General Overview of MDS Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Definition of MDS ?

A
  • clonal hematopoietic stem cell disease characterized by:
    • cytopenias
      • in at least one lineage
    • dysplasia in one or more of the major myeloid lineages
    • ineffective hematopoiesis
    • recurrent genetic abnormalities
    • increased risk of developing AML
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2
Q

What are the recommended thresholds

for cytopenias in MDS ?

A
  • hemoglobin <10 g/dL
  • platelet count <100 X10^9/L
  • absolute neutrophil count <1.8 x19^9/L
  • however, can have higher numbers on CBC as long as there is definitive morphologic or cytogenetic findings present
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3
Q

Which specific MDS categories

can have associated thrombocytosis?

A
  • platelets >450 x 10^9/L
  • MDS with del 5q
  • MDS with inv(3) or t(3;3)
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4
Q

What percentage of MDS cases

have recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities ?

A
  • 40-50%

IMP: acquired somatic mutations are seen in the vast majority of MDS cases at diagnosis

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5
Q

What is the general epidemiology

of MDS ?

A
  • generally seen in older adults (median age: 70)
    • MDS affecting children is rare and has it’s own diagnostic criteria
  • male predominance
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6
Q

What are the microscopic findings

in MDS ?

A
  • classification depends on:
    • number of dysplastic lineages
    • blasts in PB and BM
    • and presence of RS

Note: the lineages with cytopenias are NOT necessarily the ones that contain dysplasia.

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7
Q

What has been observed regarding greater

% of blasts in the PB vs. BM ?

A
  • in cases with more % blasts in PB (~13% of all MDS) compared to the BM
    • those cases tend to act more aggressively
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8
Q

What is a general rule in making the diagnosis

of MDS ?

A
  • cannot make the diagnosis without a detailed medication and drug history
  • no case of MDS should be re-classified in a patient on growth factor therapy, including erythropoietin
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9
Q

What are things that can cause a clinical

and morphologic picture of MDS ?

A
  • drugs
  • infections
  • autoimmune disorders
  • metabolic deficiencies
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10
Q

What are the criteria for call a lineage dysplastic ?

A
  • generally >10% of the precursor cells for erythroid and myeloid lineages
  • >10% of megakaryocytes and must evaluate at least 30 megas
    • some advocate for a threshold of 30-40% for dysplasia in megas

IMP: for cases with single lineage dysplasia, erythroids are usually the lineage that is dysplastic

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11
Q

What drug can cause ring sideroblast

formation ?

A
  • Isoniazole
  • it does this in the absence of vitamin B6 supplementation
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12
Q

Which medications can lead to

marked neutrophil hyposegmentation ?

A
  • cotrimoxazole (antibiotic)
  • immunosuppresants
    • tacrolimus
    • mycophenolate mofetil
      • also can lead to erythroblastopenia
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13
Q

Which medical conditions can

clinically mimic MDS ?

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • infections
  • autoimmune diseases
  • PNH
  • bone marrow lymphomatous involvement
    • particularly LGL and Hairy cell leukemia
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14
Q

What is a feature on bone marrow biopsy

core of aggressive MDS ?

A
  • Abnormal localization of immature precursors
    • aggregates (3-5 cells) or clusters (>5 cells)
    • they are usually localized in the center of the bone and away from bony trabeculae
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15
Q

What are some features that help differentiate

hypoplastic MDS from aplastic anemia ?

A
  • dysplasia (most often in the megakaryocytes)
  • increased blasts identified by CD34 stain
  • abnormal karyotype
    • most often trisomy 8
      • although this can occasionally be seen in aplastic anemias

IMP: MDS-associated somatic mutations have been reported in as many as 1/3 of aplastic anemia patients

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16
Q

What must be excluded when considering

a diagnosis of hypoplastic MDS ?

A
  • must exclude marrow injury due to a toxin, infection or autimmune disorder
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17
Q

What marrow finding, independent of the blast count,

indicates an aggressive clinical course in MDS?

A
  • significant degrees of myelofibrosis (grade 2-3)
  • seen in ~10-15% of MDS cases
  • not a significant subtype but these patients tend to do worse
    • blast counts may not be accurate due to significant fibrosis and hemodilute aspirates
  • unlike PMF, MDS with fibrosis is NOT associated with splenomegaly, leukoerythroblastosis or intrasinusoidal hematopoiesis
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18
Q

What are the immunophenotypic changes in

the myeloids in MDS ?

A
  • abnormal or asynchronous maturation patterns
    • asynchrony of CD15 and CD16 in granulocytes
    • altered expression of CD13 in relation to CD11b or CD16
    • aberrant expression of CD7 or CD56 on:
      • progenitors
      • granulocytes
      • monocytes

Note: also will have decreased hematogones in MDS

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19
Q

What are the immunophenotypic findings

of erythroids in MDS ?

A
  • increased coefficient of variation
  • decreased intensity of CD71 or CD36 expression
20
Q

What is loss of 17p associated with ?

A
  • MDS or AML with pseudo-Pelger Huet anomaly
    • vacuolated, small neutrophils
  • TP53 mutation
  • unfavorable clinical course
  • most common in therapy related MDS
21
Q

What is usually seen in a complex

karyotype and what is the prognosis ?

A
  • by definition >3 abnormalities
  • usually have abnormalities in:
    • chromosome 5 and or 7
      • del 5q or t5q or loss of chromosome 7 or del 7q
  • generally associated with a poor clinical course
22
Q

What are the morphologic

correlates for del 20q ?

A
  • dysmegakaryopoiesis
  • thrombocytopenia
23
Q

What are the morphologic

correlates in inv(3) or t(3;3) ?

A
  • abnormal megakaryocytes
  • thrombocytosis
24
Q

What clonal cytogenetic abnormalities

when present alone do NOT suffice for

a diagnosis of MDS ?

A
  • loss of Y chromosome
  • gain of chromosome 8
  • del 20q

Note:

  • these can be seen in other conditions. If no morphologic defining critieria then these do not count.
25
What unbalanced chromosomal abnormalities in the setting of unexplained cytopenias but no definitive dysplasia are enough to call MDS-U ?
* loss of chromosome 7 or del 7q * del 5q or t5q * isochromsomes 17q or t(17p) * loss of chromsomes 13 or del 13q * del 11q * del 12p or t(12p) * del 9q * idic(x)(q13)
26
What balanced chromosomal aberrations in the setting of cytopenias but no morphologic dysplasia are enough to diagnose MDS-U ?
* t(11;16) * t(3;21) * t(1;3) * t(2;11) * inv(3) or t(3;3) * t(6;9) Note: cytogenetic abnormalities are present in ~50% of MDS cases. 80-90% of cases have somatic mutations in recurring genes.
27
Which mutations when present are associated with severe granulocytic dysplasia ?
* ASXL1 * RUNX1 * TP53 * SRSF2
28
Why are somatic mutations alone NOT enough to diagnose MDS ?
* these mutations can occur in healthy individuals without evidence of MDS * even in the setting of cytopenia
29
Which is the only somatic mutation that has it's own MDS diagnostic category ?
* SF3B1 * only one infuencing MDS subtype
30
What are the low-risk MDS groups ?
* MDS with single lineage dysplasia * MDS with ring sideroblasts and single lineage dysplasia * MDS with isolated del 5q
31
What is the intermediate risk group for MDS ?
* MDS with multi-lineage dysplasia * MDS with ring sideroblasts and multi-lineage dysplasia
32
What is the high risk MDS group?
* MDS with excess blasts
33
What two mutations tend to affect MDS response to hypomethylating agents?
* TET2 * DNMT3A
34
How does TP53 mutation affect treatment in MDS del 5q ?
* MDS del 5q is usually sensitive to Lenalidomide * with TP53 mutation it becomes insensitive Note: TP53 is a poor prognostic indicator and shows more aggressive disease
35
Which mutations when present show conflicting data or a neutral impact on prognosis in MDS ?
* TET2 (DNA methylation) * ZRSR2 (RNA splicing) * IDH1/IDH2 (DNA methylation)
36
What gene confers a good prognosis in MDS?
* SF3B1 (RNA splicing)
37
What are the transcription factors genes that confer an adverse prognosis in MDS ?
* BCOR * NRAS * RUNX1
38
What are the RNA splicing genes that confer an adverse prognosis in MDS?
* SRSF2 * U2AF1
39
What are the histone modifying genes that confer an adverse prognosis in MDS ?
* ASXL1 * EZH2
40
What are the other gene categories/genes that confer an adverse prognosis in MDS ?
* DNMT3A (DNA methylator) * TP53 (tumor suppressor) * STAG2 (cohesin complex) * CBL (signalling)
41
What defining cytogenetic abnormalities are considered to have very good prognosis ?
* loss of Y chromosom * del 11q
42
What defining cytogenetic abnormalities have a good prognosis ?
* Normal karyotype * del 5q * del 12p * del 20q * double, including del 5q
43
What defining cytogenetic abnormalities have an intermediate prognosis in MDS ?
* del 7q * gain of chromosome 8 * gain of chromosom 9 * isochromosome 17q * single or double abnormalities not specified in other groups * two or more independent non-complex clones
44
What defining cytogenetic abnormlities are considered a poor prognostic factor ?
* loss of chromosome 7 * inv(3), t(3q), or del(3q) * double including loss of chromosome 7 or del 7q * complex karyotype
45
What is generally a very poor prognostic group cytogenetically ?
* \> 3 abnormalities * complex karyotype