General Prep Flashcards
(610 cards)
1
Q
Name a side effect of doing castration.
A
prostate atrophy
2
Q
Ferrets tend to have stomach probelems so one should avoid __.
A
Barium
3
Q
Antagonist of Medetomidine
A
Atipamezole
4
Q
Aqueous humor is secreted by
A
Ciliary body
5
Q
Normal intraocular pressure
A
15-20mmHg
6
Q
Circling disease in sheep is caused by
A
Listeriosis
7
Q
Screw worm plague is cause by
A
Yersinia pestis
8
Q
What parasite can block the cranial mesenteric artery
A
strongyles vulgaris
9
Q
Name of horse stomach worm
A
gastrophilus intestinalis
10
Q
Which part of the intestine is not involved in impaction?
A
Jejunum
11
Q
When is the best time, during surgery, to give analgesics?
A
pre-operative
12
Q
What is the treatment for the Dorsal Displacement of the Soft Pallet?
A
Staphylectomy
13
Q
Clinical sign of Copper Toxicity in Sheep
A
Hemoglobinuria
14
Q
What parasitic disease causes Extravascular Hemolysis?
A
Anaplasmosis
15
Q
What parasitic disease causes Intravascular Hemolysis?
A
- Leptospira
- Babesia
16
Q
What duct do the testis develop from?
A
Wolffian Duct
17
Q
Quinidine toxicity in Horses causes what major clinical signs?
A
- AV Block
- Ventricular Arrhythmia
18
Q
What is the surgical technique used for the treatment of Entropion?
A
modified hotz-celsus procedure
19
Q
What is the diagnosis for bunny hopping gait in dogs?
A
Hip Dysplasia
20
Q
What is the diagnosis for animals that show heat seeking behavior?
A
Hypothyroidism
21
Q
Terminalization is due to what kind of tumor?
A
Sertoli Cell Tumor
22
Q
An increase in the intraocular pressure can be caused by?
A
Closure of the Iridocorneal Angle
23
Q
What kind of cells would you expect to find in the case of a mast cell tumor?
A
An increase in eosinophils and nucleated cells (immature RBCs)
24
Q
What animal plays the roll of reservoir for the West Nile Virus?
A
Birds
25
What is the largest part of the forestomach in a calf?
Abomasum
26
What is the diagnosis for renal tubular dysfunction?
Na Clearance
27
The urine of horses is normally cloudy due to the presence of what?
Mucus and Calcium Carbonate Crystals
28
What species of animal is the most sensitive to the effects of Xylazine?
Bovines
29
Normocytic, Normochromic, Non-regenerative Anemia is diagnostic of what disease?
Chronic Renal Failure (CRF)
30
Spherocytes, Anemia (IMHA), and Icterus can all be diagnosed using what test?
Coombs Test
31
When given a caudal epidural anesthesia in dogs can desensitize which area?
The perineum
32
Protein deficiency inhibits wound healing by inhibiting the synthesis of what?
Collagen Synthesis
33
What is the pathology behind the lesions in Diamond skin disease?
Vasculitis and Thrombus formation
33
What is the treatment given if sings of Stringheat are given?
Tenectomy of the lateral ligament
34
What is the diagnostic test used for detection of Hypoadrenocorticism?
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) stimulation test
34
Which meniscus is commonly affected in cranial cruciate ligament rupture?
Caudomedial
35
A 6 month old calf showing blindness, ataxia, but the PLR is present/positive - what would be the diagnosis?
Vitamin A Deficiency
36
What is the drug of choice against Beta-Lactamase positive bacteria?
clavulanic acid has an inhibitory effect on Beta-Lactamase.
37
During a caudectomy or tail docking what part of the tail has an arterial supply?
Ventral part of the tail
38
What does the lack of bedding material during the anesthesia in the house cause?
Facial Nerve Paralysis
39
To avoid an artifact of Static Electricity in an X-ray, what should you do?
increase the humidity in the room
40
Anesthesia of which muscle allows examination of the eye?
Orbicularis Oculi Muscle
41
What disease causes excitability tremors in cattle?
Hypomagnesemia (low Mg)
42
At what stage of anesthesia should you extubate a dog?
When the dog starts swallowing
43
What is the most common form of Bovine Leukosis in Cattle?
Mediastinal Bovine Leukosis
44
Which muscle is responsible for the erection of the penis?
The Corpora Cavernosa Muscle
45
Proteinuria is a positive sign in what disease?
Fever leads to loss
46
A dogs PCV is 15%, reticulocyte is 12%, then what is the corrected reticulocyte count?
Corrected Reticulocyte= ((Patient PCV)(Patient Reticulocyte))/[45% Normal PCV]
CR = ((15)(12))/[45] = 9%
47
What may cause a 6 year old dog to have a heart rate of 180 during anesthesia?
Hypercapnia - Higher than normal CO2 in the blood.
48
Hypercalcemia is associated with all of the following except?
A. Lymphosarcoma
B. Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma
C. Hypoadrenocorticism
D. Blastomycosis
E. Milk Fever
Milk Fever - hypocalcemia
49
How long do Neutrophils usually remain in the peripheral blood?
10 Hours
50
What is the best flotation method for fecal samples?
Sugar Solution (591.300)
51
In which species is it normal to find neutrophils during Pancreatitis?
Equine
52
Which species is the least sensitive to Xylazine?
Porcine
53
Generally during surgery, blood is administered when PCV falls below __?
below 25%
54
What is the most potent alpha-2-agonist currently available?
Medetomidine
55
In recurrent episodes of thrombocytopenia, the least report is usually that of what?
splenectomy
56
What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a horse?
Quinidine
57
What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a dog?
Digitalis
58
What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a cat?
diltiazem
59
HF has recurrent infection but lack of pus formation - Dx?
Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
60
Treatment of brisket edema in cow
move it to a lower altitude
61
What are the best views for cardiac radiography?
1. Right Lateral
2. Ventrodorsal on inspiration
62
In a chronic infection, what cells will you find high in number?
Lymphocytes
63
In an acute infection, which cells will you find high in numbers?
Neutrophils
64
What do polychromatic cells in a smear suggest?
Regenerative anemia
65
How long does the iron storage in piglets last?
7 days
66
What is the treatment for isoerythrolysis in foals?
Give 3 times saline washed RBCs from the dam
67
What cells are seen in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?
Schistocytes (RBC fragments)
68
What age group of cattle is usually affected by Anaplasmosis?
3 years and older cattle develop this disease
69
What is the dose rate of aspirin in cats with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
10mg/kg but every 3rd day (max 80mg)
70
In Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA), what is the proper location to approach for ligation?
The left 4th intercostal space
71
What causes Heinz Body Anemia in cats?
Caused by Acetaminophen
72
What causes Heinz Body Anemia in horses?
caused by Red mapel leaves, Onion, and Phenothiazine
73
Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) is transmitted by?
Blood sucking insect flies, Tabanids, and Contaminated needles
74
Feline Infectious Anemia (FIA) is transmitted by what?
Fleas
75
Congenital Platelet Function Disorder
Chediak Higashi Syndrome
76
Congenital WBCs (aka leukocytes) Functioning Disorders
Pelger-Huet anomaly (PHA)
77
Congenital deficit of maturation of collagen fibers (type 1) in cats
Cutaneous asthenia
78
In an acute infection, what will increase?
Fibrinogen (Clot) and WBCs (infection)
79
Cat was treated for heart worm and is now showing dyspnea, what will you do?
Give oxygen and steroids
80
which drug is contraindicated in feline heartworm treatment for when embolism occurs?
Aspirin
81
What will you find in a cat that is tested positive for heartworm?
Glomerulonephritis
82
What does hyperkalemia in cats cause?
bradycardia
83
What is the most common blood group of cats in the USA?
A - about 99%
84
How do you make a Major Cross Match?
Recipient plasma and Doner Erythrocytes
85
How do you make a Minor Cross Match?
Recipient Erythrocytes and Doner Plasma
86
What does the Coomb's Test detect?
Used to detect antibodies against the body's own erythrocytes (ex: IMHA or EIA)
87
What causes Hemophilia A?
Factor 8 Deficiency
88
What causes Hemophilia B?
Factor 9 Deficiency
89
What is the diagnosis of a cat having anemia and parasites in its RBCs?
90
What is the treatment for Feline Infectious Anemia?
Tetracyclines
- Doxycycline (10mg/kg/d x 2wks)
91
American cocker spaniel is prone to which coagulopathy?
Factor 10 Deficiency or Stuart-Prower factor deficiency
92
A cat with ascites and jugular distention is brought into the clinic - what is your diagnosis?
Pericardial effusions
93
What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in dogs?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
94
What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in cattle?
Ventricular Septal Deficits
95
What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in horse?
Ventricular Septal Deficits
96
What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in cats?
Ventricular Septal Deficits
97
What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in pigs?
Tricuspid Valve Dysplasia
98
A cat is eating its own feces - what will you do for diagnosis?
Blood Chemistry should be done
99
Treatment for Diaphragmatic fluttering in horses?
Calcium gluconate
100
A dog is having anemia, however total protein is normal, what will you give?
Packed RBCs
101
A dog with anemia, however total protein is decreasing, what will you give?
whole blood
102
First degree heart block
P-R interval prolonged
103
Second degree heart block
R-R interval is increased
104
Third degree heart block
bizarre QRS
105
What is the diagnostic test for hematuria?
centrifuge the urine
106
What is the diagnostic test for hemoglobinuria?
centrifuge the urine and then examine the sediment - if RBCs are present then it is positive.
107
What is the diagnostic test for myoglobinuria?
Centrifuge the urine and then examine the supernatant - Red brown in color add (NH4)2SO4 -- if the supernatant remains brown it is myoglobinuria and if precipitation occurs then it is hemoglobinuria.
108
What is pancytopenia?
Mature leukopenia, non-regenerative anemia, and thrombocytopenia - all present in E. canis.
109
Anticoagulant for CBC
EDTA
110
Anticoagulant for blood coagulation study
Sodium Citrate
111
Anticoagulant for blood glucose
Sodium fluoride
112
Why is an IV in horse only given on the right sided jugular vein?
To prevent injury to the phrenic nerves that supply the diaphragm.
113
Which drug causes Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) in dogs?
Trimethoprim Sulphate
Ormethoprim
114
Which drug causes Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) in cats?
Propylthiouracil
115
What is the location of the rota virus in the body?
Small intestine
116
What is the treatment of lipidosis in cats?
External Tube Feeding
117
Which diseases cause immunosuppression in cattle?
Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD), Hog Cholera, Border Disorder
118
What parasite causes tumors along the margo plicatus in the stomach of horses?
Habronema (Draschia migastoma)
119
GIVEN A PICTURE OF A HORSES STOMACH WHICH SHOWS TUMOR LIKE GROWTHS SINCE IT WAS 2 YEARS OLD. What will be your action?
Euthanasia
120
Longitudinal folds in the cats esophagus
Herringbone pattern of esophagus
121
What are the clinical signs of liver flukes, F. hepatica, in cattle?
Submandibular edema
122
What parasite causes extensive anemia in dogs?
Hookworm ( ancylostoma duodurdis)
123
Diagnosis of 2-4day old piglets with watery diarrhea and acidic ph.
E. coli
124
How will you control an E. coli infection in dairy?
Isolation > colostrum restriction > vaccination of pregnant cow (6 weeks and 2 weeks before parturition)
125
What is the monoclonal antibody given to new born piglets to protect them from E. coli infections?
Monoclonal antibody K88
126
What biochemical changes will you see in a dog with parvovirus that has vomiting and diarrhea?
Hyponatremia (low Na), Hypokalemia (low K), Hypochloremia (low Cl), Hypoalbuminemia
127
Treatment for Ancylostoma caninum
Fenbendazole
128
How do you prevent Parascaris equorum in foal?
Daily administration of pyrantel tartrate once foal starts consuming grains
129
What is the most common tapeworm in dogs and how do your prevent it?
Dipylidium caninum - flea control
130
What is the most common tapeworm in cats and how do you prevent it?
Taenia taeniaeformis - rodent control
131
blood picture of chronic diarrhea in cats
lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis
132
blood picture of acute diarrhea in cats
neutrophilic with epithelial disruption
133
How is strongyloidies transmitted to foal?
Sucking the milk form the udder of the mare
134
Abomasal nodules in cattle is caused by what?
Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm)
135
What is the most common cause of spleen abscess in cattle?
Fusobacterium necrophorum
136
Acidosis in calves is mainly due to which type of diarrhea?
E. coli diarrhea -(- watery diarrhea in suckling pigs)
137
Name monoclonal antibody given to newborn calf to protect it from E. coli.
Monoclonal antibody K99
138
Picture given of thin emaciated horse, what question will you ask the owner?
Ask about the dental prophylaxis
139
Campylobacter jejuni act on which part of the intestine?
Jejunum and Ilium
140
Treatment for Brachygnathia in small animals?
removal of the mandibular canine tooth
141
What is the most common coccidia in dogs and cats?
Isospora
142
What is the treatment for isospora in dogs and cats?
Trimethyl sulphate (TMS)
143
What intestinal parasites found in dogs can be transitted to man?
Giardia
144
What is the treatment for GIardia?
Metronidazole
145
How do you diagnose Giardia?
Zinc Sulphate (ZnSO4) Flotation Method
146
Diagnose a large swelling on the lateral side of the anus of a dog.
Adenocarcinoma of the Apocrine Gland of the Anal Sac
147
Diagnose a large swelling on the gingival cavity in cats
Squamous cell carcinoma
148
What metabolic changes occur in Left Displacement of Abomasum?
Metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia, hypokalemia,
149
Treatment of cecal/large colon obstruction in horses
IV fluids, analgesics, intragastric mineral oil and dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
150
What is the treatment for sand impaction in horse?
Psyllium (Intragastric)
151
Treatment of enteroliths in horses
Surgery - Ventral midline celiotomy
152
horse due to high grained diet - what do you do?
Restrict water intake for 18-24 hours and remove grain from the diet
153
In which disease is the rumen of cattle "L" shaped?
Vagal indigestion - L shaped rumen and papple shaped abdomen
154
What is the drug of choice for strongyloides?
Ivermectin or albendazole
155
What is the drug of choice for tapeworm in dogs and cats?
Praziquantel
156
At what age does JD occur in cattle?
Cattle 2-6 years are most prone
157
What are cheek teeth?
P2, P3, P4
158
Amylase and Lipase increase in Pancreatic disease, which other condition can cause this to occur?
Urinary disease
159
How do you control Cryptosporidiosis?
Good hygiene - it is a self limiting oocyst and can also be killed by 5% ammonia solution
160
Ping is observed on the right paralumbar fossa, what is the diagnosis?
Cecal rotation
161
Ping on the right side at the area of the 10th to the 13th intercostal space on the middle upper side - what is the diagnosis?
Right Displaced Abomasum (RDA)
162
What is the most common canine hookworm in canada and alaska?
Uncinaria stenocephala
163
The echogenicity in the liver changes in what disease?
Liver/Hepatic Lipidosis
164
What disease can cause neutropenia in horses?
Salmonellosis
165
What is the best diagnostic tool for Giardiosis
Zinc Sulphate Flotation Test (ZnSO4)
166
What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?
Vomiting is an active neural reflex.
Regurgitation is a passive retrograde reflux.
167
Mode of transmission of E. coli from animals to humans?
Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, etc..)
168
How is Yersinia enterocolitica transmitted to man?
Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)
169
How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted to man?
Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)
170
How is Cryptosporidium transmitted to man?
Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)
171
What are the lesions of Johne's Disease (JD)?
Thickened small intestine (corrugated intestines), enlargement of the lymph nodes, and serosal lymphangitis
172
What is the main cause of large intestinal impaction in dogs?
Foreign body
173
What is the mode of transmission of Toxocara canis in dogs?
Transplacental transmission of disease
174
In cattle, what is the pH of the ruminal fluid during acidosis?
pH < 5.5
175
What condition can cause feline lipidosis?
A period of prolonged anorexia in an obese cat
176
Treatment of cyathostominosis in horse?
Fenbendazole
177
What is the sequalae of Fasciolosis in cow?
Liver cirrhosis
178
What is the diagnosis of nasogastric reflux in horse with clinical signa?
Intestinal obstruction in horse
179
Which side is the nephrosplenic ligament present in horse?
the ligament is present on the left side
180
What is the most dangerous parasite of man?
Taenia solium
181
What parasites are transmitted from cats to man without an intermediate host?
Echinococcus multilocularis, Toxoplasma
182
How do you diagnose E. coli (test)?
ELISA for K99 in feces
183
How do you diagnose megaesophagus?
Acetylcholine Antibody Assay
184
Some cattle are seen eating feed and some cattle are seen just standing in the ally - what should you check?
The concentrate to roughage ratio of the feed
185
What is the sequelae of acidic indigestion in cattle?
Mycotic Ruminitis
186
What is the treatment of choice for Demodex?
Amitraz and Rotenone
187
A picture of is given - what is the treatment?
Ivermectin and Selamectin
188
What is the first antibody to act during an infection?
IgM
189
What is elevated during cholestasis?
ALKP increases and severe ALP
190
A dog is on phenobarbital, what enzyme is likely to be elevated?
ALP (Phenobarbital causes liver damage which leads to an increase in ALP)
191
What causes Ileitis, Porcine intestinal adenomatosis, porcine proliferative enteritis, and proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy?
Lawsonia intracellularis
192
Why do we not use Atropine in horses?
Prolapse of penis and Paralytic ileus
193
What is the appropriate site to approach to make an incision for surgery at the spiral colon?
The right flank
194
An obese cat was put on a low calorie diet and is now anorectic, what will you do?
Fine Needle Liver Biopsy (check for feline lipidosis)
195
What is the correct Ca:P ratio of a lactating swine?
2:1
196
What do you check when presented with a dog showing signs of hepatic encephalopathy?
Increased bile acids (total bilirubin)
197
What drugs are used to increase appetite?
Diazepine, Cyproheptadine, Prednisone, Oxazepain, Stinazaloe,
198
Presented with a foal with occasional colic, bruxism (a condition where a person grinds, clenches, or gnashes his or her teeth), and rolling around - what is your diagnosis?
Gastroduodenal Ulcer
199
What is not a cause of hypoalbuminemia?
Acute hepatitis
200
What animal is more predisposed to anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinoma?
Older Dogs
201
What is the most common cause of death in piglets?
Crushing by the sow, perinatal hypothermia, hypoglycemia
202
What is the treatment of a Grade I rectal tear in mare?
Broad Spectrum Antibiotics
203
What is the treatment of a Grade II rectal tear in mare?
Grade II is only the muscle layer - Extensive Immediate Surgery
204
What is the treatment of a Grade III rectal tear in mare?
Grade III involves the submucosa + muscularis extending to the mesorectum - Extensive Immediate Surgery
205
What is the treatment of a Grade IV rectal tear in mare?
Grade IV involves all layers up to the peritoneum - Grave prognosis
206
What is the best way to study a rare disease?
Case control
207
What is the most common form of anthrax in humans?
Wool sorters disease (Hemorrhagic mediastinitis)
208
What is a Melting Ulcer in a Horse cause by?
Herpes Virus
209
How does man get the Hunta Virus Disease?
Aerosol route through the secretions and excretions of rodents
210
What is the most sensitive way to diagnose Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)?
ELISA
211
What does ELISA in FeLV detect?
Antigens
212
What does ELISA in FIP detect?
Antibodies
213
What does Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency cause?
Mulberry Heart Disease and Hepatosis dietetica (HD)
214
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia occurs in what age group of horses?
1-3 years old
215
What is the catalase test used for?
E. coli and Staphylococcus
216
What type of cardiac rhythm abnormality is seen in a dog with Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus?
Ventricular Premature Complex
217
What is the most common complication of Parascaris equorum?
Impaction, Colic
218
What is the most common complication for Cervical mucocele?
Pain and Fever
219
What is the prefered diagnostic test for Campylobacteriosis?
Dark Field Microscope Phase Contrast Microscopy
220
What are the clinical signs of Tyzzer's Disease in Foals?
Liver - Hepatic Necrosis
Heart - Myocardium white streaks
Intestines- Paint brush hemorrhages
221
Overo horses are mated and the foals die on the second day - what will be your diagnosis?
Ileocolonic aganglionosis
Overo horse - two colored horse
222
What tooth is involved in an oronasal fistula?
Maxillary Canine
223
What is the treatment of an Oronasal fistula?
Infrabony grafting
224
What is the most important aspect in the diagnosis of Colic in horses?
Rectal Contamination
225
Persistent infection of calves with BVD occur if fetal infection occurs when?
1-4 months of pregnancy
226
What causes Summer distress and other respiratory infections in horses?
Parascaris equorum
227
Which gland is involved in Salivary Mucocele?
Sublingual Salivary gland, Mandibular salivary gland
228
What is the treatment of Lymphocytic Plasmacytic Enteritis in Cats?
prednisone (corticosteroid for inflammation) and metronidazole (antibiotic)
229
What is the treatment of Trichuris in Pigs?
Dichlorvos + Levamisole + Fenbendazole
230
What changes occur in Hepatic Lipidosis?
Increased ALP, Increased Bile Acids, GGT my be normal or increased
231
Non-regenerative, Normocytic, Normochromic __ + __
Anemia + stress leukogram
232
How do you diagnose Hepatic Lipidosis?
Increased ALP, hyperbilirubinemia,
233
What is the diagnostic test for Portosystemic Shunts?
Postprandial bile acid test
(after food)
234
What is the treatment of Hepatic Encephalopathy?
A protein restricted diet, neomycin, lactulose
235
What is the treatment of eye glaucoma?
Carbonic anhydrase --> Acetazolamide inhibitor
236
What is the main reason for doing an exploratory laprotomy in cat?
Foreign Body
237
What breed has a predisposition for immunoproliferative enteropathy?
Basenji dog
238
Edema disease in pigs is caused by what?
E. coli (Hemolytic forms)
239
What is the contraction rate of the rumen of cattle?
1-3/min
240
What is the contraction rate of the rumen in goats?
1-4/min
241
What nerve supplies the teeth?
Maxillary branch of the Trigeminal Nerve
242
What is the treatment of Cyathostomiasis in horses?
Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (LDDS Test)
243
What is the confirmatory test for Cushing's Disease?
Plasma ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
244
What test do you use to detect Pituitary-Dependent Hyperadrenocorticism and Adrenal Tumor?
High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (HDDS)
245
What is the most overdiagnosed disease in dogs and cats?
Hypothyroidism
246
A dog is gaining weight even when put on a low calorie diet - what is your diagnosis?
Hypothyroidism
247
What is the screening test for hypothyroidism?
Serum total T4 and Serum Cholesterol Determination
248
In hypothyroidism you have calculated the total T4, what is the next step?
Calculate the free T4
249
What is an abnormality of Hypothyroidism?
Normocytic Normochromic Nonregenerative Anemia
250
What is the diagnosis of a dog that has thick skin folds?
Hypothyroidism
251
What is the diagnosis if a dog has thin skin folds?
Cushing's Disease
252
What disease causes large thick hair in horses?
Pituitary Pass Intermediary Disease ( aka Equine Cushing's Disease, Hirsutism now Hypertrichosis )
253
What is the Treatment for Cushing's Disease?
Mitotane
L-deprenyl (Selegiline HCl)
Ketoconazole
254
Abnormalities in Hypoadrenocorticism (aka Addison's Disease)?
Hyperkalemia, Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia, P-wave is absent on EKG, Spiked T-wave, Ventricular fibrillation, Bradycardia
255
What is hypercalcemia in dogs most commonly associated with?
Malignancy, lymphosarcoma, adenoma of the anal sac, multiple myeloma
256
What are some abnormalities in Cushing's Disease?
Hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycemia, Decreased BUN, Increased Basophilia, Increased AP, Increased ALP (**stress leukogram)
257
Cushing's Disease is common among what age group?
7-12yrs old
258
Diagnose - Persistent hypercalcemia in an old spayed female dog?
Adenoma of the apocrine gland of the anal sac
259
Diagnose - Persistent hypercalcemia in an old neutered male dog?
Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma
260
Diagnose - Polyuria, Polydipsia, and an enlarged abdomen?
Cushing's Disease
261
What is the side effect of Mitotane?
Vomiting, Diarrhea, and CNS signs.
262
What is the treatment of Hyperthyroidism?
Methimazole Propylthiouracil (not in Cats)
263
What is the side effect of Methimazole in Cats?
Thrombocytopenia
Hemolytic Anemia
Agranulocytosis
264
Oral hypoglycemic agent in cats?
Glipizide
265
Glipizide is contraindicated in what species?
Contraindicated in Dogs
266
If you give an all meat diet to a cat, what will happen?
An all meat diet is low in calcium which will lead to hypocalcemia with then leads to Hyperparathyroidism
267
A thyroidectomy was done in a dog - what will you manage first?
Hypothyroidism
268
Name 2 Isotonic Crystalloid Solutions?
Normal Saline Solution (NS) and Ringer's Lactated Solution (RL)
269
If serum sodium is normal, what should be given?
RL
270
What is the normal serum sodium in dogs?
140-153.9 mEq/L
271
What is the normal serum sodium in cats?
145-158.7 Eq/L
272
If serum sodium is <115mEq/L what should be done?
Do not infuse NS too quickly
273
If serum sodium is >115mEq/L what solution should be given?
NS
274
What is the infusion rate of potassium?
0.5 mEq/Kg bwt./hr
275
What is the etiology of Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)?
Lentivirus
276
What causes Bovine immunodeficiency virus (BIV)?
Lentivirus
277
What causes Caprine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE)?
Lentivirus
278
What causes Equine Infectious Anemia?
Lentivirus
279
What causes Simian immunodeficiency viruses (SIVs)?
Lentivirus
280
What breed is predisposed to Immunoproliferative enteropathy?
Basenji breed
281
What breed is predisposed to Histiocytic colitis
Boxer breed
282
What breed is predisposed to Parvovirus?
Rottweiler
283
What breed is predisposed to Bullous pemphigoid?
Collies and Dobermans breed
284
Which nerve is involved in ventrolateral stabismus in cat?
Oculomotor - 3rd Cranial Nerve
285
What disease is man prone to caused by contaminated water?
Leptospira
286
Treatment of narrow budding (C. neoformans)
Flucytosine
287
What is the use of a grid in an x-ray?
To avoid surrounding scatting rays
288
Sheep that were grazing on lush pastures died - what is your diagnosis?
Polioencephalomalacia
289
There is a turbinate bone infection - what is the diagnosis?
Aspergillosis
290
What causes the S1 sound?
AV valve closure
291
What causes the S2 sound?
Semilunar valve closure
292
What causes the S3 sound?
Ventricular filling / Ventricular diastole
293
What causes the S4 sound?
Atrial systole
294
The bronchodilation effect of atropine is due to?
Blocking of muscarinic receptors
295
Name a condition where irreversible cell damage occurs.
Apoptosis and Necrosis
296
A nondisplaced fracture present on bone - what is the treatment of choice.
Femur -- Intramedullary pinning
Radius/Tarsals -- Full cast
297
What is the ideal site to collect bone marrow aspirate in ruminants?
Sternum and Ribs
298
Non-Autolyzed fetus abortion is caused by?
Aspergillosis
299
In the auricular nerve block, which muscles are desensitized?
300
What is the GDV electrolyte abnormality normally seen?
Metabolic acidosis
301
What is the name of the pre-anesthetic to be given to prevent the side effects of xylazine?
Atropine
302
Lamsoma Intracellularis signs in pigs?
Porcine proliferative enteritis, ileitis, porcine hemorrhagic enteropathy
303
What suture material and needle type is used in urinary bladder surgery?
Absorbable material and swagged needle
304
What is the difference between tunica media of femoral artery and thoracic aorta ?
Thoracic aorta has more elastic tissue in the tunica media than the femoral artery.
305
Causes of anemia in acetaminophen toxicity
Heinz body
306
Treatment of ventricular tachycardia in dogs?
Lidocaine
307
Treatment of ventricular tachycardia in cats?
Propranolol
308
Zoonotic disease obtained from milk of domestic animals?
Tuberculosis
309
Zoonotic disease obtained from meat of domestic animals?
Salmonella
310
How is heartwater disease transmitted?
Ticks
311
What is the most common disease in the Common Bones (3rd Metacarpal) of Horses?
Bucked Shins
312
Common disease in the Splint Bones (2nd metacarpal) of horses?
Slab fractures
313
A newborn calf is showing signs of blindness - which dificiency?
Vitamin A
314
Treatment of atrial fibrillation of horse?
Quinidine
315
Treatment of atrial fibrillation of dogs?
Digoxin
316
Treatment of atrial fibrillation of cats?
Diltiazem
317
What is the most common congenital heart defect in dogs?
PDA
318
What is the most common congenital heart defect in cats?
VSD
319
What is the most common congenital heart defect in cattle?
VSD
320
What is the most common congenital heart defect in horses?
VSD
321
What is the most common congenital heart defect in pigs?
Tricuspid valve dysplasia
322
What is the most common congenital heart defect in cats?
mitral valve insufficiency
323
Type of suture used in hollow abdominal cavity?
Simple interrupted suture
324
A 2 day old foal with pale mucosa membrane and anemia - what is your diagnosis?
Neonatal isoerythrolysis
325
Neonatal isoerythrolysis occur if the mare is negative for which blood group?
Mare (Aa- and Qa+)
Stallion (Aa+ and Qa+)
326
What is the method of diagnosis of Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion (FORL)?
X-ray
327
In testis, which muscle withdraws them toward the body during the winter?
External Cremaster Muscle
328
Seminal vesicle and cowper's gland are absent in what species?
Dogs
329
Present of skin petechiation in erysipelas is due to what?
Erythema
330
Cantharidin toxicity effects on horses
Colic and Hypocalcemia
331
In hepatic necrosis which liver enzyme is increased?
ALT and AST are increased
332
The ampulla gland is absent in which species?
Pigs, Dogs, Cats, and Swine
333
The vesicular gland is absent in which species?
Cats and Dogs
334
Which ligament holds the ureter?
The round ligament
335
What type of suture material is used in closing the Urinary Bladder?
Absorbable material (Polydioxanone aka PDS)
336
What is the most common Malignant Tumor in Hamsters?
Lymphosarcoma
337
What is the location of Sarcoptes in Dog?
Elbow, Chest, and Ventral Abdomen are the usual locations
338
Insertion of Deep Digital Flexor Tendon (DDF) in Horse?
Palmar surface of the 3rd phalanx
339
Insertion of the Superficial Digital Flexor Tendon (SDF) in horses?
Distal part of 1st phalanx and Proximal part of 2nd phalanx
340
A bat was seen in a dogs mouth - what do you do next?
Report it to the authorities
341
In a cat, a smear was made of black crusty wax seen in the cats ear canals and ear flaps - what is your diagnosis?
Otodectes (cynotis)
342
What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas infection in dogs?
Enrofloxacin
343
Cow with tachycardia (HR>90 bpm), pyrexia (104F), pleuritis with fast shallow, respiration, muffled lung sounds present, machinery sound present - what is your diagnosis?
Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis (TRP)
344
What are the nerves responsible for contraction of the diaphragm?
Phrenic nerve
345
In goats, stones are usually trapped in which papillae?
Filiform Papillae
346
What is the etiology of Swine Dysentery?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
347
Chicken presented with respiratory signs, ocular discharge, nasal discharge, and swollen infraorbital sinus - what is your diagnosis?
Bird Flu / Avian Influenza (H5N1)
348
What is the most common type of Mange in Cattle in the USA?
Chorioptes bovis
349
What is the drug of choice for Acute Glaucoma?
Demecarium bromide
350
An IV injection of Phenylbutazone in Horses causes what?
Laryngeal hemiplegia - affects the upper respiratory airway and decreases airflow to the lungs causing exercise intolerance and roaring.
351
What is the diagnosis of lameness with abduction of shoulder joints in horses?
Suprascapular Nerve Damage
352
Relapsing pancreatitis and chronic pancreatitis is primarily controlled by what method?
Nutritional management
353
Samples for histological diagnosis of bone tumor is collected by what method?
Jamshidi Biopsy Needle
354
What percent of xylazine is required by cattle, sheep, and goat for sedation as compared to horse
Cattle require 10% for xylazine by horse
355
A health certificate expires 30 days from when?
The inspection date
356
On abdominal radiographs of dogs 2.5-3.5 times of length of normal kidney length is what?
The second lumbar vertebrae
357
A cat is presented with skin lesions and respiratory dysplasia - what is your diagnosis?
Cryptococcus
358
The use of extreme cold to destroy unwanted tissue is called what?
Cryosurgery
359
In cats, adenocarcinoma affects which part of the GIT most commonly?
Ilium
360
What are the life threatening toxic drugs in cats?
Cisplatin (affects the phrenic nerve causing dyspnea and death), and 5-Fluorouracil ( neurotoxic causing seizures and ataxia)
361
A picture is given of a Horse with its toe on the ground and heel raised - what is your diagnosis?
Rupture of the Extensor Tendon
362
In endoscopy - if we see the adduction of the arytenoid cartilage, what will be your diagnosis?
Laryngeal Hemiplegia
363
In broiler farms, if you find swelling of wattles and combs what will be your diagnosis?
Infectious Coryza
364
Hi BP in cats is due to what?
Renal Failure
365
Non-regenerative anemia is related to what?
Chronic Renal Failure
366
History of Anemia, Pale Mucous Membrane, presence of Spherocytes - what test will your perform for diagnosis?
COOMBS Test
367
What is the major cause of Abortion in Goats?
Chlamydophila
368
An epidural anesthesia desensitizes which region?
Perineal Region
369
Atropine is an alpha-2-adernergic _______?
antagonist
370
What type of Ration is used in Hepatic Lipidosis?
High Protein, High Carbohydrate, No Fat Ration
371
Common complication in castrated sheep?
Cystitis
372
Etiology of cutaneous larval migrations?
Ancylostoma braziliense
373
Etiology of visceral and ocular larval migrations?
Toxocara canis
374
History of non-autolysed abortion - diagnosis?
Aspergillus fumigatus
375
What is the effect of Medetomidine in Horses?
Slows the heart (alpha-2-adrenergic agonist)
376
Diet for Lymphangiectasia?
Low fat and low long chain fatty acid diet
377
What is the diet for a diabetic animal?
High fiber and Complex Carbohydrates
378
What is the role of Parietal Cells in the Stomach?
HCl Secretions
379
What is the ideal sterilization of endoscopes?
Ethylene oxides
380
A non painful swelling in female dogs after spaying?
Seroma - abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in a dead space containing plasma or lymphatic fluid
381
Sample to submit after strychnine poisoning?
Stomach contents, liver, kidney, and urine
382
How do you prevent ruminal bloat in a sheep after a c-section?
Give the sheep an Anti-Foaming agent (such as Dimethicone 2.0%)
383
What is the treatment of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) in Cats?
Diltiazem and Furosemide are the drugs of choice
384
What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in cattle?
Co1 and Co2 block
385
What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in dog?
L7 - S1 Block
386
What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in pigs?
L7 - S1 block
387
What organ is affected in Copper Poisoning?
Blood and Liver
388
What are the clinical signs of Arsenic Poisoning?
Abdominal Pain, Diarrhea, Vomiting, Hematochezia (fresh blood in the stool) are the usual clinical signs
389
What is the predominant cell type in all infections?
Neutrophils
390
Contents of the umbilical cord
Whartons Jelly, Umbilical arteries, and Umbilical vein.
391
Young cattle has a corneal ulcer - what is your diagnosis?
Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)
392
Old cattle with unilateral exophthalmos - diagnosis?
Bovine Leukosis Virus
393
What is the diagnostic test for FIP in cats?
Organ biopsy
394
How many years do you have to keep records in the clinics?
7 years
395
How do you sterilize a vaginal mouth-scope?
Autoclave
396
What is contraindicated for seizures in dogs?
Acepromazine
397
In what disease of horse do you isolate the but not treat?
Strangles (Equine Distemper) and Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)
398
What organ is affected in Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency?
Heart
399
Which neuromuscular relaxant cannot be effectively antagonized?
Succinyl choline
400
What causes the accommodation of the cornual lense for near vision?
Ciliary muscles contract and zonular relax.
401
What drug is most likely to cause fever in cats?
Tetracycline
402
Which component of the immune system is considered nonspecific in function?
IgM
403
What drug most effectively controls diarrhoea in dogs?
Loperamide (an opioid)
404
How do you diagnose pregnancy in goats?
elevated urinary SO4(-2) levels at 50 days of pregnancy
405
Stationary night blindness is an inherited condition that is common in which horses?
Appaloosa Horses
406
Cryptococcus neoformans is found in the soil and can remain viable for months to years in what?
pigeon droppings
407
What is the drug of choice for Hyperadrenocorticism?
Mitotane, Ketoconazole, and L-Deprenyl Spray
408
What instruments are used to exteriorize ovaries in female dogs?
spay hook and snook
409
What are Large and Pale RBCs called?
Macrocytic Hypochromic Anemia
410
What type of anemia does Haemonchus contortus cause?
Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia
411
Where do the parasitic morula of Ehrlichia canis present?
in Monocytes
412
What is the vector of Leucocytozoon simondi?
Simulium (black fly)
413
Crotalaria photosensitization is due to what?
Liver Damage
414
Strongylus vulgaris blocks the mesenteric artery causing what?
Colic
415
Example of Monocryl?
Poliglecaprone
416
What are the blood groups in dogs?
DEA 1.1 and 7 (1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8)
417
What are the major blood groups in cats?
A and B
418
What is the major blood group in equine?
A, C, Qa
419
Major blood group in bovine?
B, J
420
Major blood group in Ovine?
B, R
421
What is the etiology of leukemia?
FeLV (Feline Leukemia Virus) - a retrovirus
422
What is the treatment for Strongylus in Horses?
Ivermectin and Moxidectin (FENBENDAZOL 10mg/kg/x5d)
423
4 week old piglet had profuse diarrhea, vomiting, and the mortality rate is >90% - what is your diagnosis?
Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE)
424
What is the most common complication in an Ovariohysterectomy?
Ligation of the ureter with the Round Ligament
425
Treatment of Intussusception?
Hold the intussuscepted part from the neck and milk it out.
426
What is the diagnosis if there is regurgitation after food ingestion?
Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)
427
How do you sterilize plastic objects?
Ethylene Oxide and H2O2
428
What is the mechanism of action of an autoclave?
Uses steam under pressure
429
What is the mechanism of action of thermal sterilization?
Protein denaturation by heat
430
What is the name of the suture cutting scissors?
Mayo Scissors
431
Name the part of the spinal chord that will cause paralysis in all four limbs if damaged.
C3-C5
432
A dog comes into the clinic with all four limbs swollen and painful - what is the next step?
Take an X-ray of the Liver
433
Where are pneumatic bones present in mammals?
In the Skull
434
An unvaccinated cat was seen playing with a bat - what is the next step?
Advise the owner to euthanize and check for rabies.
435
Ammonia Urate Crystals are most commonly found in what species of dog?
Dalmatians
436
Flunixin Meglumine is NEVER to be used with what drug?
Dexamethasone
437
What kind of drug is PHENYLBUTAZONE?
NSAIDs
438
Diagnosis of black leg muscle with crepitation?
Black Leg Disease (Clostridium chauvoie)
439
What organ is most affected by Tyzzer Disease (TD)?
Liver
440
What to do if Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) is found present?
Isolate and Euthanize
441
A horse is showing gurgling sounds during and after races - what is your diagnosis?
Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH)
442
Hemosiderin laden macrophages are found in a tracheal wash - what is your diagnosis?
Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH)
443
History of stones stuck in the Os penis of a dog - what is the treatment?
Surgical Urethrostomy
444
What are the signs of Stage II of General Anesthesia?
- Pupil Dilatation
- Involuntary Increased Respiration Rate
- Unconsciousness
445
How can a new disease be introduced into a farm?
By introducing a new Bull
446
Diagnose: A sheep is found with alopecia, skin crusting, and hyperkeratosis.
Zink Poisoning
447
Diagnose: A sheep is found with Blindness that was not blind before.
Lead Poisoning
448
Ewes (Femal Sheep) aborted without autolysis - what is your diagnosis?
Toxoplasmosis
449
Vesicular disease showing Ulceration was found on a pig Coronet - what is your next step?
Report it to the authority.
450
What is the Drug of Choice in bone surgery in dogs?
Cefazolin
451
Bloody diarrhea is a common finding in what kind of poisoning?
Arsenic Poisoning
452
What samples should be collected if Strychnine Poisoning is suspected?
Liver and Gastrointestinal Tract
453
Cats in the South-Western USA can have what zoonotic disease?
Yersinia pestis (Plague)
454
What type of suture material is used to close a bladder after surgery?
Absorbable PDS
455
What type of needle is used to close a bladder after surgery?
swagged needle
456
What is the difference between the tunica media of the femoral artery and the tunica media of the thoracic artery?
The tunica media of the thoracic aorta have more elastic tissue than the femoral artery
457
What is the drug of choice for Tachycardia in dogs?
Lidocaine
458
What are the clinical signs of Jejunal Strangulation?
-Gastric Reflux
-Dyspnea
-Acute Pain
459
Bloody diarrhea is seen in a 7-day old pig and 95% mortality, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Enterotoxemia
(Clostridium perfringens Type-C)
460
What is the most common disease in the Medial Splint (2nd Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?
Slab Fracture
461
What is the most common disease in the Common Bone (3rd Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?
Bucked Shin
462
What is the most common disease in the Later Splint (4th Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?
Chip Fracture
463
What is the Drug of Choice for Atral Fibrillation?
Quinidine
464
What type of suture is used tin a hollow abdominal cavity?
Simple Interrupted Suture Pattern
465
How do you control Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis in goats?
Testing > Segregation > Culling
466
What is the preferred method of diagnosing Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion (FORL)?
X-ray
467
A 2-day old foal is showing diarrhea, and the organism is acid fast - what is the most likely diagnosis?
Cryptosporidium parvum
468
What causes Atrophic Rhinitis in Pigs?
Pasteurella multocida and Bordetella bronchiseptica
469
A patient comes in with a history of cough, vomiting, diarrhea, bilirubinuria, and a picture of damaged kidney - what is the most likely diagnosis?
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
470
What is the major cause of abortion in goats?
Chlamydophila psittacosis
(Chlamydophilosis)
471
Which region is desensitized during Epidural Anesthesia?
Perineal Region Desensitization
472
Shoulder joint pain is seen on palpation - what is the most likely cause?
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
473
What drugs are safe to give in pregnancy?
Penicillin, Erythromycin, and Cephalosporin
474
What is "irreversible cell death caused by disease, injury, or failure of blood supply" called?
Necrosis
475
What is "programmed cell death" called?
Apoptosis
476
How do you support the atlantooccipital joint?
Ventral support
EXAMPLE: Neck brace in humans
477
What is the most common type of necrosis in the brain?
Liquefactive Necrosis
478
The Sciatic Nerve is caudal to what?
coxofemoral Joint
479
If there is over-flexion of the hock joint, then which nerve is there most likely a problem in?
Tibial Nerve
480
Which type of dysfunction most commonly occurs in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Diastolic Disfunction
481
What is the most common organ that is affected in an inguinal hernia?
Intestine
-a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, specifically in the inguinal canal.
482
In which part of the kidney absorbs the most amount of Sodium?
Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
-About 65%
483
Where in the kidney do NSAIDs have their maximum side effects?
Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
484
What is the normal Partial Pressure of Carbon Dioxide (PaCO2) of a Horse?
35-45mmHg
485
Which antibiotic is Contraindicated for use in Foals (young horses)?
Enrofloxacin
-risk of articular cartilage damage
486
An 18-year-old horse is showing a head tilt to the right and circling to the right - where is the lesion most likely located?
Right Side
-lesion on same side as the head tilt
487
What is the most common etiological agent that causes pneumonia in foals?
Streptococcus equi
488
An 18-year-old horse is showing head tilt, circling, and nystagmus with the fast phase going towards the left - where is the lesion most likely located?
Right Side
489
A horse is showing signs of a Haematobia irritans (horn fly) infestation, what other species is most likely close to the horse?
Cattle
-The female horn fly lays eggs in fresh cow manure, even before the cow completes defecation.
490
Which drug does not have extensive hepatic metabolism?
Ampicillin
-excreted by the kidneys
491
What electrolyte findings would you expect to see in a horse with significant blood loss?
Normocytic normochromic anemia, hypoproteinemia, and responsive bone marrow
492
Which virus is normally found in the Upper Respiratory Tract in horses?
Equine adenovirus
493
A horse is presented with megalocytosis, periportal fibrosis, and biliary hyperplasia - what is the most likely diagnosis?
Pyrrolizidine alkaloidosis
494
What is the most common noninfectious cause of abortions in horses?
Twinning
495
Where do the most common conduction disorders occur in horses?
AV Node
496
Which toxin does sweet clover contain and what are its harmful effects?
Dicoumarol (a natural chemical substance of combined plant and fungal origin) > Dicumarol is a potent vitamin K antagonist and anticoagulant leading to Vitamin K deficiency > Coagulopathy
497
What class of drugs is active against gram negative organisms?
Aminoglycosides
EXAMPLE: Gentamicin, Kanamycin, Neomycin, Amikacin
498
During surgery of a horse in the case of colic, the left kidney is not visible - what is the most probable cause?
Nephrosplenic entrapment of large colon
499
Which tooth is the oldest tooth in horse?
Premolar 1 (also known as the Wolf Tooth at 5-6 months)
500
Which test is used for the diagnosis of corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection?
Synergistic Hemolysin inhibition (SHI) test
-detects antibodies against the phospholipase D exotoxin is available at many diagnostic laboratories.
501
Where is the Patent Foramen Ovale is normally located?
New Born Calves
502
What is the best sample to submit in an Anthrax diagnosis?
Blood Sample
503
What is the effect of steroids on leukocytes/WBCs?
Leukocytosis with lymphopenia, increased neutrophils, decreased monocytes, decreased basophils, decreased eosinophils
504
What is the agglutination lysis test is used for the diagnosis of?
Leptospira
505
Which mycoplasma is highly pathogenic in chicken?
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
506
Which mammal is highly susceptible to avian tuberculosis?
Pigs
507
What are scales on shanks, beak, toenails, and feet a modification of?
Epidermis
508
Limberneck in chicken is caused by which toxin of the Clostridium botulinum bacterium?
Type C
509
What is the best antibiotic for treatment of respiratory disease in chickens?
Tylosin
-macrolide antibiotic and bacteriostatic feed additive, broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive organisms, and a limited range of Gram-negative organisms.
510
What is the most potent renal toxin?
Methyl guanidine
511
What is Odontodystrophy ?
Hypoplasia of the enamel of teeth
512
What is the most common type of tumor of the GIT in bovines?
Lymphosarcoma
EXAMPLE: Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
513
What is some virus induced tumor in the oral cavity in dogs?
Viral warts and, most commonly, papilloma
514
What is the most common oral benign tumor in dogs?
Epulis Tumors
515
What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs?
Malignant melanoma
-a serious form of skin cancer that originates from melanocytes
516
What is the most common oral malignant tumor in cats?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
-SSC is a type of skin cancer that affects cats; can occur in various areas, including the eyelids, top edge of the nose (nasal planum), lips, ears, and other regions exposed to ultraviolet rays (sunlight). Cats with sparser hair and lighter pigmentation are more susceptible; Tumors may appear as shallow or deep sores (ulceration), raised reddened areas, or cauliflower-like growths.
517
What is the most common site for the development of ulcers in the stomach in pigs?
Diverticulum region
518
Torsion of the colon is commonly reported in horses, what does it generally involve?
Left Dorsal Colon
519
Which parasite has a flattened operculum at one end?
Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke)
520
What does the term Silhouette mean when referring to x-rays?
2 structures of the same radiographic density are in close contact, and their margins cannot be distinguished radiographically.
521
An air bronchogram identifies which type of lung pattern?
Alveolar Lung Pattern
522
After a bone fracture, when does periosteal new bone appear radiographically?
7-10 weeks
523
Hemomelasma ilei, nodules/hemorrhagic lesions in the ilium and jejunum of horses, is due to what?
migration of Strongylus vulgaris or Oxyuris equi larvae
524
What is Sleepy Foal Disease (Joint Ill) caused by?
Actinobacillus equuli
525
Which aminoglycosides are the least toxic?
Neomycin and Streptomycin
-Gentamycin and kanamycin are the most toxic
526
What is Constrictive Pericarditis is pigs caused by?
Haemophilus parasium
(Glasser Disease caused by Haemophilus parasuis)
527
A deficiency of what causes Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) in cats?
Taurine
528
What is the most common myocardial disease in dogs?
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)
529
What is the most common myocardial disease in cats?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
530
What is it called when there is pus in the anterior chamber of the eye?
Hypopyon
531
What is COR-Pulmonale?
pulmonary hypertension
(heart disease is secondary to disease in the lungs)
532
What is PLR?
Pupillary Light Reflex
-also known as the photopupillary reflex
-an automatic response of the eye to changes in ambient illumination
533
What is retroillumination?
an indirect lighting technique used in slit lamp examination to assess the integrity and clarity of the cornea and crystalline lens.
-Retroillumination involves shining light from directly behind the eye structures (cornea, lens, and iris). The reflected light provides valuable information about opacities, defects, and abnormalities.
534
How do you diagnose the patency of the Nasolacrimal Duct?
A fluorescence dye is given in the eye and if it drains through the nose there is patency of nasolacrimal duct.
535
What is Distichiasis?
having an extra row of eyelashes
-cilia growing from the membrane glad which can abrade the surface of the cornea
536
Pupil constriction muscles are supplied to by which nerve?
Oculomotor (CN3)
537
The lacrimal gland is supplied to by which nerve?
Facial (CN7)
538
Which antibody is present in the respiratory mucosa?
Immunoglobulin-A
539
The nasal passages have about 50% resistance to air. What is the olfactory epithelium rich in which protective enzyme?
Cytochromes P450 (P450s or CYPs)
-a superfamily of enzymes containing heme as a cofactor that mostly, but not exclusively, function as monooxygenases.
540
Inclusion Body Rhinitis (IBR) in pregnant sows may cause what?
Mummification of the Fetus
541
What is Hashimoto Thyroiditis?
Autoimmune thyroiditis
-Hashimoto’s disease is characterized by the immune system attacking healthy thyroid tissue. This leads to the gradual destruction of the thyroid’s hormone-producing cells.
542
What are 95% of Hypothyroidism cases in dogs due to?
Primary destruction of the thyroid gland due to an autoimmune disease or idiopathic reasons
543
What is seen in case of Hypothyroidism?
decreased resting serum T4, Hypercholesteremia, and normocytic normochromic anemia
544
In which condition is calcitonin increased?
Hypercalcemia
RECALL: a hormone produced by the C-cells in your thyroid gland that's main role is to regulate blood calcium levels by decreasing them.
545
What is pheochromocytoma?
Tumor of the Adrenal Medulla
546
What are the typical signs of hypoadrenocorticism?
vomiting, diarrhea, melena, muscle weakness, and hypovolemia
high blood pressure is NOT a sign of hypoadrenocorticism
547
Growth hormone deficiency is hereditary in what dog breed?
Pomeranians
548
What is the most frequent type of pancreatic tumor type?
Carcinoma - originates from epithelial tissue
549
Which exocrine pancreatic enzyme digests carbohydrates?
Amylase
550
What do alpha cells in the endocrine pancreas produce?
Glucagon
RECALL: Glucagon raises blood sugar levels by promoting the release of stored glucose from the liver. It also increases fatty acid levels in the bloodstream.
551
What is the carcinoma of the beta cells called?
Insulinoma
552
What type of diabetes do 50-60% of cats have?
Type 1 Diabetes
553
How long is the prepatent period of Trichuris Vulpis?
3 months
554
What is the common lesion of salmonellosis in horses?
Fibro-necrotic Fibrosis of the Colon
555
List the digestive organs of psittacine (birds) from most cranial to most caudal.
mouth, esophagus, crop, proventriculus, ventriculus or gizzard, intestine, ceca, rectum, and cloaca
556
What kind of toxin causes food born botulism?
Neurotoxin
557
What causes Milk Spots on the liver of pigs?
Ascaris suum
558
Which species possess Atropinase?
Lagomorphs (hare, rabbits, pika, etc.)
559
What is the most popular pet in America?
Tropical Aquarium Fish
560
What type of toxin causes food born staphylococcosis?
Enterotoxin
561
Adult echinococcus granulosis reside in the intestines of what species?
Dogs
562
What is the most common type of arrhythmia associated with IV use of Thiopental in dogs?
Ventricular Bigeminy
-a heart rhythm characterized by alternating normal sinus beats with premature ventricular complexes
563
Which disorder is most likely to cause transudative ascites?
Nephrotic Syndrome
-can be caused by damage to the glomerulus, which are clusters of small blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess water from the blood.
-Disease-specific to the kidneys, Congenital infections, Diabetes, etc.
564
More than 50% of all rabies cases in the US involve transmission via what animal?
Raccoons (>50%)
565
Allergies result in the production of which antibodies?
IgE
566
What is the lack of immune response to the self-called?
Tolerance
567
What is the immune response to the self-called?
Autoimmunity
568
Which of the following is NOT an opioid: Butorphanol, Morphine, Methadone, Medetomidine, or Meperidine?
Medetomidine is an Alpha-2-Adenergic Agonist
569
Which layer of the Integument contains melanocytes?
Stratum germinativum
-Also known as the basal cell layer, it’s responsible for cell division and the production of new skin cells.
570
What does the chordae tendineae attach to?
Papillary Muscles
-chordae tendineae are thin, fibrous strands of tissue int he hearts that connect the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid) to the ventricles.
571
Which of the following is NOT an exocrine gland: Ceruminous glands, Eccrine, Sebaceous, Apocrine, or Pineal?
Pineal gland is an endocrine gland
572
What cells secrete Pepsin?
Chief Cells
-located at the base of the gastric gland and are present in the fundus
573
What cells secrete HCl?
Parietal cells
-epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach
574
Which hormone is known to increase bowl motility?
Gastrin
-a hormone produced by the digestive system that helps break down food by stimulating the stomach to release hydrochloric acid (HCl)
575
What is the tube that links two osteons called?
Volkmann's Canal
-a network of small channels in cortical bones that allow blood vessels to pass from the periosteum into the bone. They also connect the Haversian canals, which run inside osteons, to each other and to the periosteum. Volkmann's canals are also known as perforating holes or channels.
576
What is the naturally occurring mineral form of calcium called?
Hydroxyapatite
-Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
-Hydroxyapatite (HA) is an inorganic mineral that's a key component of bone and tooth enamel, providing hardness and structural strength. It's also known as calcium apatite or calcium phosphate.
577
What is the optimum number of days per year to milk a cow?
305 days
(Lactation for about 10 months with a 2-month dry period in which the cow prepares to give birth)
578
How tall is an 18-hand horse?
6 feet at the withers
CALCULATIONS:
-(1 hand = 4in) & (12in=1ft)
-(18 hands) x (4 inches) = 72 inches
-(72 inches) / (12 inches) = 6 feet
579
What are the Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors?
Coagulation Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10
580
What is the process by which calcium is deposited secondary to necrosis?
Dystrophic calcification
- The abnormal accumulation of calcium salts in injured or degenerated tissues.
-This type of calcification is often seen in areas of cell necrosis, such as hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules.
581
What is the approximate half-life of Vitamin D3 as Calcidol (known as calcifediol or 25-hydroxyvitamin D3)?
15 days
582
What is the approximate half-life of Vitamin D3 as Calcitriol (known as 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)?
15 hours
583
Which of the following is NOT among the top 3 Vitamin D rodenticide in the USA: d-Con, Quintox, Rampage, Rat-B-Gone?
d-Con is an anticoagulant rodenticide not a Vitamin D rodenticide.
584
What is the antidote for Vitamin D rodenticides?
Salmon Calcitonin
-a peptide hormone found in salmon that's used to treat osteoporosis, Paget's disease of bone, and hypercalcemia.
585
Which of the following is the specimen of choice to check the level of arsenic: Serum, Liver, Kidney, or Urine?
1. Urine
2. Liver or Kidney
3. Serum
586
What is the drug/treatment of choice for Arsenic Poisoning?
Dimercaprol
-Dimercaprol, also known as British anti-Lewisite (BAL), is a medication used to treat acute poisoning by arsenic, mercury, gold, and lead.
587
In what part of the GIT is Iron absorbed?
Duodenum and Jejunum
588
What is the best chelator used in Iron Toxicity?
Deferoxamine
-a medication that binds iron and aluminum
589
Which of the following is least likely to be affected by Iron Toxicity: Heart, Liver, Intestine, or Nervous System (brain)?
Nervous System is least likely to be affected
590
A penny is comprised of how much (%) of Zinc?
>90% zinc in a penny
591
Pennies used to be made of copper, what year did they change to Zinc?
1982-1983
592
What are the changes in the RBCs seen in Zinc toxicity?
SPHEROCYTES, BASOPHILIC STRIPPING, and TARGET CELLS
-SPHEROCYTES (red blood cells that take on a round shape instead of the typical biconcave disc shape when observed under a microscope)
-BASOPHILIC STRIPPING (also known as punctate basophilia, refers to the presence of numerous basophilic granules dispersed throughout the cytoplasm of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in a peripheral blood smear.)
-TARGET CELLS (also known as codocytes, exhibit a distinctive appearance under the microscope. They resemble a shooting target with a bullseye.)
592
What is the chef clinical sign of Zinc toxicity?
Intravascular hemolysis
593
In the case of Hemolytic Anemia, it is important to rule out Zinc Toxicity - what is the color of the appropriate tube used for collection?
-Green top (Heparinized)
-Royal Blue/Purple top (EDTA Vial)
594
What does Acetaminophen toxicity cause in cats?
Methemoglobinemia
-and Heinz Body Anemia
595
What is the drug/treatment of choice for Ionophore Toxicity?
There is no antidote
RECALL: Ionophores are lipid-soluble molecules used in veterinary medicine to transport ions across cell membranes. They disrupt ion concentration gradients for calcium, potassium, hydrogen, and sodium ions in microorganisms, leading to antimicrobial effects. Common ionophores include monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin, narasin, maduramicin, semduramicin, and laidlomycin propionate.
596
Cotton Seed Meal can cause what type of toxicity?
Gossypol Toxicity
597
What is the treatment for choice for Permethrin Toxicity?
Methocarbamol
-a muscle relaxer used to treat skeletal muscle conditions such as pain or injury.
598
What is the treatment of choice for Organophosphate Toxicity in Dogs?
-Diazepam and Pentobarbital are used to control seizures.
-Atropine is used to control salivation.
-Pralidoxime Chloride to reactivate cholinesterase which has been inactivated by phosphorylation due to an organophosphate.
599
What are the pathognomic signs of Uria Toxicity in Cattle/Bovine?
Toxicity and Nonprotein Nitrogen (NPN) wildly aberrant behavior also known as Bovine Bonkers
-Clinical signs associated with this syndrome include CNS effects, such as stampeding, ear twitching, trembling, champing, salivating, and convulsions
600
What plant is associated with High Mountain Disease?
Locoweed
-also crazyweed and loco
-a common name in North America for any plant that produces swainsonine, an alkaloid harmful to livestock.
-Astragalus and Oxytropis spp.
601
Which plant is associated with photosensitization?
Horse Brush
(Tetradymia glabrata, T. canescens)
602
What is the drug of choice for Antifreeze Toxicity in Dogs?
Fomepizole
-an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase used as an antidote in confirmed or suspected methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning
603
What is the drug of choice for Antifreeze Toxicity in Cats?
Ethanol (20%)
-If a cat ingests antifreeze, intravenous treatment with ethanol can be helpful if administered promptly.
--The recommended dose for cats is (5 ml of 20% ethanol solution per kilogram intravenously every 6 hours) for 5 treatments, followed by (every 8 hours) for 4 additional treatments.
604
What is the Drug of Choice for Urea/NPN toxicity in cattle?
2-8L acetic acid and 3-10 gallons of cold water
605
What is the drug of choice for Ethylene Glycol Toxicity?
Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole)
-a competitive ADH inhibitor used to block metabolism of ethylene glycol and methanol to their toxic metabolites.
606
What is the drug of choice for Permethrin (an insecticide)?
Methocarbamol
-Treatment of feline permethrin toxicity with IV methocarbamol is widely recommended (55–220 mg/kg up to 330 mg/kg/day, give half the dose rapidly, not exceeding 200 mg/min and then the rest to effect).
607
What is the drug of choice for Organophosphate Toxicity?
Pralidoxime Chloride
