GET BELLY FLOPPED Flashcards

1
Q

Name 7 parts of protein synthesis macheinery

A

1) Ribosomes
2) mRNA (codons)
3) tRNAs (adpaters)
4) Amino acids
5) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases (join aa to tRNA)
6) ATP (provides energy fro aminoacylation)
7) GTP (Induces conformational changes in protein factors and serves as an evergy source to drive the movement of ribosome)

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2
Q

Subunits of ribosome prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A

50S + 30S = 70S (pro)

60S + 40S = 80S (Eu)

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3
Q

Evidence for conservation of 2ndary strcuture in rRNA

A

Presence of compensating base changes (a 2nd mutation can restore base pairing)

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4
Q

Example of ribotoxin

A

RICIN YEAHHHHHH

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5
Q

Sequence of tRNA at amino acid attachment site

A

CCA-3’ the aa attaches to the A.

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6
Q

Evidence for involvement of rRNA in protein synthesis

A

1) Antibiotics inhibit peptidyl transferase activity of ribosomes (e.g. erythromycin) bind directly to peptidyl transferase centre of 23S rRNA.
2) Naked 23S rRNA retains peptidyl tranferae activity
3) Colicin E3 is protein that inhibits growth of bacteria that lack Col plasmid.

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7
Q

Charging of tRNA by amino-acyl tRNA synthetases

A

1) AA and ATP bind to synthetase to form an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate
2) tRNA binds and aminoacyl tRNA formed
3) Aminoacyl tRNA dissociates from enzyme surface

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8
Q

What are class I enzymes?

A

Catalytic domain is N-terminal and contains an ATP binding site consisting of alternative parallel B-sheets and A-helices

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9
Q

What are class II enzymes?

A

Catalytic domain lies towards centre of molecule, comprises antiparallel B-sheets surrounded by A-helices.

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10
Q

2 proofreading of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

A

1) Hydrolysis of ester bond of incorrect aminoacyl-AMP intermediate triggered by bind of the cognate tRNA.
2) Hydrolysis of ester bond of miss-matches aminoacyl-tRNA

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11
Q

2 types of tRNA met

A

1) tRNA met f: Met residues attached to this are formylated and only used to start polypeptide chains
2) tRNA met m: Met residues attached are not formulated

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12
Q

3 binding sites of ribosome

A

A site: Acceptor site of codon-directed binding of incoming aa tRNA
P site: Peptidyl site, holds codon directed peptidyl tRNA
E site: exit site, not associated with mRNA

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13
Q

The roles of 3 initiation factors in prok (in 30S complex)

A

IF-3: Binds to 30S (prevents association with 50S)
IF-1: Binds near A site (driects fmet-tRNA to p site)
IF-2: Reacts with fmet-tRNA and GTP (Forms ternary complex)

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14
Q

Roles of 3 eIFs in elongation in Euk

A

eIF4E: Binds 5’cap
eIF4A: ATP-dependent RNA helicase that removes 2ndary structure near 5’ end.
eIF-4G: scaffold subunit that links together the components of initiation complex

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15
Q

Why is there a 75% reduction of protein synthesis during G2 to M transition

A

Due to cell cycle-dependent dephosphorylation of eIF-4E, lowers affinity of ribosomes for the cap

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16
Q

The 3 steps of elongation

A

1) Codon-directed binding of the incoming aminoacyl tRNA
2) Peptide bond formation
3) Translocation of ribosome along mRNA in a 5’ to 3’ direction by length of one codon.

17
Q

Why is EF-Tu not present in initiation

A

Does not react with f met-tRNA

18
Q

What are the stop codons?

A

UAA, UGA UAG
RF-1 (UAA + UGA)
RF-2 (UAA+ UAG)

19
Q

Example of antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis

A

Streptomycin: Inhibit initiation and cause misreading of mRNA (proka)
Tetracycline: Binds to 30S subunit and inhibits binding of aminpacyl-tRNAs (proka)

20
Q

What is wobble base pairing

A

Allows some tRNAs to tolerate a mismatch at position 3 and allows tRNA to recognise for than one codon

21
Q

5 Translational control mechanisms

A

1) Regulation of activities of initiation/elongation factors by phos (P and E)
2) Blocking/opening of ribosome binding sites by reversible changes in 2ndary structure (P)
3) Autogenous regulation. Protein product binds to ribosome binding site in mRNA, stops initiation (P)
4) Reversible binding of a repressor protein to response element in 5’ UTR (E)
5) Differential stability of mRNA (E)