General Protocols Flashcards
(285 cards)
1
Q
In what order should you attempt to contact medical direction for ALS level 2 orders?
A
1 medcom
2 telephone
3 relay of information via dispatch
1
Q
What are some organic causes of behavioral emergencies that should be treated?
A
hypoglycemia
Hypoxia
Poisoning
1
Q
When using any type of physical restraint you should?
A
Constantly monitor and observe patient to prevent injury
Place patient on ECG monitor and pulse ox
Carefully rationale for the use of restraints
1
Q
With the violent/impaired patient it may be necessary for law enforcement to execute?
A
Involuntary certificate for examination
Baker Act FS 394.463
1
Q
When is it imperative for the paramedic to attempt to have a female police officer accompany rescue to the hospital?
A
Cases of possible rape
1
Q
Baker Act is?
A
Authorization of certain medical care for a person who poses a threat to self or others
1
Q
Incapacitated persons law allows for?
A
Examination and treatment of incapacitated persons in emergency situations who are not capable of informed consent
1
Q
CISM is?
A
Comprehensive, integrated, multicomponent, systematic program for crisis intervention
1
Q
What is the purpose of CISM?
A
To provide education, support, assessment, and intervention for emergency service personnel who are exposed to or effected by critical incidents
1
Q
CISM was formulated and standardized by the?
A
International crisis incident stress foundation
1
Q
To be on the CISM team you must have completed?
A
3 of the core ICISF courses
1
Q
How quickly is the broward CISM team designed to respond to a request for CISM?
A
Max of 2 hours
24 x 7 x 365
1
Q
Small group CISM defusing is recommended for?
A
Within 12 hours after incident
1
Q
Small group CISM debriefing is for?
A
12 to 72 hours past critical incident
1
Q
Types of CISM services provided by broward CISM team?
A
Pre event planning Strategic planning and assessment Individual intervention Small group defusing Small group debriefing Crisis management briefing Family crisis intervention Organized consultation Assessment of organizational needs Development and recommendation for coordination and delivery of services Pastoral/spiritual crisis intervention Referral and follow up
1
Q
Types of critical incidents?
A
Pediatric death or injury Multiple youth fatalities Events with sever operational challenges Line of duty death or injury Officer involved shooting Off duty death, suicide, injury or homicide Events with multiple or mass casualties Prolonged events with loss of life events when victims are known Events with excessive media interest Any event that could perceivably cause emotional impact
1
Q
What information should be supplied when requesting CISM?
A
Agency name
Type of incident
Number of members involved
Call back number
2
Q
EMT or paramedic shall withhold or withdrawal DPR upon?
A
Presentation of an original or completed copy of DNRO
Presentation of observation of DNRO device on patient
3
Q
DNRO form number?
A
1896
3
Q
DNRO forms must be signed by?
A
Physician and patient
3
Q
If a patient is incapable of signing a DNRO who may sign it?
A
Health care surrogate
Court appointed guardian
Person acting pursuant to a durable power of attorney
3
Q
How may a person be identified for verification of a DNRO?
A
License
Other photo identification
From a witness in the presence of the patient
3
Q
If using a witness to identify patient of DNRO what must be documented in the PCR?
A
Full name of witness
Address and telephone
Relationship
3
Q
What care during transport will you not provide to a patient with a DNRO?
A
Pulmonary or cardiac resuscitation
3
EMS providers shall provide what care to DNRO patients?
Comforting
Pain relieving
Any care short of CPR
3
Who may at anytime revoke a DNRO?
Whomever signed it
4
How may a DNRO be revoked?
In writing
Physician destruction
Failure to present
Orally expressing a contrary intent
5
Who may determine a patient is dead/non salavagable?
EMT or paramedic
5
4 presumptive signs of death?
Unresponsive
Apnea
Pulseless
Fixed dilated pupils
5
4 conclusive signs of death?
Injuries incompatible with life
Tissue decomposition
Rigor mortis of any degree with warm air temp
Liver mortis of any degree
5
Liver mortis is?
Purple discoloration of skin
| Does not blanch with pressure
6
Which patients require full ALS resuscitation unless they have injuries incompatible with life or tissue decomposition?
Hypothermia
Barbiturate overdose
Electrocution
7
Who is excluded in death in field protocol unless EMS personnel make contact with medical direction?
Children
7
What must be obvious in children death in the field for resuscitation not to be started?
Prolonged death
| Or cases in which unexpected death has occured
8
A trauma victim who doe snot meet determination of death criteria may be determined to be dead if patient is?
Pulseless and apenic with asystole(confirmed in 2 leads)
9
A trauma victim who does not meet determination of death criteria and is pulseless and apenic with asystole in 2 leads may be determined to be dead if they have either?
Blunt trauma arrest
Prolonged extrication time where no resuscitative measure can be initiated prior to extrication
Arrest from primary brain injury or with no brain stem reflexes, arrest from multiple injuries
10
What amount of time is considered blunt trauma arrest?
15 minutes
11
What is required in determination of death in trauma arrest with prolonged extrication time?
Additional rhythm assessment followed by at least one reassessment after 15 minutes
12
If there is a delay in presentation of DNRO you should?
Start CPR
| May be terminated with direction from medical control
13
What must be completed for a paramedic to terminate resuscitation?
Order from medical control
BLS and ALS treatments have been attempted without restoration of circulation or breathing
Advanced airway
IV medications and counter shocks
Persistent asystole ECG patterns present and no reversible causes
13
What must be attached to EMS report for death in the field?
ECG rhythm
14
Advanced airway in death in the field you must?
Verify by 2 paramedics
Leave in place
Confirm recorded on EMS report
15
Improperly placed advanced airway should be?
Left in place
| Reported to appropriate personnel
16
Purpose of rehab protocol?
To examine and evaluate the physical and mental status of emergency workers working on an emergency incident or a training exercise and determine which treatment if any is necessary
16
It is recommended that a rehab area be utilized at all working incidents to provide?
A staging area for all on scene personnel
An immediate source of personnel for rescue or aid
Area for recovery and rehab of emergency workers
17
Where should a rehab area be located?
Away from environmental hazards
Readily accessible to rescue personnel for transport and supplies
18
What else will be located at the rehab area?
Air truck
| Canteen service
18
In large incidents?
Multiple rehab areas may be necessary
18
If a specific location has not been assigned by the IC for rehab who will designate it?
The rehab officer
18
Rehab should be far enough away from the incident to allow for rescue personnel to?
Remove SCBA
| Be afforded mental rest from the stress and pressure of the emergency operation or training evolution
19
The rehab officer shall secure all necessary resources required to staff and apply area. These items include?
Fluids
Food(3 or more hours)
Medical equipment
Other(cool zone and warming zone equipment)
20
Firefighters shall be evaluated by rehab when they have?
Used 2 SCBA bottles and/or 30 minutes of strenuous activity
SCBA failure
Weakness/dizziness, chest pain, muscle cramps, nausea/vomiting, AMS, difficulty breathing, other stress related symptoms
At the discretion of the IC, rehab officer, safety officer, CISM coordinator, company officer
20
A medical evaluation form shall be completed on who?
All personnel entering the rehab area and before they return to emergency work
20
Examinations of emergency workers in the rehab area will be conducted at what intervals?
10 minute intervals
20
Emergency worker rehab examination should include?
```
GCS
Pupil response
Vitals
ECG
Lung sounds
Skin condition
Signs and symptoms
Oral temp
Pulse ox to include carboxyhemoglobin sat
```
20
How long must emergency workers who enter rehab rest prior to returning to work?
15 minutes
20
At no time should a emergency workers pulse exceed?
180
21
What is the normal resting pulse of an emergency worker?
100
22
What is the normal working pulse of an emergency worker?
Less than 120
22
Carbon monoxide for non smokers will be?
5%
23
Carbon monoxide for smokers will normally be?
Less than 8%
24
Carbon monoxide of more than what indicates moderate CO inhalation?
12%
24
Carbon monoxide reading of more than what indicates severe carbon monoxide inhalation?
25%
25
A body temp above what is abnormal in rehab?
100.6
26
Emergency workers can return to manpower when?
Presentations are normal
27
How quickly should workers presentations return to normal in rehab?
Within 15 minutes
28
What should be done if a team members HR exceeds 110?
Oral temp should be taken
28
If a emergency workers HR exceeds 110 and oral temp is greater than 100.6 you should?
Not permit member to wear protective equipment
Treat for heat stress and monitor for worsening conditions
29
Emergency responders will receive ALS treatment and transport if presentations are abnormal for more than?
15 minutes
29
Emergency workers presenting with what will immediately receive ALS treatment and transport?
Chest pain
Difficulty breathing
AMS
30
Abnormal presentations in emergency worker rehab include?
```
Sp02 below 92%
HR greater than 120 for 15 minutes
CO levels above 25%
BP above or below workers normal levels
Symptoms of heat stroke
Oral temp greater than 100.6 of more than 15 minutes
```
31
Any emergency worker with CO levels of more than 8 but less than 15 should?
Be given opportunity to breath ambient air for 5 minutes
32
After giving emergency worker with CO level above 8 but less than 15 minutes 5 minutes to breath ambient air what should you do if CO level is still higher than 8%?
Give oxygen via mask until below 5%
33
No worker can leave rehab area until CO level is less than?
8%
33
Prior to the emergency worker taking anything orally he should?
wash his hands and face
34
What is the minimum amount of oral hydration for emergency worker rehab?
Minimum 1 to 2 quarts over 15 minute period
| Water than full strength electrolyte
35
What type of substances should be avoided in hydration of emergency workers?
Caffeine
36
How much fluid shall members hydrate with while SCBAs are being changed?
8 ounces
37
What type of foods should be avoided in rehab incidents over 3 hours?
Fatty and salty foods
Soups, broths or stews digest much faster than sandwiches and fast food
38
Emergency workers assigned to rehab shall?
Enter and exit as a group
39
What shall be documented by the rehab officer on his check in/out sheet?
Crew designation
Number of crew members
Time of entry and exit
39
Crews should not exit the rehab area until?
Authorized to do so by the rehab officer
Vitals within normal limits
Minimum of 15 minutes of rest and hydration
Absense of abnormal signs and symptoms
39
Rehab officer shall deny return to duty of emergency worker if?
Vomiting, diarrhea, heat exhaustion in less than 72 hours
Large skin wounds/rash
Insulin dependent diabetic not eaten in past 4 hours
Wheezing or congested lungs
Respirations below 8 or above 40
Pulse above 120 or irregular
Sp02 below 92%
SpCO above 8 after oxygen
Oral temp above 101 or below 90
Systolic BP above 160 or below 100
Dizziness
Need for transport
39
Consider transport of emergency worker to hospital if has any of the following for 20 minutes
```
Respirations less than 8 or more than 40
Pulse rate over 120
Sp02 less than 92%
SpCO greater than 8 after oxygen
Oral temp above 101 or below 90
Systolic BP above 160 or below 100
```
39
transport emergency worker to hospital immediately if?
```
Irregular pulse
AMS
Symptoms of heat stroke
Significant head injury
SOB
Chest pain
Severe headache
SpCO above 25%
```
39
Where should you attempt to take a emergency worker with SpCO above 25%?
Hospital with hyperbaric chamber
39
What personnel will have a PCR completed on them?
ALS treatment and transport
40
What shall be completed on each firefighter or emergency worker who is not routinely returned to emergency operations?
EMS run report
| Casualty report
41
How much water per hour should members consume in rehab?
1 quart per hour
41
A complete PCR shall be completed on in rehab?
Any member who receives treatment/transport
41
Standard dispatch for air rescue assignment?
1 rescue and 1 engine
41
HS should setup as to facilitate takeoffs and landings in which direction?
Into the wind
41
The approach and departure for air rescue HS should be clear of obstacles?
40 feet tall
| Within 100 feet of HS
41
What is the minimum tailer rotor guard for air rescue at HS?
Minimum of 1
| 2 if available
42
Where should the marshaller stand on air rescue landings and takeoffs?
Outer edge of HS perimeter
Windward side
Back to wind
43
Who will have primary responsibility for marshaling duties?
Apparatus LT or captain
44
Who will maintain constant radio contact with helicopter and visual contact with marshaller?
Additional firefighter
44
Does the marshaller approach the aircraft?
No, remain vigilant at all times
45
What equipment shall a marshaller use?
```
Helmet with chin strap
Goggles or visor down
Gloves
Full bunker gear
Flashlights with wands for night ops
```
45
When can you approach air rescue?
Only when given the all clear signal by crew members
All personnel approach air rescue must stay in constant contact with pilots field of vision at all times
46
What should not be used on air rescue HS?
Road flares
Spotlight or headlights shined at helicopter
Shinning lights or strobes may cause vertigo, night blindness or seizures in pilot
46
It is imperative that ground rescue do what prior to air rescue arrival?
Contact receiving facility
47
Which information needs to be relayed to air rescue?
Number of patients
| Receiving facility
48
What is the minimum amount of backboard straps a patient should be secured with when transporting by air rescue?
3
Unless contraindicated by condition
49
Where should you place an additional backboard strap on unruly patients?
Over the knees
50
How many people will carry the stretcher to air rescue?
Minimum 4
1 must be a air rescue crew member
51
What must each person carrying stretcher to air rescue be wearing?
Helmet with face shield and chin strap
52
If using a stretcher to carry a difficult patient to air rescue what must be removed?
Pillows, sheets, mattress
52
What procedures are acceptable to delay transport when using air rescue?
Those used to maintain airway
52
What should you advise air rescue of when in route?
Additional equipment for difficult airway
53
Where should rescue crews remain until helicopter has manded?
At least 100 feet away or at incident site
54
No personnel should approach air rescue unless?
Cleared in by air rescue crew members
55
In the event that air rescue crews require assistance with patient care who will accompany patient during air transport?
Paramedic in charge
56
What is the minimum size of a HS?
100 x 100
57
What is the sequence information should be communicated to ER physician?
```
Priority code and receiving facility
Rescue number/paramedic name
Patient age/sex
Patient complaint or major problem/time of onset
Assessment:mental status, ROM, pupils, skin, BBS, BP, P, R, ECG, hemodynamic condition
GCS
MOI
Hx of illness, meds used, allergies
Treatment given
ETA
```
58
Priority 1?
Critical
59
Priority 2?
Serious
60
Priority 3?
Stable
61
Priority 4?
Admin traffic
62
A critical patient is one who?
Presents with immediately life threatening illness or injury
63
A serious priority patient is one who?
Presents with illness or injury requiring immediate medical intervention and that has potential to become life threatening if not treated promptly
64
A stable patient is one who?
Presents with illness or injury not requiring immediate medical intervention or that is so easily managed that medical direction is not required
Also used for notification of impending patient arrival to facility
65
A trauma alert is communicated via?
Fire dispatch
66
A second trauma alert contact should be made?
Via medcom to hospital
67
When communicating trauma alert you must include?
```
Rescue number/name
Name of receiving facility
Category(adult, pediatric, obstetrical)
Trauma alert criteria
Patients sex
Number of patients
ETA and by ground or air
```
68
Who should receive proper evaluation, treatment, and transport to appropriate facility?
All patients of potential patients
69
For a person to refuse medical care they must be presumed?
Competent
70
In cases of refusal of care in minors attention should be given to signs of?
Child abuse
71
What patients are able to refuse care?
Competent adults, emancipated minors or legal representative of a patient
72
A competent patient is defined by the ability to?
Understand the nature and consequences of his actions by refusing medical care and/or transport
73
A person is considered an adult if they are?
Over 18
| Emancipated minor
74
Emancipated minors are?
Self sufficient minors
Married minors
Minor in the military
75
What patients are not able to refuse care?
Incompetent patients
76
A person is considered incompetent and unable to refuse medical care of transport if?
The severity of the medical condition prevents the patient from making an informed rational decision regarding medical care
77
A person may not refuse medical care if they have?
```
Altered LOC
Suicide attempt
Severally altered vital signs
Mental retardation of deficiency
Not acting as a reasonable person would given the same circumstances
Younger than 18
```
78
Under what principle may a person be treated and transported who is considered incompetent?
Implied consent
79
Implied consent is?
What the reasonable individual person would consent to under the same circumstances?
80
Under the refusal of care procedure you should determine that the individual is involved in the?
Incident
81
When a patient is refusing care you should determine individual is refusing to allow for?
Proper evaluation
Necessary treatment
Necessary transport
82
Unless a person specifically refuses you should complete what on all patients?
Complete physical exam
83
What must you inform the patient who is refusing care of and make sure they completely understand?
```
Potential consequences(loss of limb or life, irreversible sequalae)
The explanation
```
84
All measure should be taken to convince patient to consent including?
Enlisting help of friends and family
85
If a patient fully refuses medical are the paitent or responsible party should?
Sign a refusal of care
86
When a person signs a refusal of care what information should be provided?
Release is against medical advice
Release applies to this instance only
EMS should be requested again if necessary
87
After a refusal of care is signed it must be?
Witnessed(legibly printed name, contact information, signature of witness)
88
When can you combine refusal of care of multiple patients on 1 report?
When individuals refuse ALL assistance
| Including proper evaluation
147
What must be documented in refusal of care in multiple patients?
Name
Addresses
Witnesses
147
When should medical direction be contacted for consultation in instances of refusal of care?
Low severity under 18
Patient who represents a significant risk to patient of EMS system
Patient who is not own legal guardian
Post seizure of administration of D50 or Narcan
148
When a patient refuses to be transported to the closest appropriate facility this is considered?
Refusing transport
| Contact local department supervisor
149
What is the purpose of the mass casualty incident protocol?
Efficiently triage, treat, transport victims of MCI's
150
What should the officer of the first arriving unit do in MCI's?
Establish command
Perform scene size up estimating number of victims
Request level 1-5 response
Identify staging area
Direct remaining crew and additional personnel arriving to initiate triage
Triage in accordance with START or JumpSTART
151
Red ribbon means?
Immediate care is needed
151
Yellow ribbon means?
Delayed care is needed
152
Green ribbon means?
Ambulatory(minor injury)
152
Black ribbon means?
Deceased(non-salavagable)
153
Al walking wounded should be?
Located and directed to one location away from incident
154
What opfficers need to be designated by command at MCI's?
Triage
Treatment
Transport
Staging
155
In MCI's if suspected or known WMD event command should designate what officer to assist with decontamination, antidotes and treatment?
Medical intelligence officer
156
When will trauma transport decision be made?
Secondary triage in treatment phase
157
Who will medcom relay information to about hospital capabilities?
Transport officer or medical communications officer
158
A strike team is a ?
Specific combination of the SAME KIND of resources with common communications and a leader
159
A task force is?
A GROUP of resources with common communications and a leader
159
Level 1 MCI?
5 - 10 patients
159
Level 2 MCI?
11 - 20 patients
160
Level 3 MCI?
21 - 100 patients
160
Level 4 MCI?
101 -1000 patients
160
Level 5 MCI?
Over 100 victims
161
Who do triage, treatment, and transport branch officers report to?
Medical branch
162
Who does medical communications coordinator report to?
Transport officer
163
Staging officer reports to?
Command
164
How many triage tags should each MCI kit have?
50
165
When does secondary triage happen?
Treatment phase
166
Who is responsible for coordination of victims and maintenance of records relating to victim identification, injuries, mode of transport, and destination?
Transport officer
167
White vest?
Command
168
Blue vest?
Medical officer
169
Yellow vest?
Triage officer
170
Red vest?
Treatment
171
Green vest?
Transport
172
Green striped vest?
Medical communication coordinator
172
Blue striped vest?
Med supply
172
Orange vest?
Staging
172
When do you remove a ribbon of a MCI victim?
Once you have completed and attached a triage tag in secondary triage
172
When do you determine priority of transport in MCI's?
Treatment phase
173
What does RPM stand for?
Respirations
Perfusion
Mental status
173
What should you do once you have encounter a red in the START assessment?
Stop, dont proceed any further
| Tag red
174
What problems should be managed during triage of MCI?
Only life threatening problems such as airway and major bleeding
175
During triage of an adult if respirations are more than 30 you should?
Tag red
176
During adult triage if a patient is not breathing you should?
Open airway
| Remove obstruction if seen and assess for respirations
177
If adult victim is not breathing after opening airway and removing obstruction you should?
Tag black
178
If during adult triage patient has respirations less than 30 and radial pulse you should?
Assess mental status
179
If during adult triage patient has respirations less than 30 but no radial pulse you should?
Tag red
180
If during adult triage patient has radial pulse and respirations less than 30 but does not follow commands is disoriented or unconscious you should?
Tag red
181
When do you control major bleeding in triage assessment?
While assessing perfusion
182
Who is responsible for maintaining status information(# of victims, hospital readiness to accept victims) in MCI's?
MRCC(medical resource coordination center)
183
How do you check for a person mental status in triage?
Check the victims ability to follow simple commands
| Check orientation to time, person, place
184
What color tag should you prioritize a patient who has respirations under 30, radial pulse and is oriented x3?
Green
185
When would you prioritize a MCI victim as yellow?
Depending on victims injuries if they don't qualify for any red tags
186
When should you use the JUMPstart triage assessment?
Patients younger than 8
| Patients with anatomical or physiological features of a child
187
For the JUMPstart assessment of respirations when should you move on to the perfusion assessment?
Respirations between 15 and 45
188
During JUMPstart assessment you should tag red if respirations are?
Under 15
| Over 45
189
If patient is not breathing during JUMPstart assessment you should?
Open airway
Remove obstruction
Assess breathing
190
If a patient is not breathing after opening airway or removing obstruction in the eJUMPstart assessment you should?
Check a radial pulse
191
If a victim is not breathing but has a radial pulse or pedal pulse in the JUMPstart assessment you should?
Provide 5 ventilations
| Approx 15 seconds
192
If spontaneous respirations resume after giving 5 breaths to a victim who was not breathing with a radial pulse you should?
Tag red
193
If victim is still not breathing after giving 5 breaths in JUMPstart assessment you should?
Prioritize black
194
When assessing perfusion in the JUMPstart assessment when should you move on to mental status?
When there is a peripheral pulse
195
When should you tag a victim red in the perfusion portion of the JUMPstart assessment?
When there is no peripheral pulse
196
When assessing mental status in a victim with the JUMPstart assessment you should tag red if?
Only responding to pain
| Unconscious
197
If a victim is alert or responds to verbal stimuli in the JUMPstart assessment?
Assess for further injuries and prioritize as yellow or green
198
When do you assess infants who are developmentally unable to walk with the JUMPstart assessment?
Either during initial triage or in the green area if carried out by a non rescuer
199
If an infant does not fulfill the criteria of a red victim and has no other outward signs of significant injury they may be triaged as?
Green
200
What information should be obtained if possible form the 911 caller?
```
Nature of emergency
Location of incident
Call back number
Number of patients
Severity of illness/injury
Name of caller
```
201
Who should be immediately notified if on scene personnel recognize a need for other emergency agencies?
Dispatch
202
Who should be notified as soon as possible of trauma alert patients?
Dispatch and trauma center
203
Who should dispatch immediately transfer the trauma alert information to supervisor on duty?
Dispatch using the word trauma alert
204
When is a rescue helicopter to be used for trauma alert patients?
If transport by ground will be more than 20 minutes
205
When can you use rescue helicopter to transport level 2 trauma alert patients?
If transport by ground is more than 30 minutes
206
Use air rescue if a trauma alert patient extrication is going to be more than?
20 minutes
207
Who should pre-alert trauma center when a patient is going to be transported by air rescue?
Ground crew
208
How many lanes should be obstructed for air rescue to land on a roadway?
Minimum of 3
209
Components of a trauma alert assessment?
```
Airway
Circulation
BMR
Cutaneous
Long bone fracture
Patients age
Mechanism of injury
```
209
Airway red?
Active ventilatory assistance due to injuries causing ineffective or labored breathing beyond administration of oxygen
210
Circulation red trauma alert?
Lacks radial pulse with sustained HR above 120 or BP less than 90
211
Trauma alert BMR red?
4 or less GCS motor assessment
Presence of paralysis
Suspicion of spinal cord injury
Loss of sensation
212
Trauma alert cutaneous red?
2nd or 3rd degree burns over 15% of BSA
Electrical burns regardless of surface calculation from high voltage/direct lightening
Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
Any penetrating injury to head, neck, torso(excluding superficial wounds where depth can be determined)
212
Trauma alert longbone fracture red?
Signs of 2 or more lone bone fractures
212
Trauma alert red GCS?
Less than 12
| Paramedic judgement
212
Trauma alert airway blue?
30 or greater
213
Trauma alert circulation blue?
Sustained HR of 120 or greater
214
Trauma alert BMR blue?
BMR of 5 on GCS
215
Trauma alert cutaneous blue?
Soft tissue loss from either a major de gloving injury, flap evulsion greater than 5 inches, sustained gunshot wound to extremity of body
216
Trauma alert long bone fracture blue?
Signs and symptoms of single long bone fracture resulting from motor vehicle accident or fall from an elevation of 10 feet or greater
217
Trauma alert age blue?
55 or greater
218
Trauma alert MOI blue?
Ejected from motor vehicle
| Impacted steering wheel causing deformity
219
What age is considered pediatric when referring to trauma alerts?
15 or under
219
Pediatric trauma alert airway red?
Active ventilatory assisstance
220
Pediatric trauma alert consciousness red?
```
Altered mental
Lethargy
Drowsiness
Inability to follow commands
Unresponsive to voice or painful stimuli
Suspicion of spinal cord injury with or without presence of paralysis or loss of sensation
```
220
Pediatric trauma alert circulation red?
Faint or non palpable carotid or femoral pulse
| Systolic BP less than 50
220
Pediatric trauma alert long bone fractures red?
```
Evidence of open long bone
Multiple fracture sites
Multiple dislocations(except for wrist or ankle)
```
221
Pediatric trauma alert cutaneous red?
```
Major degloving injury
Major soft tissue disruption
Major flap evulsion
2nd or 3rd degree over 10%
Electrical burns
Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
Penetrating injury to head, neck or torso
```
222
Trauma alert consciousness blue?
Patient exhibits signs of amnesia
| Loss of consciousness
223
Pediatric trauma alert circulation blue?
Carotid or femoral pulse is palpable but radial or pedal are not
Systolic BP less than 90
224
Pediatric trauma alert long bone fracture blue?
Signs and symptoms of sign long bone fracture
225
Pediatric trauma alert weight blue?
Less than 11kg
| Body length is equivalent to this weight on a pediatric weight based tape(33 inches)
226
Adult fall height level 2 trauma alert?
12 feet
227
Level trauma alert pediatric fall height?
6 feet
228
What 4 things in vehicle accidents meet level 2 trauma alert?
Extrication time over 15 minutes
Rollover
Death of passenger in same compartment
Major intrusion into passenger compartment
229
Ejection form bicycle meets what level trauma alert?
2
230
What speed must a vehicle have been going that struck a pedestrian to call a level 2 trauma alert?
15 MPH for adults
| 5 MPH for pediatrics
231
What does GCS measure?
Cognitive ability
232
3 components of GCS?
Eye
Verbal
Motor
233
Eye opening to verbal GCS?
3
234
Eye opening to pain GCS?
2
235
No eye opening GCS?
1
236
Eyes open spontaneously GCS?
4
237
Inappropriate words GCS?
3
238
No verbal response GCS?
1
239
Incomprehensible sounds GCS?
2
240
Oriented verbal response GCS?
5
241
Confused verbal response GCS?
4
242
Extension to pain GCS?
2
243
Withdrawal from pain GCS?
4
244
No motor response GCS?
1
245
Flexion to pain GCS?
3
246
Obeys commands GCS?
6
247
Localizing pain GCS?
5
248
Highest possible GCS?
15
249
Lowest possible GCS?
3
250
Mild brain injury GCS?
13 or higher
251
Moderate brain injury GCS?
9-12
252
Severe brain injury GCS?
8 or less
253
3 trauma centers in broward county?
North Broward
Broward
Memorial general
254
2 pediatric trauma centers in broward?
Broward general
| Memorial General
255
Influenza and Tdap vaccinations are offered?
Annually
| October through February
256
What infectious diseases require a baseline screening?
TB, Hep A B C
| Meningitis is covered under presumtive law but does not require baseline
257
A non significant exposure is one that has?
Little to no risk of transmission of disease known at this time
258
What must be done with all non significant exposures?
Fill out a infectious disease exposure report form incase of increased risk is documented
259
Action or injury causes a significant exposure?
```
Any body fluid
Through the skin
Eyes nose or mouth
Within 2 hours of shaving
Within 24 hours of scabs
```
260
Who should a disease exposure form be submitted to?
Designated infection control officer
261
A significant exposure worker should be transported for evaluation, testing, and treatment within?
2 hours
| Preferably to a facility with rapid HIV testing if material was blood or body fluids
262
What test should be preformed post exposure?
Rapid HIV
Acute hepatitis panel
RPR syphilis
263
Who is a TB test performed on in a suspected airborne droplet exposure?
Source and worker
264
Who do you not perform a TB test on in suspected TB exposure?
Worker with test less than 12 weeks prior
| Worker with hx of positive skin test
265
How quickly must a hospital notify an agency of increased risk of disease transmission if no exposure was report?
48 hours
266
When will follow up testing occur for blood and body fluid exposure?
Week 6, 12, and 26
| Testing after 1 year may be indicated for high risk exposures
