiasis?

A

Metronidazole

Paromomycin or diloxanide fuorate (prevents continued luminal infection)

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18
Q

What family of viruses does Ebola belong to?

A

Filovirus family

Zaire - current outbreak

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19
Q

What is Ebola’s incubation period?

A

11 days (6-12)

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20
Q

How to you test for Ebola?

A

Viral PCR

- positive 1 day prior to symptoms

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21
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ebola?

A
  1. Binds to surface receptors
  2. Internalised by macropinocytosis
  3. Moved to Endosomal compartments
  4. Viral GP2 interacts with NPC1
  5. Fusion of viral and endosomal membrane
  6. Viral nucleocapsid released into cytoplasm
  7. Genome is replicated
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22
Q

What is the incubation period of Influenza?

A

1-3 days

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23
Q

Antigenic shift - what does this cause in a population?

A

Pandemic

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24
Q

Antigenic drift - what does this cause in a population?

A

Annual epidemic

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25
What are some extra-pulmonary sequelae of influenza?
``` Myositis GBS Encephalitis Reye syndrome - mostly influenza B + aspirin ```
26
Meningococcal meningitis - what is the treatment?
IV Benpen 1.8g 4 hourly (short course) Cipro if type 1 penicillin hypersensitivity
27
Meningococcal meningitis - what is the mortality?
7% (on treatment)
28
N meningitidis - what is the microbiology?
Gram negative diplococci | neiserria = negative
29
Meningococcal meningitis - what is the incubation period?
2-10 days
30
Pneumococcal meningitis - what is the treatment?
Empiric - Ceph + Vanc
31
L monocytogenes meningitis - what is the incubation?
Long - up to 6 weeks
32
L monocytogenes meningitis - what is the treatment?
Benpen (resistant to Ceph) | Resistant: TMP/SMX
33
Cryptococcal meningitis - what is the treatment?
Induction: Amphoterecin B + Flucytosine Consolidation: Fluconazole Minimum 10 weeks therapy
34
Hib meningitis - what is the treatment?
Ceftriaxone for 7 days | + Benpen for 7 days if susceptible
35
Steroids - what is the proven efficacy in meningitis?
Hib - hearing loss in children S pneumo - mortality benefit No benefit in meningococcal.
36
Diffuse erythematous rash - what are some infective causes?
``` Scarlet fever (strep) Toxic shock syndrome (staph or strep) Staph scalded skin syndrome Dengue Enterovirus ```
37
Purpuric rash - what are some infective causes?
``` Meningococcus Gonococcus Staph sepsis Dengue HBV Enterovirus Rickettsial infection ```
38
Cellulitis - what are the associated exposures with: - Dog/cat bite - Fresh water - Sea water - Immunocompromised - Shell fish - Other water exposure
- Dog/cat bite - pasturella - Fresh water - aeromonas (esp males with cirrosis/cancer) - Sea water - vibrio - Immunocompromised - clostridia - Shell fish - erisepelothrix - Other water exposure - mycobacterium marinum
39
Necrotising fasciitis - what is empiric therapy?
Meropenem Penicillin Clindamycin
40
Hyposplenism - name some causes
``` Haematologic disorders - CLL, sickle cell, lymphoma Splenic irradiation high dose steroids Coeliac disease Bone marrow transplant - Especially if GvHD ```
41
Name 4 encapsulated organisms
St pneumoniae N meningitidis H influenzae Capnocytophaga carimorus
42
Toxoplasmosis - what is the treatment?
Pyrimethamine/folinic acid and sulfadiazine or clindamycinc
43
Zygomycosis - what is the treatment?
Debridement and amphotericin (lipid formulations)
44
Varicella - what is the incubation period?
10-21 days
45
Schistosomiasis - which organism infects the urinary tract?
S haematobium
46
Schistosomiasis - which organisms infect the bowel?
S masonii, S japonicum, S intercalatum
47
Schistosomiasis - what is the typical clinical picture?
Days: pruritic rash Weeks later: febrile illness Months/years later: fibrotic response in urinary tract or gut Chronic infection: colitis, portal HT, urolithiasis, SCC bladder
48
Schistosomiasis - what is the management?
Praziquantel
49
Ascariasis - what sort of organism?
Helminthic (most common human)
50
Ascariasis - what is the management?
Mebendazole, pyrantel pamoate
51
Melioidosis - what is the organism?
Burkholderia pseudomallei
52
Melioidosis - what are the risk factors for infection?
DM | EtOH
53
Melioidosis - what are the clinical manifestations?
``` Pneumonia Abscesses (spleen, prostate) Osteomyelitis, septic arthritis Skin and soft tissue infection High mortality if sepsis ```
54
Melioidosis - what is the management?
Ceftazadime, Carbapenem | GCSF in sepsis
55
H pylori and gastric adenocarcinoma - which molecules/genes are involved?
``` CagA gene Vacuolating cytotoxin (vacA) ```
56
HPV - which strains are most likely to cause cervical cancer?
16 and 18
57
EBV and Burkitt's lymphoma - which chromosome is affected?
Chromosome 8 translocation - deregulation of c-MYC oncogene
58
EBV - what are the associated malignancies?
Burkitt's lymphoma Hodgkin's lymphoma NHL in immunocompromised Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
59
HHV-8 - what are the associated malignancies?
Kaposi sarcoma Primary effusion lymphoma Multi-centric Castleman's disease
60
Schistosomiasis - what is the associated malignancy?
SCC of the bladder
61
What is the Jarish-Herxheimer reaction?
Fever and transient exacerbation of constitutional symptoms from sudden release of bacterial products from injured or killed bacteria Seen with tertiary syphilis, brucellosis, enteric fever, schistosomiasis.