HIV prophylaxis and treatment AB Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

Pre-exposure prophylaxis - what is the NNT?

A

NNT 13-18

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2
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis - what is the treatment for low risk?

A

2 NRTI

i.e. Emtricitabine + Tenofovir

or

Lamivudine + Zidovudine

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3
Q

PEP for higher risk?

A

Same as for low risk - 2 NRTI (e.g. Lamivudine + Zidovudine)

PLUS

Raltegravir

Or

Lopinavir + Ritonavir

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4
Q

What is the primary prophylaxis for PCP?

A

Bactrim DS 1 daily

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5
Q

What is the primary prophylaxis for CNS toxoplasma?

A

Bactrim DS 1 daily

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6
Q

What drug is indicated for primary prophylaxis when CD4

A

Azithromycin 1g weekly

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7
Q

When can you cease Bactrim DS as prophylaxis for PCP, CNS toxo, cryptococcus?

A

Once CD4 >200 for 3-6 months, completed induction therapy and asymptomatic

i.e. double the CD4 count you’d be most likely to get the infection at

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8
Q

When can you cease Azithromycin as MAC prophylaxis?

A

CD4 >100 for 3-6 months, completed 12 months of treatment for MAC and asymptomatic

i.e. double the CD4 count you’d be most likely to get the infection at

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9
Q

When can you cease prophylaxis for CMV retinitis?

A

CD4 >100-150 for 6 months

i.e. double (or more) the CD4 count you’d be most likely to get the infection at

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10
Q

Give examples of nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A

Abacavir
Emtricidabine
Lamivudine
Zidovudine

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11
Q

What is a common adverse effect of NRTI?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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12
Q

Given an example of a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

A

Efavirenz
Etravirine
Nevirapine

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13
Q

What are common adverse effects of NNRTI?

A

P450 enzyme inducers

Rash

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14
Q

Give examples of protease inhibitors?

A

-navir

Ritonavir, Atazanavir

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15
Q

What are common adverse effects of protease inhibitors?

A

Ritonavir: CYP3A4 inhibitor, p-glycoprotein inhibitor

General: DM, hyperlipidaemia, buffalo hump, central obesity

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16
Q

What are two types of entry inhibitors?

A

Fusion inhibitors - Enfuvirtide

CCR5 inhibitors - Maraviroc

17
Q

Give an example of an integrase inhibitor

A
  • gravir

Raltegravir, Dolutegravir

18
Q

What HLA is associated with Abacavir hypersensitivity?

19
Q

Which ARV may cause Fanconi syndrome?

20
Q

Which drug doubles the risk of AMI?

21
Q

Which drug is associated with CNS toxicity with vivid dreams and sleep change?

22
Q

Which drugs are most strongly associated with lipodystrophy

A

Older retrovirals (NRTI)

23
Q

Which drugs are associated with hyperbilirubinaemia and renal stones?

A

Atazanavir (PI)

Indinavir (PI)

24
Q

Which drugs are contraindicated with the use of Ritonavir?

A

Cisapride - QTc prolongation
Simvastatin - rhabdomyolysis
Midazolam - prolonged sedation

25
Which ART inhibits CYP 3A4?
Protease inhibitors - especially Ritonavir
26
Which ART induces CYP 3A4
NNRTI (e.g. Nevirapine)
27
Which drugs have little or no p450 activity?
Integrase inhibitors (e.g. Raltegravir)
28
Which drug may methadone interact with?
Methadone is metabolised by 3A4 Nevirapine results in methadone withdrawal Cessation of Nevirapine - potential for overdose
29
Which drug do PPIs reduce the absorption of?
Atazanavir (protease inhibitor)
30
Which ART cause hepatotoxicity?
Nevirapine (NNRTI) | Protease inhibitors
31
Which are the preffered ART drugs to use in pregnancy?
Zidovudine Lamivudine Lopinavir/Ritonavir
32
Which ART should you use intrapartum if pre-delivery maternal viral suppression inadequate/unknown or late presentation?
Zidovudine
33
How effective is ART at reducing the risk of HIV transmission in pregnancy?
Risk reduced from 25% to
34
When should you deliver with C-section in HIV?
Consider if maternal viral load >50 at 36 weeks | Recommended if viral load >400
35
When should you start neonatal ART?
As soon as possible after birth (6-12 hours) and continue for 4 weeks
36
Is breastfeeding advised in pregnancy?
No; avoid breastfeeding