General orders Flashcards
1
Q
There is no such designation as Code 2. T or F
A
True
2
Q
Sheriff’s radio cars shall be locked whenever it is left unattended, except during vehicle stops or when ready access to the shotgun, radio or other safety equipment. T or F
A
True
3
Q
PIT not authorized, unless exigency on what type of vehicles
A
Any bus with passengers
Any vehicle laden with hazardous matericals
Motorcycles
mopeds
bicycles or similar vehicles
any vehicle that would pose an unusual hazard
4
Q
patrol vehicls (class 122-) can PIT, the other vehicles are not authorized are:
A
Any K-9 unit
unmarked units
Van or non-patrol rated SUV
4 wheel drive vehicles
5
Q
An officer, either on or off-duty in plain clothes, who wears a firearm which is visible to the public, shall also wear an authorized metal badge, which is plainly visible, adjacent to the firearm 4/04. T or F
A
True
6
Q
Whenever department issued safety equipment is lost, stolen, or damaged, the employee who was issued the equipment shall immediately submit______ to their division commander: 406
A
A) IDC
B)Copy of a Crime Report if appropriate
D) A and B only*
7
Q
If a weapon is lost or stolen, copies of the paperwork will be submitted to the Rangemast 4/06. T or F
A
True
8
Q
Who is responsible for the replacement of badges, name plates, and hat pieces? 4/06
A
B) Administrative Division*
9
Q
Training, Planning, and Research Division will be responsible for the replacement of all other safety equipment 4/06. T or F
A
True
10
Q
All determinations regarding carelessness or negligence shall be made by: 4/06
A
D)Undersheriff**
11
Q
Employees shall be permitted to work up to ______ hours in a 24-hour period, including those hours worked on-duty with the Sheriffs Department: 5/01
A
16
12
Q
There are no restrictions on the number of hours an employee may work on their days off or while on HIL, CTO or vacation 5/01
A
False, still 16 hours in a 24-hour period
13
Q
Citizens shall be transported in county vehicles only when necessary to accomplish a police purpose: 6/01
A
True
14
Q
Off-duty officers shall not be transported in county vehicles except on department business or when authorized by a supervisor: 6/01
A
True
15
Q
Employees who have been assigned county vehicles for overnight retention and who live outside a _____ mile radius must make arrangements for the secure parking of the vehicle inside the limited radius: 601
A
20 miles, additional eight (8) miles (approximately) north of the northern border so as to include all localities as far north as the northern city limits of Yuba City or Marysville, California
16
Q
Drivers and passengers within county vehicles shall utilize seatbelts 6/01
A
True
17
Q
The department shall authorize family death leave with pay for a regular employee, when needed, due to the death of his/her:
A
- parent
- spouse
- registered domestic partner
- child
- child of registered domestic partner
- grandchild
- grandparent
- brother
- brother-in-law
- brother of registered domestic partner
- sister
- sister-in-law
- sister of registered domestic partner
- mother-in-law
- father-in-law
- mother or father of registered domestic partner
- child or close relative who resided with the employee at the time of death
18
Q
The maximum time off for FDL is:
A
40 hours
19
Q
Internal Affairs Works under the direct supervision of the Undersheriff 3/01. T or F
A
True
20
Q
IA can cross all lines of authority in order to get relevant information regarding an investigation 3/01. T or F
A
True
21
Q
a complaint can be referred to outside agencies if there is a conflict of interest 3/01. T or F
A
True
22
Q
during business hours where do complaints get referred 3/01?
A
IA
23
Q
after business hours where do complaints get referred 3/01?
A
C. Watch Commander*
24
Q
complaints are divided into how many categories 3/01
A
2
25
who investigates a category 1 complaint 3/01
IA
26
who investigates a category 2 complaint 3/01
Division Commander*
27
all category 1 complaints should be forwarded to Internal Affairs Within 3/01______
a) 5 days
28
list the types of complaints that fall under category 1 3/01
Force
arrest, discrimination
slur
criminal conduct
professional responsibility
29
list the types of complaints that fall under category 2 3/01
procedure, service, courtesy, conduct
30
investigations should be completed within how many days of receipt of the complaint 3/01
b) 75 days *
31
completed investigations by Internal Affairs shall be forwarded to whom for recommendations 3/01
C) chief deputy and division Commander **
32
The Commander's and Chief's disposition recommendations for the investigation should be completed in? 3/01
c) 15 days**
33
if an investigation is sustained, a proposed notice of discipline shall be served within how many days from the employees notification of the investigation?
30 days
34
what are the different types of dispositions of complaints? 3/01
sustained
not sustained
exonerated
unfounded as frivolous
false complaint
complainant non-cooperative
35
if the investigation discloses insufficient evidence to prove or disprove, clearly, the allegations made, the case is disposed as? 3/01
C) not sustained*
36
if the investigation indicates the act complained did not occur the case is disposed as 3/01
A) unfounded**
37
what is the penal code regarding false complaints of misconduct on an officer? 3/01
PC 148 .6 **
38
how long can Internal Affairs keep a file? 3/01
5 years **
39
who prepares a letter of proposed discipline? 3/01
A) legal affairs**
40
an IDC title "Documented Counseling" placed in an employee's divisional file shall be removed at the employee's request after ______ from the time of issuance, providing there has not been a reoccurrence 3/01
B) 6 months**
41
a written letter of reprimand placed in an employee's IA file and personnel file shall be removed from their divisional file at the employees request and after blank from the time of issuance, providing there has not been a recurrence 3/01
D) two years **
42
a written reprimand may be removed from a divisional personnel file, but must then be sealed in the employees Master personnel file 3/01. T or F
True
43
a suspension without pay must be served consecutively 3/01. T or F
True
44
an employee has the right to work overtime or off duty during a suspension without pay 3/01. T or F
False
45
which three conditions must exist for the conversation to be considered an interrogation 3 / 0 2
-officer is under administrative investigation and
- officer is subject to an interrogation and
-interrogation could lead to punitive action*
46
under exigent circumstances an officer may be verbally ordered to receive a "notice of interrogation" 3 / 0 2
True
47
if an officer is notified of an emergency interrogation how much notice will be provided to secure representation 3 / 0 2
4 hours
48
employees have the right to representation regarding the collection of physical evidence (i.e. blood, breath, urine) 3/02
false
49
Prior to the interrogation, an employee can review the initital complaint? 3/02 T or F
True
50
prior to any interrogation, the individual being interrogated shall be given a copy of 3/02_____
C) administrative admonishment form**
51
Witnesses receive a copy of the administrative admonishment form 3/02. T or F
False
52
who is allowed to tape record any and all interrogations 3/02
- IA
-Witnesses
- suspect officer
53
Witnesses have the right to representation or an attorney 3/02. T or F
False
54
who determines the status (suspect/witness) in an interrogation? 3/02
C) IA investigator conducting the interview
55
witnesses can be interviewed over the telephone 3/02. T or F
True
56
directed reports can be discussed openly with anyone 3/02. T or F
False
57
formal interviews voluntary? 3/02 T or F
False
58
interrogations are applicable only to Department Personnel under investigation for allegations of misconduct which, if found to be true, could lead to punitive or adverse action 3/02
True
59
Department Personnel preparing a directed report do not waive any of their constitutional rights to self-incrimination, nor shall any directed report be used in any subsequent criminal prosecution against the individual who prepares the report 3/02. T or F
True
60
employees are not permitted overtime compensation in preparing directed reports during their off-duty time 3/02. T or F
False
61
directed reports are not to be disclosed to any person or entity other than: 3/02
-ordering supervisor and his supervisor
-Internal Affairs and their supervisor
- employees representative
-all of the above**
62
unless the express consent of the ________ has been obtained, Department Personnel shall not be administratively interrogated by Internal Affairs whom are being investigated by the sheriff's department or any other law enforcement agency for suspected criminal activity
-sheriff
-undersheriff
63
a supervisor and a lieutenant can make recommendations to the commander regarding divisional inquiries 3/03. T or F
True
64
how many days after being served with a proposed notice of discipline does an employee have to request a Skelly hearing? 3/03
B) 10 days**
65
if an employee does request a Skelly hearing, within how many days after the request should the hearing take place? 3/03
D) 30 days***
66
regarding the final order of disciplinary action, an employee can appeal the decision to the Civil Service Commission Within? 3/03
B) 15 days***
67
the complainant of perceived discrimination or sexual harassment is encouraged to talk to the offender in a positive and candid manner 3/05. T or F
True
68
even if you are not the direct recipient of discrimination or sexual harassment, you have a responsibility to address it 3/05. T or F
True
69
complaints of discrimination or sexual harassment are required to directly contact the offender 3/05. T or F
False
70
when filing a complaint of discrimination or sexual harassment you must strictly adhere to the chain of command 3/05. T or F
false
71
a complaint of discrimination and sexual harassment can be made anonymously 3/05. T or F
True
72
who investigates Anonymous complaints of discrimination and sexual harassment? 3/05
B) Fair Employment officer***
73
in addition to, or in place of the departmental complaint procedure, a complainant may bring a complaint directly to 3/05
A) County Office of affirmative action and special employment
B) California Department of Fair Employment and housing
C) United States equal employment opportunity commission
D) all of the above****
74
when the department is notified that a complaint has been made to an outside agency, the Fair Employment officer will initiate an investigation in addition to the Outside Agency 3/05. T or F
True
75
each supervisor and manager who receives a complaint shell without delay, consult the Fair Employment officer regarding the most appropriate manner in which to address the complaint 3/05. T or F
True
76
when an investigation is warranted, it may not be handled at the divisional level 3/05. T or F
False
77
a manager or supervisor who receives a complaint or who acts to correct an observed incident of discrimination or sexual harassment shall prepare a ______to the Fair Employment Officer 3/05
IDC
78
a supervisor or manager who conducts an investigation at the division level shall contact the Fair Employment officer to obtain a case number within ________ following the initiation of such investigation 3/05
c) first business day***
79
information contained in Fair Employment files shall not be used for performance evaluations, transfers or assignments, promotability assessments or other personal purposes 3/05. T or F
True
80
the employee relations officer will be a lieutenant assigned to the administrative division 3/06. T or F
True
81
if an employee is seriously injured or dies, the employee relations officer shall be available to ensure that the employee and their family receive all benefits do as quickly as possible 3/06. T or F
True
82
the employee relations officer will: 3/06
A) assist division commanders and handling formal grievances
B) assist managers with issues regarding significant changes in working conditions
C) assist managers with changes to bargaining agreements
D) track all formal grievances
E) manage the modified duty program
F) coordinated Fitness for Duty examinations and traumatic incident follow up with division commanders
G) all of the above***
83
Hearings conducted prior to the imposition of discipline which (is) are subject to civil service appeal are considered: 3/07
a) Skelly***
84
liberty interest hearings conducted before release from probation or the reserve forces for stigmatizing reasons are considered: 3/07
B) Lubey***
85
hearings conducted prior to imposition of an involuntary reassignment of a peace officer which results in a loss of Merit or specialized pay attached to the position are considered: 3/07
C) White**
86
regarding a Skelly hearing, and employee will have ______ days from the service of the "proposed notice of disciplinary action" to request a hearing, prior to the imposition of the discipline: 3/07
b) 10**
87
regarding all other hearings, the employee will have ______ days from the service of notice of the intended action to request a hearing on that matter from the chief Deputy so designated in that notice: 3/07
a) 5**
88
Continuances of scheduled hearings are disfavored 3/07. T or F
True
89
the hearing officer for Skelly Hearings shall be: 3/07
C) Undersheriff**
90
All other hearings arising under this GO shall be conducted by: 3/07
A) Chief Deputy**
91
The hearings conducted pursuant to the GO are formal evidentiary proceedings: 3/07. T or F
False (all hearings listed in the order are intended to be informal in nature)
92
Witnesses are permitted in the hearings listed in this GO 3/07. T or F
False
93
The Skelly Hearing is the only appeal, which is routinely forwarded to the Sheriff for a final decision: 3/07. T or F
True
94
what is the penal code that gives an officer the authority to use reasonable Force to effect an arrest, prevent Escape, or overcome resistance 2/11
B)835(a)*
95
in situations of self-defense or defense of another, where standard weapons are not available or practical, officers may use any weapon at hand if necessary 2/11. T or F
True
96
when can an officer use Force? 2/11
A) in self-defense or in defense of another
B) to prevent the commission of a public offense
C) to affect a lawful arrest, prevent Escape, or to overcome resistance D) to protect a person from injuring himself
E) to prevent the destruction of evidence
***F) all of the above
97
when may an officer using deadly force 2/11
A) self defense
B) defense of another when there is a reasonable belief that there is imminent danger of death or great bodily injury
C) to effect an arrest, prevent Escape, or recapture an escapee when the officer has PC to believe the suspect has committed or attempted to commit a violent crime involving the threat of death or gbi or may cause death or gbi to an officer or another person should the suspect Escape
***D) all of the above*
98
management and/or supervisory Personnel shall plan and facilitate debriefings for any use-of-force incidents which result in serious bodily injury or death to Citizens, officers or suspects within_____days after the incident 2/11
C) 30*
99
the taser is a less Lethal Weapon used to temporarily incapacitate a dangerous and/or non-compliant individual by discharging an electronic current causing Electro-muscular disruption 2/14. T or F
True
100
the taser weapon may be used by firing to wired probes or by direct "touch stun" contact 2/14. T or F
True
101
to be issed, carry, or use a Taser an officer must: 2/14
A) complete the departmentally approved training course
B) qualify annually with the weapon in a course prescribed by the department rangemaster
E) both A and B*
102
Field Services officers May deploy a taser when it will 2/14
-enhance officer or Public Safety
103
Corrections Services officers shall carry and deploy a taser only upon direction of a supervisor for the duration of a specific incident 2/14. T or F
False
104
a warning should be given before taser deployment when tactically permissible 2/14. T or F
True
105
the taser may be used on individuals who are: 2/14
a) combative or assaultive
b) demonstrating an immediate potential for combative or assaultive behavior
c) in possession of or in close proximity to a weapon
d) demonstrating violent self-destructive behavior
***e) all of the above*
106
An officer who discharges a taser, regardless of whether such discharge resulted in injury, shall? 2/14
A) document such discharge in accordance with section 4 of the use of force policy
B) identify the taser and cartridge by serial number
C) document the use of the taser in the watch summary or facility log book
D) take, or request CSI to take photographs of injuries or lack of injury
E) book the expanded cartridge into evidence
*** F) all of the above
106
deployment of the taser should be avoided on? 2/14
A) pregnant women
B) elderly person's
C) children
D) individuals with known health problems
***E) all of the above***
106
when notified of a reportable taser discharge, a supervisor shall? 2/14
A) respond to the scene of the discharge
B) ensure compliance with medical attention, custody and reporting requirements
C) download the discharge memory of the taser involved, and attach a printout of the memory to the official report
D) all of the above**
106
at the beginning of each shift or deployment the officer shall conduct a safety inspection of the taser 2/14. T or F
True
107
Embedded CEW probes should only be removed by medical personnel, or by appropriately trained officers in the presence of medical personnel. Used CEW probes shall be treated as sharps biohazard similar to hypodermic needles. 2/14 T or F
True
108
Manuals fall into how many categories? (1/01)
3
109
New orders or changes in existing orders shall be reviewed by the SCDSA? (1/01) T or F
True
110
Each division reviews its Ops Orders how often? (1/01)
Once a year
111
A written document, originating with the Sheriff, which addresses a matter of an informative nature is best described as (1/02)
A special order
112
If an employee becomes aware of any type of discrimination they shall report it to their immediate supervisor (1/03). T or F
True
113
if the emplyee's supervisor does not address a matter of discrimination satisfactorily, the officer must adhere strictly to the chain of command (1/03). T or F
False
114
All correspondence received by this department requiring a response shall be acknowledged within _______ business days of receipt (1/04)
10
115
except without prior approval from executive staff, the use of the sheriff's formal gold embossed stationery is restricted to letters signed by the sheriff, undersheriff, assistant sheriff, and chief deputies 1/04. T or F
True
116
all correspondence created will be dated 1/04. T or F
True
117
the text in the "subject" line of an IDC will be in all capital letters 1/04. T or F
True
118
in the IDC format, the names of the addressees in the "to" and "from" lines will be typed in upper and lowercase letters 1/04 T or F
false (must be in all caps)
119
An IDC requires a signature block 1/04 T or F
false
120
All correspondence prepared for the Sheriff's signature will be reviewed by
A) The author's supervisor
B) Division Commander
C) Chief Deputy
***D) All of the above
121
All revisions, additions and deletions as well as totally new forms or requests for procedural report writing changes must be submitted to and reviewed by the forms committee 1/05 T or F
True
122
a felony wanted persons bulletin will expire after how many days if the suspect is not taken into custody 1/06
30
123
any sworn officer may issue a wanted persons Bulletin 1/06 T or F
True
124
Members of the Awards and Commendations Committee will serve a term of how long? 1/07.
24 months/2 years
125
Before such events are organized, sponsored, or hosted by an employee of this department, prior approval shall be obtained from? 1/13
B) Sheriff
C) Executive Staff
***D) Only B and C
126
The request for such event sponsored/hosted by an employee of the Sheriff's Office should be forwarded through the Chief Deputy of the employee's service area. T or F
True
127
Prior approval is necessary before reserving space or committing resources. T or F
True
128
The Media Bureau does not need to be forwarded a copy of the request with its response. T or F
False
129
Smoking Policy 1/17
Smoking is prohibited in all county buildings and vehicles
130
employees shall not report to work to perform their scheduled duties following the consumption of any alcoholic beverage when: 1/18
B) the alcohol is not yet totally oxidized from their system
C) Evident upon the employee's breath
**D) Both B and C*
131
employees shall not possess use or attempt to bring alcoholic beverages to a work site. T or F
True
132
Alcohol policy also applies to prescription drugs that can impair an employee's physical or mental ability. T or F
True
133
Alcohol policy only applies to Personnel who are in direct contact with inmates or with the public. T or F
False
134
exceptions to this order can be applied to undercover personnel. T or F
true "only applies to alcohol"
135
in all cases of significant infectious disease exposure, who is responsible for ensuring that an employee report of injury form (OSHA) is completed 1/19
B) the immediate supervisor *
136
in order to test a source contact for the HIV virus, the law enforcement officer must request testing through 1/19
A) The Chief Medical Examiner for the County *
137
direct or significant exposure to an infectious disease is defined as 1 / 19
A) any under the skin or mucous membrane contact *
138
being in the area of a patient with an infectious disease, but not having direct contact my nation is described as a casual exposure 1/19. T or F
True
139
who insures all employees operate under the Infectious Disease guidelines 1/19
C) Division Commander *
140
personnel with evidence of HIV or other blood-borne infections may be routinely restricted in their duties solely because of the evidence 1 / 19. T or F
False
141
a minimum of latex gloves will be worn when touching blood and body fluids, mucous membranes, or non-intact skin, and for handling items or surfaces soiled with blood or bodily fluids 1/19. T or F
True
142
each individual divisional Personnel folder has how many sections 1/21
6
143
the sections of a divisional Personnel folder shall contain 1 / 21
A) performance evaluations and personal data
B) basic information (attendance, uniform inspections)
C) medical reports
D) commendations
E) complaints and reprimands
F) education, certificates of training
*G) all of all-of-the-above *
144
the county procurement card is used like a credit card making purchases easy to purchase without a purchasing order. The County procurement card may not be used to purchase? 1/28
D) Auto fuel, auto repair, or auto rentals*
145
When carrying an off-duty firearm there are restrictions as to the make, model, and caliber: 2/01
False
146
A hide-out firearm must be secured in a holster or carrying device that will insure retention 2/01
True
147
Reloaded, special purpose or exotic ammunition will not be permitted for on-duty use unless authorized by the sheriff 2/01
True
148
Officers must carry department issued shotguns 2/01 T or F
False
149
officers must only carry department issued rifles 2/01 T or F
False
150
Any employee can conduct modifications to department issued firearms 2/01 T or F
False
151
Laser sighting devices are acceptable as long as the proper qualifications are met 2/01 T or F
False
152
On-duty personnel shall carry a firearm when engaged in enforcement activity outside of Sheriffs Department Facilities 2/01
True
153
On-duty personnel shall carry a firearm when acting in any official capacity as a representative of the Department outside the Sheriff's Department Facilities 2/01
True
154
Except when traveling out of the County attending training and/or conferences, the firearm shall be carried or readily accessible in conjunction with the use of a radio equipped county vehicle 2/01. T or F
True
155
Officers purchasing Firearms or magazines with the Department waiver requests are not authorized to use these Firearms or magazines for other than performance of their "official duties" and may not transfer or offer the Firearms magazines for resale 2/01. T or F
True
156
all officers are required to read and familiarize themselves with general order 2 /05 relating to the use of firearms 2/02
at a time and manner described by the Rangemaster during each qualification period
157
officers failing to qualify could face both administrative and disciplinary penalties and sanctions 2/02. T or F
True
158
officers approved to carry a light modified handgun shall qualify at least once a year during a dim light qualification 2/02. T or F
True
159
the Streamlight M3 light is the only authorized Light 2 / 02. T or F
False
160
a gun light can be carried separate from the gun 2/0 2
False
161
officers should apply for modified Firearms status in writing to: 2 / 0 2
B) Division Commander*
162
the officers immediate supervisor shall apply for modified Firearms status if the employee is unable to: 2/02. T or f
True
163
how many categories are there for a failure to qualify? 2/02
2 - Category 1 - fails with a passing score Category 2 - fails to go to range to qualify
164
an officer who failed to achieve a passing score during a qualification. Falls under what category 2 / 0 2
1
165
an officer who fails to report to the range to attempt to qualify during a qualification period falls under what category 2 / 0 2
2
166
if an officer is unable to meet the minimum Firearms qualification proficiency requirement after two consecutive attempts during regular qualifications, the officer shall complete remedial training before any further attempts 2 / 0 2. T or F
True
167
what are the two types of firearms remediation training? 2/02
Group and one-on-one
168
what is the first type of remediation training? 2/02
Group
169
after remedial Group Training officers will be given _______ attempts to qualify 2/02
2
170
if an officer fails to qualify in group remediation training they will then be scheduled for _______ training 2/02
one on one
171
if an officer fails to qualify after one-on-one training, their division Commander Shall Serve the employee with 2/02
C) notice of suspension of authority to carry a firearm *
172
when an officer fails to report to the range to attempt to qualify during a qualifying period, the officer shall be ordered to attend a specific makeup day set aside before the end of the period 2/02 T or F
True
173
after initially qualifying with a hideout weapon, how often must you qualify with it? 2/02
at least once each qualifying period.
174
officers authorized to carry rifles, MP5, or less lethal impact weapons shall qualify 2 / 0 2
at least once each qualifying period.
175
what are the maximum hours of overtime allowed for qualifications 2 / 0
2 hours
176
sworn personnel may be Exempted from the requirements of the firearms and training and qualification program due to which of the following 2 / 0 2
Due to a medical disability, physical limitation, articulated health concern (i.e. pregnancy) or an approved leave, officers may be permitted to complete a modified firearms qualification course or be excused from a qualification period at the discretion of their division Commander
177
an officer who has in his custody a person being transported by air transportation must notify the airline at least _______ hours before flight 2/04
1
178
a person in custody who is considered dangerous and using air transportation the officer must be accompanied by at least 2/04
one other officer
179
Firearms shall not be discharged at misdemeanant subjects 2 / 0 5. T or F
True
180
without endangering innocent people, warning shots are appropriate 2 / 0 5. T or F
False
181
all shooting by deputies that occur in the city limits of Sacramento will be investigated by 2 / 0 5
SPD
182
the sheriff's department shall handle all shootings that occur within the physical confines of all Department facilities 2 / 0 5. T of F
True
183
shootings that occur on a street or area involving shared boundaries shall be handled by 2 / 0 5
the employing agency
184
an employee's responsibility who is involved in a shooting incident where injury or death results shall attempt to stabilize the situation and care for any injured persons 2 / 06. T of F
True
185
if you are involved in a shooting incident off-duty, you shall notify 2/06
b) Communications Sergeant **
186
if you are involved in a shooting incident on duty, you shall notify either 2/06
on duty supervisor or Communications Sergeant
187
what shall minimally be completed in the event of an accidental discharge 2/0 6
Incident report
188
Homicide Bureau investigates all discharges of firearms with the exception of accidental discharges 2/06. T or F
True
189
who is responsible for securing the employees weapon in a shooting incident 2 / 06
D) Homicide Bureau *
190
in the event of a firearm discharge involving injury or death, district attorney investigators shall be notified to respond to the scene 2/06. T of F
True
191
Internal Affairs Personnel will participate in the formal interview of personnel involved in a shooting incident 2/06. T or F
False
192
during the formal interview, the officer may have a person of their choice present during the interview with the exception of any officer assigned to IA or any individual involved in the incident 2/06. T or F
True
193
Witnesses have the right to representation during a formal interview of a shooting incident 2/06. T or F
False
194
officers will not normally be required to prepare their own reports 2/06
True
195
employees will be afforded the presence of a representative during the preparation of such reports 2/06. T or F
True
196
periodically testing your OC shall be conducted in an open-air area, away from buildings, personal property, and other individuals 2/08. T or F
True
197
once a subject is in custody/control, they should be given first aid within ______ minutes from the time they were subjected to the OC 2/08
30 minutes or as soon as practical
198
what is the minimum documentation for each subject who received an application of OC 2/08
B) Casualty Report *
