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NASM CPT- Bec > General information > Flashcards

General information Flashcards

1
Q

TEE (TDEE)

A

Total daily energy expenditure. Sum of RMR, TEF, and Energy expended during physical activity.

  • Weight X 10= RMR
  • RMR X Activity Factor = TEE
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2
Q

RMR

A

Resting Metabolic Rate- Amnt. of energy expended while at rest. 70% of total daily energy expenditure in sedentary person.

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3
Q

TEF- Thermic Effect of Food

A

Thermic Effect of Food- Rise in metabolic rate after food is ingested. Amount of energy expended above RMR to process food. 6-10% of total daily expenditure. 3% of calories in fat are needed to store it as fat. It takes 23% of calories from carbs to convert it to fat…so it is metabolically inexpensive to store fat.

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4
Q

BMR

A

Basal Metabolic Rate- Same as RMR but after patient spends night in metabolic chamber.

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5
Q

FFM

A

Fat free mass-

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6
Q

of Amino acids used to build proteins

A

20

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7
Q

Essential amino acids

A

Can’t be made in the body: Isoleucine, Leusine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine.

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8
Q

Nonessential amino acids

A

Made by the body: Alanine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, Cysteine, Glutamic acid, Glutamine, Glycine, Proline, Serine, Tyrosine.

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9
Q

What happens to proteins in the stomach

A

protein strand is opened into peptide chans

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10
Q

What happens to proteins in the Small intestines

A

further split peptide chains into tripeptides, dipeptides and amino acids.

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11
Q

What happens to proteins in the small intestine’s lining

A

tripeptides and dipeptides are split into amino acids and absorbed thru intestinal wall and released into blood supply to liver.

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12
Q

Complete protein

A

All essential amino acids are present in appropriate ratios

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13
Q

incomplete protein

A

a food source that’s low in one or more essential amino acid.

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14
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

When amino acids are used to assist in energy production during a negative energy balance.

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15
Q

Protein intake recommendations

A

Sedentary 0.8g per kg body weight per day
Strength 1.2-1.7
Endurance 1.2-1.4
10-35%

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16
Q

How many cal does 1 gram of protein yield

A

4 calories

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17
Q

Glycemic index

A

Rate at which ingested carbs raise blood sugar and it’s effect on insulin release. Lower on GI scale are good sources of complex carbs, and high in fiber and nutrition.

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18
Q

Glycemic index ratings High
Medium
Low

A

70 or greater
56-69
55 or less

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19
Q

Recommended fiber intake Men and women

A

Men 38g/day. Women 25g/day

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20
Q

Carbohydrate intake recommendations

A

6-10g/kg per day (2.7-4.5 g/lb). 45-65% of caloric intake

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21
Q

Carb loading recommendations 6 days from competition, 4-6 days, and 1-3 days.

A

4-6 days: 4 g/kg of body weight

1-3 days: 10 g/kg of body weight

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22
Q

Post exercise carb recommendations

A

1.5g/kg within 30 min. Then again every 2 hours.

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23
Q

How many cal does 1 gram of carbs yield

A

4 calories

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24
Q

Recommended fiber intake

A

25-38g

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25
Q

If exercising more than 60 min. what should carb intake be

A

30-60g of carbs per hour.

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26
Q

Cholesterol…LDL and HDL

A

LDL is bad (low-density lipoproteins)- keep it lower

HDL is good (high-density lipoproteins)- keep higher

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27
Q

How many calories does a gram of fat yield

A

9 calories

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28
Q

What vitamins does fat act as a carrier for

A

A,D, E, and K

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29
Q

Recommended fat intake for normal adult and athletes

A

20-35% of caloric intake.

Athletes, 20-25% but not less than 15%

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30
Q

CCK

A

a hormone that signals satiety that dietary fats stimulate the release of.

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31
Q

hyperphagia

A

overeating

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32
Q

Metabolic syndrome

A

cluster of symptoms characterized by obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, and dyslipidemia, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. (Associated with obesity, high-fat diet, and sedentary lifestyle)

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33
Q

Recommended daily water intake

A

Sedentary men 3.0L
Sedentary Women 2.2L
For weight loss drink an additional 8 oz. for every 25 lbs. overweight.

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34
Q

How much water to consume 2 hours before exercise

A

14-22 oz

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35
Q

How much water to consume during exercise

A

6-12 oz. every 15-20 min.

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36
Q

How much water to consume after exercise

A

16-24 oz for every pound of weight lost.

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37
Q

Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)

A

Good guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient. Designed to estimate the nutrient needs of healthy people in various age groups and of both sexes.

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38
Q

Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

A

The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.

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39
Q

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

A

The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.

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40
Q

Adequate intake (AI)

A

Recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group, or groups of healthy people. This measure is used when RDA cannot be determined.

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41
Q

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

A

The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above the UL, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases.

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42
Q

Safe upper levels (SUL) and guidance levels

A

Safe upper levels set by the ‘Expert Group on Vitamins and Minerals’ in the UK which sets levels that an individual could safely use on a permanent basis. If SUL isn’t available, a guidance level is used.

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43
Q

Nutrients with greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements

A

Vit A,D, Iron, and Zinc

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44
Q

Ergogenic

A

Work generating…Ergogenic aid enhances athletic performance.

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45
Q

5 Stages of change

A

Precontemplation- Not thinking about starting
Contemplation- Thinking about starting in next 6 mo.
Preparation- Exercise occasionally but want to become regular in the next MONTH.
Action- Exercise regularly but haven’t yet maintained for 6 months
Maintenance- Have maintained for at least 6 mo.

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46
Q

SMART goals

A 
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely
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47
Q

Two types of goals

A

Process and Product

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48
Q

Social facilitation

A

When people increase their effort and performance when others are watching them.

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49
Q

Directive question

A

Closed-ended..can be answered with one word.

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50
Q

Non-directive question

A

Open-ended…allow client to give more info (not just a yes or no answer). Invite discussion.

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51
Q

Reflection

A

Repeating the meaning of what the client just said

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52
Q

Summaries

A

A series of reflections. Draws all the important points of a conversation together.

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53
Q

Affirmations

A

Communicates an appreciation of clients for who they are. Usually starts with ‘you’ instead of ‘I’ (in a complement)

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54
Q

Kinds of support

A

Instrumental- Tangible, ie transportation, babysitter.
Emotional- encouragement, caring, empathy.
Informational- directions, advice, and suggestions
Companionship- family, friends, & co-workers

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55
Q

Behavioral reactants

A

When pressured (ie by family) or made to feel guilty they may respond by exercising less.

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56
Q

Common barriers to exercise

A 
Time
Unrealistic goals
Lack of social support
Social physique anxiety
Convenience
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57
Q

Self-Management

A

individuals managing their own behaviors, thoughts, and emotions.

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58
Q

Self-monitoring

A

keeping track of one’s progress. Ie, an exercise log.

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59
Q

Behavioral Strategies

A

Aim to change a client’s behaviors and actions to improve exercise adherence and maintain a physically active lifestyle (self-management, goal setting, self-monitoring)

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60
Q

Cognitive Strategies

A

Aim to change a client’s thoughts and attitudes toward exercise and physical activity (positive self-talk, psyching up, and imagery)

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61
Q

The four P’s of marketing

A

Activities a pt can control to produce the response he or she wants from a target market:
Product- specific service offered
Price- amount charged
Place- channels the product goes through to reach the customer
Promotion- communication of info about a service with goal of generating positive customer response.

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62
Q

Percentage of death in the U.S. caused by cardiovascular disease and cancer

A

57%

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63
Q

Percentage of Diabetics that are type 2

A

90-95%

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64
Q

neurons that transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord

A

Sensory

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65
Q

Specialized receptors that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue brought about through stretch, compression, traction or tension

A

Mechanoreceptors

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66
Q

Difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Muscle fibers

A

Type 1: Slow twitch- large number of capillaries and mitochondria, and myoglobin. Smaller in size, slower to produce maximal tension, less force produced, slower to fatigue…Long-term contractions (stabilization)
Type 2: Fast twitch- fewer capillaries, etc, low oxidative capacity. Larger in size, more force produced, quick to fatigue…short-term contractions (force and power)

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67
Q

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

A

Stroke volume

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68
Q

Pacemaker of the heart

A

Sinoatrial Node

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69
Q

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called

A

Gluconeogenesis

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70
Q

Storage form of carbs

A

Glycogen

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71
Q

What is the first step of the oxidation of fat

A

Beta oxidation

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72
Q

Which metabolic pathway produces the most ATP

A

Oxidative phosphorylization

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73
Q

What does an RQ of .7 indicate

A

Fat supplies 100% of the fuel for metabolism

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74
Q

What does an RQ of 1.00 indicate

A

Carbs supply 100% of the fuel for metabolism

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75
Q

The anaerobic means of producing ATP through the chemical breakdown of glucose is called

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

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76
Q

Before glucose of or glycogen can generate energy, it must be converted to a compound called

A

Glucose-6-phosphate

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77
Q

What is a first class lever and example

A

Fulcrum in the middle- Nodding head

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78
Q

What is a second class lever and example

A

Resistance in the middle- calf raise

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79
Q

What is a third class lever and example

A

Effort in the middle- bicep curl (most limbs)

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80
Q

Relative intensity of %V02R or %HRR- Light, Mod, Hard

A

Light- 20-39, Mod- 40-59, Hard 60-84

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81
Q

Relative intensity of %HRmax- Light, Mod, Hard

A

Light- 35-54, Mod- 55-69, Hard- 70-89

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82
Q

Relative intensity of RPE (6-20 scale)- Light, Mod, Hard

A

Light- 10-11, Mod- 12-13, Hard- 14-16

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83
Q

The stabilization system that is predominantly responsible for stabilization and joint support

A

Movement system

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84
Q

Plyometric training is also known as

A

Reactive training

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85
Q

Is a box jump down with stab. a progression or regression of the box jump up with stab.

A

Progression

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86
Q

The integrated performance paradigm states that…

A

to move with precision, forces must be loaded (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then unloaded or accelerated (concentrically)

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87
Q

What is the amortization phase

A

the time between the end of the eccentric muscle action and the initiation of the concentric contraction.

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88
Q

Closed-chain exercise

A

Hands or feet are in a constant fixed position and force applied by individual is not great enough to overcome the resistance. Ie Push-ups, pull-ups, squats.

89
Q

Open-chain exercise

A

Hands or feet are not in a fixed position and force applied by the body is great enough to overcome the resistance (barbells or dumbbells). Ie bench press, lat pulldown, and machine leg extension.

90
Q

Hypertension is defined as BP greater than

A

140/90

91
Q

What two factors contribute to children having less tolerance for temperature extremes, especially when exercising

A

Higher submaximal oxygen demand, lower sweating rate

92
Q

What year was first gym opened and by whom

A

1936, Jack Lalanne- Oakland, CA

93
Q

How much is spent annually on treating chronic illness

A

1.7 trillion

94
Q

Costs of cardiovascular disease annually

A

503.2 billion

95
Q

How many Americans have cholesterol levels above 200 mg/dL?

A

More than 50%

96
Q

What do myofibrils contain?

A

Myofilaments, the contractile components of muscle tissue- Actin (thin filaments), and Myosin (thick filaments)

97
Q

What is the functional unit of a muscle and what is it made of

A

Sarcomere, repeating sections of Actin and Myosin within a myofibril

98
Q

What are the subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system

A

Autonomic (fight or flight), and Somatic (rest/relax)

99
Q

What is HR X Stroke volume

A

Cardiac output

100
Q

The amnt. of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction is

A

Stroke volume

101
Q

What type of information is gathered from the clients that you can’t measure

A

subjective

102
Q

type of info you gather from a client that can be measured

A

objective

103
Q

Level of daily intake nutrient level that is based on observed approximations and used when RDA can’t be determined

A

Adequate Intake

104
Q

Overactive muscles if feet turn out

A

Soleus, Lateral gastrocs, Biceps femoris (Short head)

105
Q

Underactive muscles if feet turn out

A

Medial gastrocs, medial hamstrings, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus

106
Q

Overactive muscles if knees move in (valgus)

A

Adductors, biceps femoris (short head), TFL, Vastus lateralis

107
Q

Underactive muscles if knees move in (valgus)

A

Glutes med/max, Vastus medialis oblique

108
Q

Overactive muscles with excessive forward lean

A

Soleus, gastrocs, hip flexors, abdominal complex

109
Q

Underactive muscles with excessive forward lean

A

Anterior tibialis, Gluteus max, erector spinae

110
Q

Overactive muscles if low back arches

A

Hip flexors, erector spinae, lats

111
Q

Underactive muscles if low back arches

A

Gluteus max, hamstrings, intrinsic core stabilizers

112
Q

Overactive muscles if arms fall forward

A

Lats, Teres major, pecs

113
Q

Underactive muscles if arms fall forward

A

Mid/lower traps, Rhomboids, rotator cuff

114
Q

Overactive muscles if shoulders elevate (push/pull assessment)

A

Upper traps, sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

115
Q

Underactive muscles if shoulders elevate (push/pull assessment)

A

Mid/lower traps

116
Q

Overactive muscles if head protrudes fwd (push/pull assessment)

A

Upper traps, Sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

117
Q

Underactive muscles if head protrudes fwd (push/pull assessment)

A

Deep cervical flexors

118
Q

When were women’s ‘figure salons’ popular

A

1960-1970

119
Q

When did joining a health club become more socially acceptable

A

1970-1980

120
Q

When were health clubs male dominated

A

1950-1960

121
Q

What is the formula for BMI

A

weight (kg)/ height2 (m2)

122
Q

What are the 2 parts to the nervous system

A

CNS- Brain and spine, PNS- connect CNS to the rest of the body

123
Q

How is the PNS broken down

A

Sensory nerves and Motor nerves.

124
Q

What nervous systems are within the motor nerves

A

Somatic and Autonomic. Autonomic is broken into Sympathetic (fight or flight) and parasympathetic (relax)

125
Q

What are the 5 types of bones

A

long (femur), short (carpals/tarsals), flat (scapula/patella), irregular (vertebrae), and sesamoid (patella)

126
Q

What are the 3 major joint motion types

A

roll, slide, spin

127
Q

What percentage of joints in the body are synovial

A

80%

128
Q

What are the types of synovial joints

A

gliding (carpals), condyloid (finger joints), hinge (elbow), saddle (thumb joint), pivot (radio-ulnar), and ball-and-socket (shoulder)

129
Q

What are ligaments made of

A

Collagen and elastin

130
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the skeletal system

A

Axial- skull, rib cage, vertebral column. Appendicular- upper and lower extremities, shoulder and pelvic girdles

131
Q

What are the movers and stabilizers of our bodies

A

Muscles

132
Q

What is the point at which the motor neuron meets an individual muscle fiber

A

Neuromuscular junction (nerve to muscle)

133
Q

What stimulates the muscle fibers to start a contraction

A

Acetylcholine

134
Q

What states that a sarcomere shortens as a result of the Z lines moving together because the myosin attaches to the actin filaments

A

Sliding filament theory

135
Q

What are the prime movers in a Chest press, overhead press, row, and squat

A

Pecs major
delts
lats
glutes max/ quads

136
Q

What are the synergists in a Chest press, overhead press, row, and squat

A

Anterior deltoid/ triceps
Triceps
Post. deltoid, biceps
Hamstring complex

137
Q

What are the stabilizers in a Chest press, overhead press, row, and squat

A

Rotator cuff
Rotator cuff
Rotator cuff
Transversus abdominis

138
Q

What are the antagonists in a Chest press, overhead press, row, and squat

A

Post. delt
Lats
Pecs major
Psoas

139
Q

What is the endocrine system

A

‘hormone secreting’. A system of glands, hormones, and receptor cells. Regulates bodily functions to stabilize body’s internal environment.

140
Q

What are the primary endocrine glands

A

Hypothalamus (brain), pituitary (brain), thyroid (adam’s apple), and adrenal glands (on kidneys)…(pancreas, ovaries, testes)

141
Q

Which gland is the master gland

A

pituitary

142
Q

What gland regulates rate of metabolism

A

Thyroid

143
Q

What glands secrete corticosteroids and catecholamines, including cortisol and adrenaline

A

Adrenal

144
Q

What gland regulates blood glucose

A

Pancreas

145
Q

What hormones are secreted by the testes and ovaries

A

testosterone and estrogen

146
Q

What does insulin do

A

Binds with receptor cells and makes them more permeable to glucose

147
Q

What does Glucagon do

A

It is released from pancreas and triggers the release of glycogen stores from the liver

148
Q

In what way is cardiac muscle different than skeletal

A

cardiac muscle fibers are shorter and more tightly connected with dark bands called intercalated discs that hold muscle cells together during contraction. Cardiac muscle is involuntary

149
Q

What is the pacemaker for the heart

A

The Sinoatrial node

150
Q

Which side of the heart is Pulmonic and why

A

Right side. It receives blood from the body low in O2

151
Q

Which side of the heart is systemic and why

A

Left side. Pumps blood high in 02 and low in CO2 to the rest of the body

152
Q

What is typical end-diastolic volume (filled volume of the ventricle before contraction) in a heart

A

120 mL of blood

153
Q

What is typical end-systolic volume (residual blood in ventrical after ejection) in a heart

A

50mL of blood

154
Q

What is the stroke volume of a typical heart

A

EDV 120- ESV 50= 70 mL

155
Q

What is cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped per min. HR X SV. Typical is 4.9 L per minute.

156
Q

What does blood consist of

A

cells in plasma
Red- carry oxygen
White- fight infection
Platelets- clotting

157
Q

What are the support mechanisms of blood

A

Transports oxygen, nutrients, waste, hormones, and heat.
Regulates body temp.
Protects body from excessive bleeding and fights sickness

158
Q

Is inspiration active or passive

A

Active- normal and heavy

159
Q

Is expiration active or passive

A

Normal is passive. Heavy is active

160
Q

Structures of respiratory pump

A

bones- sternum, ribs, vertebrae
muscles, inspiration- diaphragm, external intercostals
muscles, expiration- Internal intercostals, abdominals

161
Q

What extra muscles are used for heavy breathing

A

Scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, pec. minor

162
Q

Structures of resp. passageways

A

Conducting airways- Nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, R and L pulmonary bronchi, bronchioles
Respiratory airways- Alveoli, alveolar sacs

163
Q

What is oxygen consumption

A

Use of oxygen by the body

164
Q

What is the Fick equation

A

Calculation of resting oxygen consumption. Equal to 1 MET or 3.5 mL of oxygen per kg of body weight per minute.

165
Q

What is the typical range of V02max

A

11-23 METs

166
Q

What is phosphorylation

A

The process of adding back another phosphate group to ADP

167
Q

How many ATP are needed for 1 cycle of a cross bridge in a muscle contraction

A

2ATP

168
Q

How long can ATP and PC stores supply energy to working muscles for

A

10-15 seconds

169
Q

What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis

A

lactic acid

170
Q

What is the end product of aerobic glycolysis

A

pyruvic acid

171
Q

How long can anaerobic glycolysis supply energy to working muscles for

A

30-50 seconds

172
Q

How much ATP does the complete metabolism of a single glucose molecule produce in the oxidative system

A

35-40ATP

173
Q

What two factors of exercise are inversely related

A

Intensity and duration

174
Q

What is Respiratory Quotient

A

Amount of C02 expired / amnt. of oxygen consumed.

175
Q

Muscles involved in common force-couples: Trunk rotation, Upward rotation of scapula, hip/knee extention during walking/running, plantarflexion, shoulder abduction

A 
Internal/ext. obliques
Upper traps and lower serratus anterior
Glutes max, quads, calves
Gastrocs, peroneus longus, tibialis posterior
Deltoid and rotator cuff
176
Q

Common muscle synergies: Squat, Shoulder press

A

Quads, hamstrings, glutes

Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius

177
Q

What components are involved in a health screening- subjective info. collected from clients

A

PARQ, Health history, Lifestyle, medical history

178
Q

What categories are part of objective info.

A 
Physiological measurements (HR/BP)
Body comp (height, weight, body fat, circ.)
Fitness assessments- Cardio, static posture, movement, and performance assessments
179
Q

What is the Karvonen method

A

method of calculating training intensity based on HR reserve

180
Q

Resting HR for male and female

A

male- 70BPM

female- 75BPM

181
Q

What is blood pressure

A

Pressure of blood against walls of blood vessels after blood is ejected from the heart: systolic (after contraction) / diastolic (pressure while heart is resting.

182
Q

Percent body fat recommendations

A

Men- 15%

Women- 25%

183
Q

What is Durnin-Womersley

A

Body fat percentage calculation chart

184
Q

What is an acceptable BMI range

A

18.6-25

185
Q

What are the HR training zones

A

Zone 1: 65-75%
Zone 2: 76-85%
Zone 3: 86-95%

186
Q

5 kinetic chain checkpoints

A 
Foot and ankle
Knee
LPHC
Shoulders
Head and cervical spine
187
Q

Muscular imbalance is caused by or results in what 3 things

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition or altered length-tension
Synergistic dominance or altered force-couples
Arthrokinetic dysfunction or altered joint motion

188
Q

3 phases of flexibility training within the OPT model

A

Corrective
active
functional

189
Q

What kind of mechanism does SMR use

A

Autogenic inhibition

190
Q

What kind of mechanism does static stretching use

A

Autogenic inhibition, or reciprocal inhibition (flexing opposing muscles)

191
Q

What kind of mechanism does active-isolated stretching use

A

Reciprocal inhibition

192
Q

What kind of mechanism does dynamic stretching use

A

Reciprocal inhibition

193
Q

What are the 5 components of health-related physical fitness

A 
Cardiorespiratory fitness
muscular strength
muscular endurance
flexibility
body composition
194
Q

What are the FITTE factors

A 
Frequency
Intensity
Time 
Type
Enjoyment
195
Q

How much exercise should adults get

A

2 hours and 30 minutes of mod. intensity aerobic, or 1 hour and 15 min. vigorous-intensity per week.

196
Q

In order for an activity to be aerobic it must be..

A

Rhythmic in nature
use large muscle groups
be continuous in nature

197
Q

Muscles in the local stabilization system

A

transverse abdominis, internal obliques, multifidus, pelvic floor, and diaphragm.

198
Q

Muscles in the global stabilization system

A

quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, some internal oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex

199
Q

Muscles in the movement stabilization system

A

latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, and quads

200
Q

What percent of americans have chronic low back pain

A

around 80%

201
Q

What order is the core training program sequence

A

Intervertebral stability
Lumbopelvic stability
Movement efficiency

202
Q

Physiologic adaptive benefits of resistance training

A

Improved CV efficiency
Beneficial hormone and chol. adaptations
increased bone density
increased met. efficiency

203
Q

Physical adaptive benefits of resistance training

A

Increased tissue tensile strength
increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers
decreased body fat

204
Q

Performance adaptive benefits of resistance training

A

Increased nm control (coordination)
increased endurance
increased strength
increased power

205
Q

In resistance training, adaptation is a function of

A

General adaptation syndrome and principle of specificity

206
Q

What are the benefits of high volume (low/mod intensity) training

A

Increased muscle cross-sectional area
improved cholesterol and triglycerides
increased metabolic rate

207
Q

What are the benefits of low volume (high intensity) training

A

increased rate of force production
increased motor unit recruitment
increased motor unit synchronization

208
Q

What are some physiologic differences to keep in mind when working with kids vs. adults

A

V02 peak is similar to adults when adjusted for weight (able to perform endurance tasks well)
Submax oxygen demand is higher for walking/running (more fatigue and heat production)
Glycolitic enzymes are lower (decreased ability to perform 10-90 sec tasks.)
Lower sweating rate (decreased tolerance to heat/humidity)

209
Q

What is peak bone mass

A

Highest amount of bone mass a person can achieve in their lifetime

210
Q

what is considered high, medium, low glycemic index

A

over 70
56-69
under 55

211
Q

Very low carb diets, less than 21%

A

Atkins, Protein power, and ketogenic

212
Q

What 2 vitamins can cause complications for people on blood thinners

A

E and K

213
Q

What 3 vitamins can have serious adverse effects in excess

A

A- birth defects
D- damage of kidneys, heart, and lungs…toxicity.
B6- damage to sensory nerves

214
Q

What 2 minerals can have serious adverse effects in excess

A

Calcium- kidney stones

Iron- interfere with absorption of other minerals, and cause GI irritation.

215
Q

What 3 vitamins are written as IU’s on labels

A

A, D, and E

216
Q

What are 3 concerns of a multivitamin (Shouldn’t be around 100% of DV)

A

Vit A (as retinol)- should be less than 100% DV, or hip fracture and birth defects can happen
Beta carotene- is controversial and contraindicated in smokers
Calcium should be low or in a separate pill

217
Q

Why do some B vitamins (B1, 2, and 12) have no UL

A

Lack of data

218
Q

What are 2 common vitamin/mineral deficiency problems

A 
Iron- affects physical/mental function
B vits (esp. B12)- can lead to dementia in elderly

NASM CPT- Bec (19 decks)

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