Genetics part 1 Flashcards

(159 cards)

1
Q

What is genetic variation?

A

Describes the variation in the DNA sequence in each of our gene

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2
Q

What does genetic variation make us?

A

unique

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3
Q

What are the most common type of genetic variation amongst people?

A

single nucleotide polymorphism

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4
Q

What does each single nucleotide polymorphism represent?

A

Difference in a single DNA base
ACGT
in a person’s DNA

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5
Q

How much does SNP occur on average?

A

Once in every 300 bases

Also found in the DNA between genes

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6
Q

What does genetic variation result in?

A

Different forms, or alleles of genes

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7
Q

What does genetic variation explain?

A

Some differences in disease susceptibility

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8
Q

What can genetic basis to a disease be?

A
  1. Inherited
  2. Acquired

Different forms of inheritance

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9
Q

What is an example of acquired genetic changes?

A

Ovarian cancer

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10
Q

What is the advantage of finding genetic basis?

A

Define the disease

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11
Q

Define risk factors

A

characteristic or exposure of an individual that increases the likelihood of developing a disease or injury

Genetic molecular changes

Doesnt give us the disease but predisposes us to that disease

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12
Q

What is genetic testing?

A

Changes in chromosome, genes or protein

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13
Q

What does genetic testing do?

A
  1. confirms a suspected genetic condition
  2. Determine a person’s chance of developing or passing on a genetic disorder
  3. Determine whether a person is a carrier of a certain genetic mutation
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14
Q

What are examples of genetic testing?

A
  1. Diagnostic - looking at families
  2. Pre-syomptomatic
  3. Prenatal diagnosis
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15
Q

What is not always diagnostic?

A

phenotypic observation and test

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16
Q

What is mostly hidden?

A

Genetic risk factors

Identifying underling pathology

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17
Q

What is an example of inherited disease?

A

Sickle cell disease

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18
Q

Where can the prevalence of carrier frequency be very high?

A

West Africa

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19
Q

Who carries sickle cell disease gene?

A

1 in 20 people

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20
Q

What is progeria?

A

a rare syndrome in children characterized by physical symptoms suggestive of premature old age

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21
Q

What are rare diseases?

A

collectively common

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22
Q

What is factor V Leiden?

A

specific gene mutation that results in thrombophilia, which is an increased tendency to form abnormal blood clots that can block blood vessels

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23
Q

Define allele frequency

A

How common is the genetic variant within the population

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24
Q

What is some plausible explanations for the missing heritability

A
  1. Rare variants not captured in genotyping microarrays
  2. Many variants of small effect
  3. Structural variants not captured in short read sequencing
  4. Epistatic effects: non-linear gene-gene interactions
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25
What is missing heritability a combination of?
1. genes that supposedly underlie behavior genetic estimates of heritability simply do not exist 2. Genetic effects are actually epigenetics 3. Genetic effects are generally non-additive and due to complex interactions. a model has been introduced that takes into account epigenetic inheritance on the risk and recurrence risk of a complex disease 4. Genetic effects are not due to the common SNPs examined in the candidate-gene studies & GWASes, but due to very rare mutations, copy-number variations, and other exotic kinds of genetic variants 5. Traits are all misdiagnoses 6. GWASes are unable to detect genes with moderate effects on phenotypes when those genes segregate at high frequencies
26
What does rare alleles cause?
Mendelian disease
27
What does low frequency give rise to?
Variants with intermediate effect
28
What are common variants implicated in?
Common disease by GWA
29
What is hard to identify by genetic means?
Rare variants of small effect
30
What does 5X increase risk of thrombosis give?
1 in 20 carrier frequency
31
What does 1.1x increase risk of coeliac give?
1 in 2.5 carrier frequency
32
When does an enzyme become dysfunctional?
one amino acid substitution to another Cripple the catalytic site of enzyme
33
What can be tolerated?
Majority of the amino acid substitution
34
What are genetic markers?
Used to identify different features in DNA sequence that can be used to differentiate between individuals in a population
35
What does the genetic marker do?
Tag a piece of DNA and can be used to track genes in families or populations
36
What does genetic marker have?
Short DNA sequence such as a sequence surrounding a single base-pair change or a long one i.e. minisatellites
37
What is a short tandem repeat?
Short sequences of DNA (2-5 bp), repeated numerous of times in head-tail manner Regions of non-coding DNA that contains repeat of same nucleotide sequence
38
What is genetic markers used for?
1. Anonymous region of genome 2. Fingerprints 3. Fingerprinting in forensics 4. Paternity testing
39
What is SNP?
1. Polymorphic | 2. When the frequency of the minor allele in the population is >1%
40
What is single nucleotide polymorphism?
1. Single base pair difference in sequence of particular region of DNA from one individual compared to another of the same species or population
41
What does the little identifier serve as?
single nucleotide changes
42
What does the TERT gene provide?
Instructions for making one component of an enzyme called telomerase Telomerase maintains structures called telomeres, which are composed of repeated segments of DNA found at the ends of the chromosome
43
SNP
In a population you can have either C or T in a population The gene is in the TERT gene
44
What is the functional consequence synonymous?
Coding sequence of gene but does not change the amino acid Effect: Low
45
What is Minor allele frequency?
The frequency at which the second most common allele occurs in a given population
46
What is MAF used in population genetics provide?
Information to differentiate between common and rare variants in the population
47
Rare variants (MAF < 0.05)
Appeared more frequently in coding regions than common variants (MAF >0.05) in this population
48
What does Global MAF illustrate?
11% of allele in the population are T
49
What is the least common genotype?
TT - Minor allele C- Green T- Red Homozygous for C Heterozygous for C/T Homozygous for T - chromosome 2
50
What is disease gene identification?
Process by which scientists identify the mutant genotypes responsible for inherited genetic disorder
51
What does positional cloning start with?
Identification of candidate gene according to chromosomal location Followed by mutation analysis in affected individuals
52
Positional candidate
1. Identified through genome wide genetic linkage analysis and/or homozygosity mapping
53
Positional candidates
* Define candidate region – small region * Obtain clones of all DNA in region * Identify all genes in region * Priotize them for mutation screening * Test candidate gene for mutations in affected people * Take patients with this disease and do genome wide genetic link analysis * Genetic linkage analysis: establish linkage between genes
54
X-linked families
Males i.e. 1. Haemophilia 2. Mental retardation
55
What does dominant family pass
successive generations
56
Recessive disease
1. Parents are asymptomatic (no symptoms) i.e. 1. Sickle cell disease 2. Cystic fibrosis
57
What is an example of dominant disease?
Huntington disease
58
What happens through consanguineous marriage?
The mutation becomes homozygous and causes autosomal recessive disease
59
What is SNP genotyping?
Measurement of genetic variations of SNP between members of a species
60
What does regions of extended homozygosity appear to contribute to?
Development of complex disease or traits involving recessive variants such as heart disease, hypertension and elevated total/low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels
61
What is homozygosity mapping?
A common method for mapping recessive traits in consanguineous family
62
Why is homozygosity mapping powerful?
It does not require DNA of other family members than the affected offspring
63
What does the normal workflow of homozygosity mapping consist of?
Genome-wide linkage analysis with microsallelite or increasingly SNP
64
What does the homozygosity mapping minimize?
The need for sequencing multiple genes
65
What can you distinguish from homozygosity mapping?
Identification of a disease gene lines between 2 markers 1. rs16954293 2. rs9939133
66
What did sequencing all ~60 genes in the chromosome 16 region identify?
A homozygous loss of function mutations in the C16orf57
67
What is functional candidates?
Identified by a functional association with previously identified disease genes
68
What is Fanconi aneamia a result of?
Genetic defect in a cluster of proteins responsible for DNA repair via homologous recombination
69
Functional candidates
o Already found the disease gene o Look at another patient that has the same disease but doesn’t have the mutation in the gene you found o Fanconi anaemia – caused by bad genetic variants o Fanconi pathway feed into the DNA repair proteins o Fanconi anaemia – recessive o BRCA1 famous risk factor – heterozygous o Find one disease gene, investigate pathway, find other disease genes
70
What is exome sequencing?
Sequencing all of the protein-coding genes in a genome 1. Select the subset of DNA that encodes proteins 2. Sequence the exonic DNA using any high-throughput DNA sequencing technology
71
How many exons does humans have?
180,000 exons constitutes about 1% of human genome Approximately 30 million base pairs
72
What is the goal of exome sequencing?
Identify genetic variants that alter protein sequences at a much lower cost Much easier to do Cheaper Computational space
73
Define a variant
Something in the sequence which is different from reference genome
74
How many exomes and genetic variants are there?
1. Exomes - 23,000 | 2. Genetic Variants - 3 and 1/2 million genetic variants
75
What does allelic series describe?
Different mutant alleles of a gene that cause a range of phenotypewhereby each one carries a single point mutation within different regions of the same gene.
76
What are some examples of diagnosis?
1. Confirmation, clarification 2. Pre-symptomatic, monitoring, search for donor 3. Pattern of inheritance, carrier testing 4. Prenatal, preimplantation ,genetic counselling
77
What are examples of treatment?
1. Tailor treatment: appropriate drugs 2. Storing cells 3. Rational drug design 4. Gene therapy
78
What is wider pathology?
Mutation in patients with idiopathic disease
79
What is allelic series?
Identification of the gene that causes Freeman-Sheldon syndrome
80
What is RTEL 1 gene associated with?
Autosomal recessive dyskeratosis
81
What os MSH6 gene associated with?
Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer type 5
82
What is DNA sequencing techniques?
1. Sanger sequencing - DNA is copied many times - fragments of different lengths
83
What does DNA sequencing techniques determine?
many relatively small fragments of human DNA
84
What are the fragments aligned based on?
Overlapping portions to assemble the sequences of larger regions of DNA and entire chromosomes
85
What does the fluorescent ''chain terminator'' nucleotides mark?
The ends of fragments and allow the sequence to be determined
86
What are next generation sequencing?
techniques are new, large-scale approaches that increase the speed and reduce the cost of DNA sequencing
87
What are targeted gene panels?
Useful tools for analysing specific mutations in a given sample
88
What does the focused panels contain?
A select set of genes or gene region that have known or suspected association with the disease or phenotype
89
What does targeted gene panels produce?
Smaller, more manageable data set | make analysis easier
90
What is Sanger sequencing?
Still the gold standard to confirm results and for many genetic conditions with common variants e.g. thalassaemia
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What are Targeted gene panels?
Based on a set of selected genes designed around a phenotype
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What is whole exome/genome sequencing?
Open sequencing | Where the clinician and bioinformatic analysis defines the genes of interest
93
What are all the signal that has come out of the genome wide association?
Intergenic
94
What is missense (non-synonymous)?
Change one amino acid to another
95
What are indels?
Insertion or deletion of bases in the genome of an organism Used as genetic markers in natural population
96
What are indels that are not multiple of 3?
Particularly uncommon in coding region but relatively common in non-coding regions
97
What is frame shift?
A genetic mutation caused by indels of a number of nucleotides in a DNA sequence that is not divisible by 3
98
How do you name a sequence variant?
C.1 = A of the ATG initiation codon Specify coding sequence using unique identifiers of coding sequence NM 1601G>A cause factor V Leiden NM = nucleotide sequence Name the protein sequence P.1 =The N-terminal Met residue Use base number on human genome reference sequence
99
What is library preparation?>
* Take DNA of interest in patient of disease * Shear DNA by sonication into fragments, 250bp * Tie up the ends – phosphorylate/adenylate * The adenylation/phosphorylation are crucial for the addition of linker/adaptor * Library – all the fragments from one particular person * Molecule is a simple oligonucleotide – fork and paired * DNA insert and a lot of sequences put at the end – asymmetrical, tucked is a unique identifier * Ligating adaptors onto a sheared DNA fragments
100
What is exon capture?
o Extract and sequence the exome in a genome and compare this variation across a sample of individual organisms
101
How to do exome?
- Make RNAse complementary all through the exons of every single gene o RNA – bait – have biotin at the end o Streptavidin bind biotin strongly o Streptavidin – coating a magnetic bead
102
What is ILLumina dye sequencing
* Technique used to determine the series of base pairs in DNA (DNA sequencing) * Primers attach to the forward strands and polymerase adds fluorescently tagged nucleotides to the DNA strand * Only one base is added per round * A reversible terminator is on every nucleotide to prevent multiple additions in one round * Use four-colour chemistry, each of the four bases has a unique emission, and after each round, the machine records which base was added * Once the DNA strand has been read, the strand that was just added is washed away
103
What is variant calling pipeline?
to allow researchers to rapidly identify and annotate variants
104
What does variant calling pipleline employ?
Genome Analysis Toolkit (GATK) – perform variant calling – a list of variants using genome viewer
105
What is the content of genome?
50 million base
106
How can you visualise genetic variant?
using genome viewer
107
What is Annovar?
annotate the genetic variants – predicting the likelihood of being pathogenic
108
What is ExAC?
Very big data base of nucleotides
109
What is variant calling pipeline?
Predict the severity of a variant on the function of a protein
110
What are the different criteria for variant calling pipeline?
computational data, functional and allele date to see it going from benign to pathogenic
111
What is the TERT protein?
1500 amino acids long Predicted loss of function Predicted to be null
112
What are the different ways of annotating single nucleotide variants?
1. Differentiating 2. Annotation 3. Prediction
113
Differentiation
1. Coding/Non-coding 2. Known/unknown (dbSNP, ExAC, gnomAD) 3. Homozygous/heterogous
114
Annotation
1. Affected gene/transcript name 2. silent, missense, nonsense, splicing, indel 3. Amino acid change 4. Loss of function versus hypomorphic versus neutral
115
Prediction
1. Conservation, protein structure | 2. SIFT, Polyphen, Mutation Taster, CADD score
116
What are approaches to variant classification?
1. Searching medical literature (can be decisive, clear known precedent) 2. Searching databases 3. Using in-silico tools
117
What classes are useful for reporting variants?
Class 1 - Benign Class 2 - Pathogenic
118
What mutation are in the oncogene?
1. K-ras | 2. DCC
119
What is De-novo mutation?
Genetic alteration that is present for the first time in one family member as a result of a variant can be hereditary or somatic
120
Where does mutation occur?
In a person's egg or sperm cell but is not present in any of the person's other cells
121
What is acquired mutation?
– acquired early on in development or will be acquired in the germ cell Some acquired diseases can be inherited to some extent
122
Who is closer to getting a colon cancer?
Individuals with inherited mutation in APC gene
123
What are monogenic diseases?
Single defective gene on the autosomes Inherited according to Mendel's Law 600 known • 1 in every 200 birth
124
What can monogenic diseases be?
The mutation can be spontaneous and where there is no previous family history
125
What is an example of monogenic diseases?
1. Cystic Fibrosis | 2. Alzheimer's disease
126
What is polygenic disease?
* A genetic disorder that is caused by the combined action of more than one gene * Environmental factors and lifestyle factors come into play * E.g. Alzheimer’s disease
127
What is Locus heterogeneity?
• Single disorder, trait, pattern of traits caused by mutations in genes at different chromosomal loci
128
What are examples of locus heterogeneity?
Dyskeratosis congenita - Lots of phenotype in a lot of different body systems e.g. bone marrow - It affects the health of stem cells - Also found in skin and oral cavity
129
What can different genes lead to?
Same disease
130
What is penetrance?
Percentage of individuals who express gene as a particular phenotype
131
What does complete penetrance carry?
genes for a trait expressed in all the population and have clinical symptoms of the disease
132
What does incomplete penetrance demonstrate
individuals who acquire the disease do not express the trait, even though they carry the trait and accounts for only part of the population
133
What is variability in phenotypes caused by?
number of factors: modifier genes that can alter expression of alternative gene, environmental and genetic interactions
134
What is expressivity>?
When a phenotype is expressed to a different degree among individuals with the same genotype • Either get variable penetrance or variable expressivity • Example – Neurofibromatosis – NF1 • Some patients show - Café-au-lait spots (moles) - Neurofibroma tumours (tumours at the end of neurons)
135
Types of mutation
• Mutations in the coding sequence – change the amino acid sequence • Epigenetics - Study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself • Genome quite heavily methylated • Nucleosomes accessible to transcription factor and tightly packed • Enhancers are a long way from gene
136
What doesn't transcriptional control (quantity of proteins) necessarily change?
The coding sequence of genes but changes the amount of transcript produced
137
What are the causes of transcriptional control?
- Mutation in regulatory element i.e. enhancer element - Repeat expansion - Epigenetics - Deletion/insertion/inversion/translocation
138
Translocation – Philadelphia chromosome
chromosome 9 and 22 Brings 2 genes together bcr and abl Abl – tyrosine kinase – drives cell cycle
139
What are symptoms of single gene disorder?
- Sickle cell crisis - Anaemia - Infection - Jaundice and gallstones - Avascular necrosis - Leg ulcer - Delayed growth
140
What is the consequence if a particular polymorphic markers are close to disease mutation?
Inherited together
141
When is 50% of the diseases are going to be inherited together ?
If you have disease mutation on one chromosome, a polymorphic marker on the other chromosome
142
When is it always inherited with polymorphic marker?
If the disease mutation is right next to 3 repeats
143
What is X-linked recessive?
- Mother carries affected gene on X chromosome - Females are carriers - Only males are affected by the disorder - Some example - Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy - Haemophilia - Hunter disease - Because men pass their Y chromosome on to their sons and their X chromosomes to their daughters, men who are affected will not pass the condition on to their sons but all their daughters will be carriers
144
What is X-linked dominant?
- Females usually have two X chromosomes, while most males have one X and one Y chromosome - If a child has inherited the mutation from the X chromosome from one of their parents they will have the condition - Woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected daughter or son with each pregnancy - The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will not be affected (since they inherit their only X chromosome from their mother), but his daughters will all inherit the condition
145
What is Autosomal recessive?
- Two of the defective genes are inherited - Parents are carriers of the mutated gene - The risk of an affected child being born is 25% for each pregnancy - Examples: phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis
146
What is autosomal dominant?
- Single copy of defective gene - Conditions carried on the autosomes, males and females are equally affected - Chance of it being passed on is 50% for each pregnancy - If faulty gene is inherited, it will result in an affected individual - Examples include: Huntington disease, polycystic kidney disease
147
What is imprinting genes?
epigenetic phenomenon that causes genes to be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner involves DNA methylation and histone methylation without altering the genetic sequence These epigenetic marks are established ("imprinted") in the germline (sperm or egg cells) of the parents and are maintained through mitotic cell divisions in the somatic cells of an organism
148
What is Angelman syndrome?
Neuro-genetic disorder - several different phenotypes and it caused by Ube3a gene It is a ubiquitin ligase
149
Where is Angelman sundrome gene expresses from?
Maternally inherited chromosome
150
What did John Langdon state?
phenotypic features of down syndrome are the same regardless of ethnicity
151
What are the 4 phases of Mitosis?
Prophase - Duplicated chromosomes are compacted - Easily visualised as sister chromatids - Chromosomes pair up Metaphase - Mitotic spindle latches onto the sister chromatids at the centromere - Chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell Anaphase - The mitotic spindle contracts and pulls the sister chromatids apart - Begin to move to opposite ends of the cell Telophase - The chromosomes reach either end of the cell - The nuclear membrane forms again and the cell body splits into two (cytokinesis)
152
Where is Down syndrome caused by?
Non-disjunction
153
What is Non-disjunction?
- The failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during nuclear division - Results in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei - It can happen in either meiosis I or II, sometimes in mitosis early on in development
154
Where does non-disjunction happen?
- Mainly maternal – 90% of the case – meiosis I error - Paternal error – 8% - Meiosis I – 3% - Meiosis II – 5% - After fertilization – 5%
155
What are Down syndrome phenotype features?
- 100% of down cohort – mental retardation - Neuropathology seen in Alzheimer’s disease – plaques and tangles - Muscle hypotonia – 100% of the cases - Malformation to the bowel - Increase in leukaemia – both acute lymphocytic and acute milocytic leukaemia - Short stature - Short broad hands - Iris Brushfield spots - Flattened facial profile and nose
156
What is mutated in people with down syndrome?
GATA1acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia
157
Where is GATA 1 located?
From X chromosomes
158
Patient with down syndrome?
- Mutation in GATA1 – frame shift mutation on exon 2 - Frame shift – shorter version of protein – translation from methionine 84 instead of methionine 1 – western blot - Used specific antibodies to GATA1
159
Autosomal Recessive
• Cystic fibrosis • Quite prevalent: 1 in 3000 new born, 1 in 25 people a carrier • Affects different organ systems in body e.g. lungs and sweat glands • Salty skin – diagnose cystic fibrosis • Diagnosed even earlier through a neonatal blood spots • Cause - Mutation in cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator • Large protein – 180,000 base pairs on chromosome 7 – long arm • Encode 1500 amino acid proteins • Takes chloride ions across membrane and down regulate sodium channel • Salty skin – chloride channel affected – no reabsorption • Lungs – changes in ions • Sticky mucus – inflammation and bacterial infection