GG A-E Flashcards
1
Q
The purpose of the ____ is to support the goal of employee accountability and at the same
time support corrective action to reinforce positive employee behavior.
A
Corrective Diversion Process
2
Q
A voluntary alternative disciplinary process that may be extended to employees who are subject to the disciplinary process and meet the established criteria.
A
Corrective Diversion Process
3
Q
Under the C.D.P., _____ consists of a “Written Reprimand” or “Suspension” (1, 2 or 3 days).
A
Discipline
4
Q
Eligibility to participate in the Corrective Diversion Program:
A
- The employee accepts responsibility for his/her actions and indicates on the Employee Discipline Notice that he/she agrees with the discipline and waives the right to appeal.
- In determining viable participants, the Chief of Police may factor length of service, feedback from superiors, prior disciplinary issues, and/or any other non-discriminatory factors deemed relevant. In no case shall an employee’s non-selection for the C.D.P. be subject to the grievance process.
- The categories of discipline eligible for the C.D.P. include a Written Reprimand or Suspension (1, 2, or 3 days).
- The employee has five (5) days to accept the Chief of Police’s offer to participate in the C.D.P. and thereby accept responsibility for his/her action.
- The C.D.P. is incident driven; therefore, it can apply to multiple sustained violations in a single incident.
5
Q
The employee starts the Corrective Diversion Program when:
A
He/she agrees to the discipline and signs the notice and waiver of right to file a grievance for the discipline.
6
Q
An employee entering the Corrective Diversion Program does so for how long?
A
180 days
7
Q
While in the Corrective Diversion Program, the employee must not be ___
A
The subject of a similar sustained violation
8
Q
If an employee in the Corrective Diversion Program has a similar sustained violation, the employee will be given written notice ____
A
that the original discipline for the original violation will stand.
9
Q
If a similar sustained violation (written reprimand) occurs in the Corrective Diversion Program, the written reprimand will:
A
remain in effect from the date is was originally issued
10
Q
If a similar sustained violation (suspension) occurs in the Corrective Diversion Program, the suspension will:
A
will be served, or if approved , leave time (in lieu of suspensions) will be surrendered, within 14 DAYS of receiving noticing the original discipline will stand.
11
Q
Re-offending conduct in the Corrective Diversion Program is:
A
not eligible for the CDP
12
Q
If the employee in the Corrective Diversion Program remains free of similar sustained violations, the Chief shall:
A
Lower the discipline one level (Written Reprimand to Supervisor Conference Form; Suspension to a Written Reprimand).
13
Q
Upon Completion of the Corrective Diversion Program, the appropriate discipline shall be recorded with:
A
the Human Resource Department and IA Section. A memo will be generated showing completion of CDP.
14
Q
An employee may participate in the Corrective Diversion Program once in a:
A
twelve month period calculated from the date of the last CDP.
15
Q
The employee has ___ to accept the Chief’s offer to participate in the Corrective Diversion Program.
A
Five Days
16
Q
The Corrective Diversion Program is incident driven and can apply to:
A
Multiple sustained violations in a single incident.
17
Q
In active threat incidents, while important to provide first aid to the wounded, it is LEO’s public safety duty to first:
A
First protect lives by stopping the actions of the perpetrator engaged in the continuing violent criminal episode.
18
Q
Any deliberate incident that poses an immediate or imminent danger to the lives of others.
A
Active Threat
19
Q
Any environment in which an active threat incident has taken place until declared safe by the senior ranking supervisor at the scene following evacuation of all living persons.
A
Hostile Environment
20
Q
FS776.05 establishes a law enforcement officer need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest and justifies the use of any force: (3 things)
A
- Reasonably believes to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm
- When retaking escaped felons
- when arresting felons fleeing from justice if believes fleeing felon poses threat of death or serious physical harm or felon has committed a crime involving (threatened) infliction or serious physical harm.
21
Q
In an active threat incident, the prioritization of activities in order of importance shall be: (4 things)
A
- Stop the active threat
- Rescue the victims
- Provide medical assistance
- Preserve the crime scene
22
Q
The goal of immediate response to an active threat event is:
A
Elimination of the threat by forceful means or denying access to additional victims.
23
Q
The first responding officer to an active threat incident will:
A
Immediately assess the situation and assume tactical responsibility.
24
Q
If more than one officer is present during an active threat, assumption of tactical responsibility may be based on:
A
Rank, expertise or seniority.
25
Any change in incident command during an Active Threat will be made known to:
Communications and other officers.
26
In an Active Threat Incident, at least ___ will make entry.
Two Officers
27
First responder intervention will be based on:
Opportunity
28
When at all possible, Active Threat entry team(s) should be a minimum of:
Two (2) officers with an identified element leader.
29
The principle goal of the Active Threat Entry Team is to:
Eliminate the threat of the perpetrator in order to prevent access to potential victims.
30
In an Active Threat Incident, it is not the responsibility of the Entry Team(s) to:
Render Aid
31
Active Threat Entry Teams will be relieved by SWAT when the Entry Teams:
are able to contain the suspect(s) with no further access to victims.
32
Active Threat Rescue Team priorities are to:
Locate, recover, and facilitate the evacuation process.
33
Active Threat Entry/Rescue Teams encountering a suspected explosive device must:
Use judgement reference posting an officer near it, or reporting, marking, and bypassing it.
34
The first responding supervisor to an Active Threat Incident will:
Assume command of the team(s) who has entered the building
35
Additional supervisors arriving at an Active Threat Incident shall:
Assign arriving officers the task of establishing an inner and outer perimeter.
36
In the event an officer is injured during an Active Threat Incident, the supervisor may:
Leave the downed officer in the last secured location, with or without support personnel, depending on the circumstances he is faced with.
37
No location associated with an active threat will be considered secure until:
The Incident Commander declares it is so.
38
During an active threat Incident, the on-scene supervisor will verify:
That the SWAT commander and Command Staff have been notified of the incident.
39
The on-scene supervisor in charge of the Active Threat perimeter shall advise 911 of a ____ as soon as practical.
Staging area
40
The training coordinator will conduct a review of Active Threat response _____.
Annually
41
Active Threat debriefing will be held with all personnel involved and will be scheduled:
After all personnel have returned to a routine work schedule or within 30 days.
42
Workload Assessment report will be prepared at least:
Triennially or as required.
43
The published annual report ___ (time frame).
covers the calendar year
44
The purpose of the annual report is to:
Report to the community agency activities that demonstrate efficient and effective use of their tax dollars.
45
Biased Based Profiling report is done:
Annually
46
Analysis of Use of Force Reports is issued:
Annually
47
After-Hour Animal Control call out criteria: (Ten)
- Sick or injured animals
- Orphaned animals
- Wildlife in a dwelling (except attics)
- Alligators or venomous snakes posing a threat to the public
- Loose animals acting aggressively and posing an immediate threat to the public
- Animal bites causing severe injury
- Animal bites where the animal is not confined by its owner, or the owner(s) want to surrender the animal.
- Animals that are confined for pickup in which the caller is not willing to hold the animal until AC comes 10-8
- Assisting police officers with the removal of animals from dwellings for police matters
- Removal of deceased domestic animals from roadways or swales (when no owner is on scene)
48
Deceased wildlife on or off the roadway are removed by:
Sanitation Department (via 911 Dispatch).
49
The purpose is to oversee multiple incidents each being handled by a separate ICS organization to oversee complex or large incidents.
Area Command
50
The ICS title for individuals responsible for command of the five basic ICS functional sections
Chief
51
The ICS title for a group consisting of the Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer.
Command Staff
52
ICS Functions (Five):
- Command
- Operations
- Planning
- Logistics
- Finance / Administration
53
The ICS title describing the incident management team that reports to the Incident Commander. Consists of the Commanders of the five functional sections.
General Staff
54
(ICS) An oral or written plan that contains objectives reflecting the overall incident strategy and specific tactical actions and supporting information for the operational period.
Incident Action Plan
55
The individual responsible for the management of all incident operations at the incident scene.
Incident Commander
56
Under ICS, individuals who are assigned specific responsibilities for certain activities (Ex: Staging Area)
Manager
57
Operational Period is the time set for a given set of actions as specified in the Incident Action Plan. Can be of various lengths but usually not:
Over thirteen (13) hours.
58
(ICS) Comprised of the City Manager, Police Chief, Emergency Management Director
Policy Group
59
The number of individuals a supervisor is responsible for, usually expressed as a ratio of supervisors to individuals.
Span of Control
60
NIMS recommended Span of Control:
Between 3 and 7 (Ideal being 5)
61
An application of ICS used when there is more than one agency with incident jurisdiction or when incidents cross political jurisdictions.
Unified Command
62
The principle that a subordinate reports to only one supervisor at any given time, providing a clear channel of authority and accountability.
Unity of Command
63
Agency responsible for coordinating federal, state, and local law enforcement resources during a civil disorder, pursuant to Florida State Statute Chapter 23.
FDLE
64
The ___ is a standardized management tool for meeting the demands of small or large emergency or non-emergency situations and ensures command, control and coordination of resources.
Incident Command System (ICS)
65
ICS operations are predicated on three principles:
1. Protecting life and providing for the safety of emergency responders and the public.
2. Stabilizing the incident by developing a strategy that will minimize the effect it has on the surrounding area.
3. Conservation of property by minimizing the effect(s) on the environment.
66
ICS Documentation After-Action Reports shall be submitted by the IC within:
15 Days of the conclusion of the event.
67
ICS and All Hazards Plan training will be conducted:
Annually
68
The District Support LT will prepare a list of emergency equipment and resources:
Annually
69
____ (Number) Officers will be appointed by the IC to serve as operators of the Mobile Command Post
Two
70
The primary rule in the restoration of law and order is the application of:
Minimum force
71
A show of force has a _____ on the crowd and will also provide the necessary manpower.
Restraining effect
72
Professional Standards Lieutenant shall prepare an after-action report to be submitted to the Chief of Police within _____ from the termination of the emergency.
Five (5) calendar days
73
Prior to entering the immediate area of the bomb threat, the responding officer or officers shall:
Advise 911 Communications that they are turning off their radios and cellular telephones.
74
During a Bomb Threat, the decision whether to evacuate the building belongs to:
The person responsible for the premises.
75
During a Bomb Threat, the shift supervisor will asses the situation and:
-Determine whether there is a need for additional personnel from other shifts or divisions.
-Determine which outside agencies shall be notified
-Establish a perimeter around the threat area.
Establish a Field Command Post a safe distance away.
-Contact ED K9 teams.
-Assemble search teams.
76
The final decision to evacuate a building must be left up to the:
Person responsible for the premises.
77
Officers will not _____ until they have been cleared by a shift supervisor.
Leave their assigned district for breaks
78
No breaks will be authorized within ___ of any
| shift and any break must be completed ___ of any shift.
the first hour; prior to the last hour
79
No more than ___ police units, and no more than ___ officers will be allowed in any one singular establishment at one time for meals or breaks.
Four marked; Four uniformed
80
Officers will not meet in parking lots where the presence of ___ will attract public attention, unless the meeting is necessary to conduct official business, and the time meeting together will be held to a maximum of __ minutes.
Two or more police vehicles; Ten
81
Seniority is based on:
Longevity in rank, first, and time in department, second.
82
Formal lines of communication going downward or upward within the organizational hierarchy
Chain of Command
83
Senior ranking members may take action outside their own organizational component when they:
Observe or when a situation is brought to their attention that needs immediate correction.
84
___ is to be utilized for disposition of complaints and are not intended to provide a forum for any other issue other than whether a particular complaint has a basis in fact.
The Complaint Review Board
85
The findings of the ___ are advisory in nature, not adjudicatory.
Complaint Review Board
86
The Complaint Review Board will NOT:
address matters of discipline.
87
Matters of discipline is the prerogative reserved for:
The Chief of Police
88
A statutorily established board consisting of five (5) members.
Complaint Review Board
89
How are the Complaint Review Board members selected?
Chief selects two members; affected officer selects two members; the Four selected mutually agree on a Fifth member who serves as the Chair.
90
The Complaint Review Board can be requested upon notification for disciplinary action resulting in :
- Dismissal
- Demotion
- Suspension
91
A request for a Complaint Review Board to convene must be:
Made in writing to the Chief within five working days from receipt of notification of discipline penalty.
92
Members of the Complaint Review Board are Law Enforcement Officers from:
Any State, County, or municipal agency within the county.
93
The normal business day for the Complaint Review Board shall be:
0800-1630 hours (with one hour lunch)
94
Complaint Review Board business shall not exceed ___.
Three days (excluding weekends and holidays)
95
Complaint Review Board members will receive a copy of the investigation report packet no later than ___.
24 hours prior to the board convening.
96
Complaint Review Board hearings are ____.
Open to the public according to FS119.
97
The Complaint Review Board does not have __ power.
Subpoena
98
The Complaint Review Board does not have __ power.p
Majority
99
Upon reaching a decision, the Complaint Review Board may: (4 findings)
- sustain some of the charges while not sustaining others.
- determine that the original charge was inappropriate, but that other charges are appropriate.
- conclude the officer did not commit any wrongdoing or violation of department regulations.
- sustain all charges against the officer(s).
100
Initial Officer reports will be completed:
Prior to the end of shift (Submitted).
101
Supervisors are responsible for the ___ and ___ of reports which occurred during their shift.
Review; Submission
102
Supervisors will ensure officers complete rejected reports ___.
By the end of the next shift.
103
Authorized users shall check for Department or City correspondence received via EMD no less than ___.
Once during their scheduled workday.
104
When will the IT Section conduct an inspection on department computers and removable media assigned to an employee?
Upon the employee's separation.
105
IT access controls shall prevent ___ active sessions for one user identification for those applications accessing CJI.
Multiple concurrent
106
Any user accessing the criminal justice networks via the PSLPD network from a computer not directly connected by a network cable is required to utilize:
An advanced token device.
107
User computer terminals shall be locked out after:
Thirty (30) minutes of inactivity.
108
User IDs will be disabled after___ to log in to any computer system.
Three unsuccessful attempts
109
If the computer user feels his password has been compromised, the ___ should be contacted immediately.
Police Department System Administrator
110
A previous password cannot be reused through ___ password refresh cycles based upon password retention history.
At least 10
111
Passwords are required to be changed ___.
Every ninety (90) days.
112
The agency shall sanitize, that is, overwrite ___ or degauss electronic media prior to disposal or release for reuse by unauthorized individuals.
At least three times
113
The agency can access electronic and voice transmissions of employees conducting business for:
Quality control purposes and /or violation of policy.
114
Personal use of these computer devices may be permissible if:
Limited in scope and frequency and if not connected with a profit-making business enterprise or the promotion of any product, service, or cause.
115
Personnel may make off-duty personal use of agency computers for:
Professional and career development purposes with prior knowledge of a supervisor.
116
Basic security awareness training shall be required within__ of initial assignment, and __ thereafter, for all personnel who have access to CJIS.
Six months; Biennially
117
The __ shall attend case review meetings to provide, gather, and disseminate pertinent information related to the functions of the Criminal Investigations Division.
C.I.D. Sergeant
118
A volunteer group of specially trained officers designated to handle situations involving the mentally ill in crisis.
Crisis Intervention Team
119
__ members only handle those incidents that do not rise to a level of high-risk incident.
Crisis Intervention Team
120
The 40-hour CIT training class curriculum is based on the __.
“Memphis Model” - emphasizing community partnership.
121
Whenever possible, a __ officer shall be the preferred officer dispatched and/or responding to calls involving a confirmed or suspected mentally ill person in crisis.
Crisis Intervention Team (CIT)
122
In cases that involve “repeat calls for service” involving a person suffering from mental illness, a __ may be assigned to resolve the repeat call case.
Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) member
123
Any time a Baker Act and/or Marchman Act is initiated and completed by a CIT certified officer, the __ will be completed in addition to the incident report.
Crisis Intervention Tracking Form
124
Any incident involving an act of violence or potential act of violence in which police officers are at a disadvantage and subject to extreme danger.
High Risk Incident
125
List the eight High Risk Incident types (for SWAT).
1. Hostage Situation
2. Barricaded Subject
3. Sniper Situation
4. Crowd Problems
5. Preplanned Arrest
6. Dignitary Protection
7. Search Warrants
8. Other
126
SWAT may be called to any civilian disturbance or crowd control problems where the use of ___ is needed to disburse or neutralize a situation.
Organized tactics or chemical agents
127
The "Other" category for SWAT call-out is any situation which the Supervisor believes:
Exceeds the capabilities of the standard patrol resources and that warrants the use of SWAT.
128
For High-Risk Incidents, the shift supervisor will: (3 in general)
- Respond to the scene immediately
- Evaluate the situation
- Initiate such action as necessary to restore order and prevent the situation from increasing in size and intensity.
129
Duties of Shift Supervisor after determining there is a High Risk Incident: (8 duties)
- Obtain Basic Information from initial LEO.
- Insure inner/outer perimeter is established and adjacent areas cleared of persons not involved.
- Establish a CP out of LOS from fire.
- Request ambulance to stand-by at staging area.
- Notify District Commander and request manpower as needed.
- Direct responding LEO to staging area prior to deployment.
- Determine need for specialized equipment or personnel.
- Assign administrative aid to establish and maintain incident log.
130
Deaths created by actions and events which are non-criminal.
Accidental Deaths
131
Deaths by fire, drowning, electrocution, accidental shooting, sexual perversion, poisoning, or are industrial/work related are examples of what kind of death?
Accidental Death
132
A death, in which the decedent has been seen on a regular basis and treated by a physician such that the physician will sign the death certificate.
Attended Death
133
If the physician will not sign the death certificate it will be considered ___.
An unattended death.
134
A medical event which is likely to pose imminent danger to the life of the individual suffering the event.
Life-Threatening Medical Event
135
Examples: Cardiac arrest, seizures, stroke, significant respiratory distress, diabetic emergency, uncontrolled hemorrhage, serious head or spinal cord injuries, serious falls, significant allergic reactions, severe burns,
Life-Threatening Medical Event
136
A death that occurs in the course of nature resulting from an illness or an internal malfunction of the body not directly caused by external forces.
Natural Death
137
When a person dies more than thirty (30) days after being treated by a physician unless the death was medically expected.
Unattended Death
138
An Unattended Death occurs when a person dies more than ___ after being treated by a physician - unless the death was medically expected.
30 Days
139
The shift supervisor may determine that a call to the CID supervisor is not warranted in death investigations that appear:
Natural (such as attended deaths, deaths occurring from known illnesses where the death was medically expected, and hospice patients).
140
"Deceased Person" titled reports are for cases of:
Attended Deaths.
141
If the individual survives or was able to be revived from the life-threatening medical event, the report will be titled __ and the patient will be classified as the __.
“Assist Other Agency”; “Victim”
142
If the individual passes away during transport or soon after arriving at the hospital, the report will be titled __ and the decedent will be classified as __.
"Deceased Person”; "Deceased Person”
143
If the “Assist Other Agency” incident report is submitted and it is later determined that the patient has subsequently passed away, the reporting officer will __.
Amend the title and name classification within the original report or submit a supplement report documenting the updated information.
144
In cases other than __, the shift supervisor will immediately notify the CID supervisor and a detective will respond.
Natural or Attended death
145
After notification of the CID Supervisor of a death, the __ shall be notified.
District Commander
146
If a decedent is under 18 years of age, contact __.
The Department of Children and Families.
147
For attended and natural deaths, prescription medications should ___ for disposal. Medications should either ___.
Not be submitted into Evidence;
Accompany the body to the ME, Hospice disposal, or leave medications on scene for disposal by responsible family member/representative.
148
When encountering prescription medications during the course of a ___ (5 types), where the medication is believed to be directly related to the death, LEO shall follow procedures for the collection and preservation of drug evidence.
- Homicide
- Suicide
- In-custody death
- Accidental death
- Death of a suspicious nature
149
A process whereby an employer can ensure that each employee's behavior conforms to standards established by the employer.
Discipline
150
A formal letter of disciplinary action issued to the affected employee.
Written Reprimand
151
Any suspension greater than___ shall require prior approval of the City Manager or his
designee.
Three (3) days
152
An employee who is dissatisfied with a suspension without pay may appeal by ___.
Using the Grievance process as outlined in the City Personnel Rules and Regulations, OR the process in the Collective Bargaining Agreement.
153
If the Chief of Police should perceive a significant hazard in keeping the employee on the job, he may immediately place the employee on ___.
Administrative Leave with Pay
154
Reasons for Administrative Leave with Pay include: (3)
- Discipline (significant hazard to keeping LEO on the job)
- Emotional and/or mental health
- Following a Traumatic Incident involving an employee
155
Demotion is a disciplinary measure for violating ___ (two) violations of the City Personnel Rules and Regulations.
Group II or Group III
156
Shall be instituted to allow an employee to correct or modify his work performance.
Probationary Periods
157
Dismissals from the department must be approved by:
The City Manager
158
May be used as a disciplinary measure for any Group II or Group III violation of the City Personnel Rules and Regulations.
Demotion
159
Reasons for Administrative Leave Without Pay include:
Arrest for Felony or Misdemeanor criminal violations (depending on the seriousness of the crime AND after the outcome of First Appearance)
160
All demotions are to be approved by ___.
The City Manager and coordinated with Human Resources.
161
Removal of any employee from his employment with the city on a permanent basis.
Dismissal
162
May be used as part of a disciplinary measure at the discretion of the Chief of Police when it is in conjunction with the CDP.
Probationary Period
163
A voluntary alternative disciplinary process that may be extended to employees who are subject to the disciplinary process and meet the established criteria
Corrective Diversion Process (CDP)
164
A form used to report and document a violation of departmental rules or regulations and should be completed on all disciplinary action taken.
Employee Warning Notice
165
Minor cases of employee misconduct may be resolved at ___.
The division level.
166
The originating supervisor will document the details of a minor misconduct incident, in written form utilizing the ___.
Supervisor Administrative Complaint Form
167
Alternatives to utilizing the Supervisor Administrative Complaint Form are: (2)
- Remedial Training assigned by the supervisor
| - Verbal Counseling to correct misconduct
168
In cases of administrative leave with pay (for disciplinary purposes), if it is determined that employee’s equipment will be collected, the minimal equipment to be collected will be ___. (4)
- Employee’s badge
- Identification card
- Building fob
- Any issued firearms
169
Any ___ must be reviewed by the employee prior to having it entered into their personnel file.
Employee warning notice
170
If an employee declines to sign the disciplinary warning notice, the supervisor will:
Note such refusal on the notice with the time and date in the presence of a witness.
171
In a case of employee misconduct which may result in a written reprimand, suspension, demotion, dismissal or other such action as described in the City R/R or CBA, the originating supervisor will:
Initiate a full written report
172
The supervisor will initiate a full written report for employee misconduct which may result in: (5)
- Written reprimand
- Suspension
- Demotion
- Dismissal
- Other actions outlined in CBA / City R/R
173
In the event that a regular city employee is dismissed, the City Manager shall provide the employee a written statement of the reason(s) at least ___.
Ten (10) business days prior to the effective date of dismissal.
174
When an employee is placed on Administrative Leave (with or without pay) pending a criminal or administrative investigation, or an employee is suspended from normal job duties, the employee may be required to ___.
Surrender his/her agency-owned equipment until such time as the employee’s normal work status is reinstated.
175
In cases of suspension from duty, if it is determined that employee’s equipment will be collected, the minimal equipment to be collected will be ___. (4)
- Employee’s badge
- Identification card
- Building fob
- Any issued firearms
176
T/F: Counseling or a word of caution (verbal counseling) is not considered disciplinary action.
True
177
In cases of administrative leave without pay, the employee may be required to surrender ___ at the discretion of the Chief.
All agency-owned equipment
178
All grievances must be filed using the __, which is available from the City Human Resource Department.
Grievance form
179
Disciplinary files (Employee Warning Notice) will be ___ retained.
Permanently
180
Disciplinary files (Letters of Reprimand) will be ___ retained.
Permanently
181
Non-disciplinary files will be ___.
Purged in accordance with state record retention laws requirements.
182
The first-Line Supervisor's authority (with regards to discipline) is to administer: (3)
- Remedial Training
- Verbal Counseling
- Warnings
183
What class of City employees do not need a written statement of the reason(s) for dismissal at least ten days prior to the effective date of dismissal? (4)
- Newly-hired
- Probationary
- Temporary
- Contract
184
Discipline should be characterized as ___ rather than ___.
Corrective; Punitive
185
Administering gradually-increasing disciplinary actions for each successive incident of employee misconduct.
Progressive Discipline
186
More severe disciplinary measures should be administered if __. (In progressive discipline)
A repetition of the same offense or other serious offense
187
“Family or household member” per F.S.S. 741.28 (3) means: (4)
- Spouses / Former spouses
- Persons related by blood or marriage
- Persons who are presently residing together as if a family or who have resided together in the past as if a family (in same dwelling unit).
- Persons who are parents of a child in common regardless of whether they have been married.
188
For a Domestic Violence incident, the district supervisor will be notified (and respond to) when it is learned that one or more of the individuals involved is:
an employee of PSLPD or a law enforcement officer of another agency (regardless of whether the individual is a victim or suspect).
189
If a PSLPD employee is involved in a domestic violence incident, the supervisor will:
- Respond to the scene.
- Contact the involved employee to determine if additional assistance is needed.
- Victim employees will be reminded of available services through EAP and victim assistance.
- Notify the next supervisor in chain of command.
190
If a PSL PD employee is a suspect in a domestic violence incident, the supervisor will: (3)
- A Lieutenant or higher shall immediately notify the Professional Standards Division Commander and the CID Commander.
- Secure the employee/suspect if still at the scene pending the arrival of the Professional Standards / CID Commanders
- The first supervisor on the scene will complete a detailed report and submit a memorandum to the Professional Standards Division Commander outlining the incident by the end of tour.
191
The first supervisor on the scene of a domestic incident involving a PSLPD employee suspect will complete:
- A detailed report
| - Submit a memorandum to the Professional Standards Division Commander outlining the incident by the end of tour.
192
When should the Professional Standards Division remove department-issued firearms from a PSLPD DV suspect?
Regardless of arrest, all department-issued firearms of an employee who is determined to be the suspect in a domestic violence investigation shall be removed from the home or other possession of the suspect / employee and turned over to the Professional Standards Division pending an administrative review.
193
Should a sworn employee of another law enforcement agency be arrested for a crime of domestic violence or dating violence, the on-scene supervisor should:
Ensure that the officer’s employer is notified as soon as possible and if requested, the officer’s service weapons should be taken into custody.
194
When will CID conduct a criminal investigation in a PSLPD employee DV incident?
If probable cause does not exist.
195
If the PSLPD employee is placed on administrative leave stemming from a DV incident, all departmental equipment shall be secured by the Professional Standards Division Commander during the period of leave or suspension. The equipment to be secured includes: (5)
- All department-issued firearms
- Weapons
- Vehicles
- Badges
- Identification
196
If the final disposition of the administrative investigation results in a preponderance of evidence to support DV, appropriate action will be taken by the agency such as: (4)
- Counseling (Employee Assistance Program, EAP)
- Early Assistance
- Psychological Evaluation
- Suspension
197
Officers who engage in the following (DV related) actions may be subject to investigation and disciplinary action: (4)
- Failure to report first hand or well-founded knowledge of abuse or violence committed by a fellow officer to a supervisor.
- Failure to cooperate with the investigation of a law enforcement officer domestic violence case (except in the case where that officer is the victim).
- Interference with cases involving themselves or fellow officers.
- Intimidation/coercion of witnesses or victims (i.e., surveillance, harassment, stalking, threatening, or falsely reporting).
198
Officers who learn they are the subject of any criminal investigation, regardless of jurisdiction, are required to:
Make a report to their supervisors and provide notice of the court dates, times, appearances, and proceedings in a timely fashion.
199
Supervisors should be aware and, when appropriate, document any pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence including but not limited to the following: (3)
- Aggressiveness
- DV related
- Deteriorating work performance
200
Aggressive pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (5)
- Excessive and/or increased use of force on the job
- Unusually high incidences of physical altercations and verbal disputes
- Citizen and fellow officer complaints of unwarranted aggression and verbal abuse
- Inappropriate treatment of animals
- Unexplained increased frequency of on – or off-duty officer injuries.
201
DV related pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (3)
- Monitoring and controlling any family member or intimate partner through such means as excessive phone calling
- Stalking or inappropriate surveillance of any intimate partner or family member
- Frequent or repeated incidents of discrediting and/or disparaging an intimate partner or family member
202
Deteriorating work performance pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (3)
- Tardiness
- Excessive Absences
- Alcohol and drug abuse
203
When a supervisor notes a pattern of problematic behavior, the supervisor should: (2)
- Address the behaviors through a review or other contact with the officer and document all contacts.
- Forward written reports capturing the behaviors to the Professional Standards Commander through the chain of command.
204
In 1996, Congress passed a revision of Federal Law which makes it illegal for any person convicted of ___, whether under a federal or state law, to possess or own a firearm or ammunition. [Ref. Federal Law 18 USC 922 (g)(8)]
A misdemeanor "domestic violence" offense
205
The Federal DV Law prohibition against possession of firearms law does not apply to ___. (3)
- Convictions that have been set aside
- Pardoned
- Had their conviction expunged
206
An employee who is convicted of a domestic violence offense will no longer:
Be able to perform regular duties as a police officer
207
For a DV arrest, should an individual refuse to relinquish a personal firearm or ammunition, the agency will contact:
The local office of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.
208
T/F: The PSLPD mandates an officer carry a department-issued weapon 24 hours a day?
False
209
Violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature.
Dating Violence
210
The existence of a dating violence relationship shall be determined based on the consideration of the following factors: (3)
- A dating relationship must have existed within the past six (6) months
- The nature of the relationship is characterized by the expectation of affection or sexual involvement between the parties
- The frequency and type of interaction is involved over time and on a continuous basis during the course of the relationship.
211
"Repeat Violence" is defined as:
Two incidents of violence or stalking, one of which must have been within 6 months of filing a petition.
212
In the event that there is PC for an arrest but the suspect unable to be located prior to the end of the officer’s shift, the officer will: (2)
- Submit a warrant application
- Probable cause affidavit will be delivered to the oncoming shift supervisor of the district which the crime occurred while waiting for the warrant to be approved.
213
The four types of injunctions for protection are:
- Injunction for Protection Against Domestic Violence
- Injunction for Protection Against Dating Violence
- Injunction for Protection Against Repeat Violence
- Injunction for Protection Against Sexual Violence
214
Designed to help employees and their family members with a variety of work-life challenges which affect job performance and/or attendance; such as emotional well being, family matters, work issues and addiction and recovery.
Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
215
A completely confidential service that allows employees and their family members to receive counseling for problems not usually covered under group health plans.
Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
216
Entry into the EAP program can occur at one of three levels:
- Voluntary
- Informal
- Formal referral
217
This type of referral occurs when a supervisor makes a referral to the E.A.P. after observing or otherwise detecting there are personal or professional issues affecting an employee’s work performance, but which do not give rise to formal disciplinary action.
Informal referral
218
Occurs when an employee’s participation in the E.A.P. is mandated as an alternative to, or in conjunction with, disciplinary action.
Formal referral
219
Referrals to the employee assistance program must be based strictly on ___.
Job performance.
220
All immediate supervisors shall be responsible for ___ and ___ performance deficiencies and offering referral to the E.A.P. for assistance.
Identifying; Documenting
221
No information about the use of E.A.P. services will be provided to anyone unless:
The employee provides written permission to do so as required by all state and federal confidentiality laws.
222
Voluntary or informal participation shall not preclude:
Prosecution or Disciplinary action resulting from an independent investigation or complaint.
223
Training regarding E.A.P. referral procedures will be provided to employees upon:
Promotion to a supervisor position.
224
Any civilian personnel starting at the minimum rate for that pay grade will be evaluated at ___, which is the end of their probationary period.
270 days
225
Probationary officers and probationary reserve officer will be evaluated __ and continuing until the end of their probationary period.
Quarterly beginning at their date of hire.
226
Probationary officers will also be evaluated on their anniversary date, ___.
One year from date of hire, on the PSLPD Long Form Evaluation.
227
Probationary officers and probationary reserve officers assigned to the FTO program will have their quarterly evaluations completed ___.
By the FTO supervisors
228
Probationary officers who have completed the FTO program will have their quarterly and annual evaluations completed ___.
By their assigned supervisor.
229
Probationary reserve officers who have completed the FTO program should have their quarterly evaluations completed by ___.
The Lieutenant assigned to oversee the Reserve Program.
230
Annual performance evaluations will be completed on the PSLPD Short Form Evaluation when:
Performance meets or exceeds standards.
231
The PSLPD Long Form Evaluation will be used when: (2)
- The performance fails to meet standards
| - When requested by non-probationary officers
232
Promoted employees shall be evaluated in writing by the promoting authority prior to the completion of:
Approximately 90 days of service in the new position and then annually on their new classification date (date of promotion).
233
A promoted employees new classification date is:
The date of promotion.
234
Each employee shall be counseled at the beginning of the evaluation rating period concerning the following areas: (3)
a. Tasks of the position occupied
b. Level of performance expected
c. Evaluation rating criteria as outlined in G.G.s and/or SOPs specific to the employee’s assignment.
235
All written performance evaluations are completed by the employee's ___.
Designated supervisor
236
All written performance evaluations are based upon the employee’s ___ and are based on performance for the specific period of time the evaluation is for, (i.e. monthly, quarterly, annually).
Current assignment (FTO program, probationary or full time)
237
Once the rater has completed the evaluation, it will be submitted to the rater's immediate supervisor (the reviewer), who will review it for: (4)
- Fairness
- Impartiality
- Uniformity
- Consistency
238
When an employee's job performance falls below the established standards of the job, the rater shall, as soon as practical:
Advise the employee in writing of the performance that does not meet standards in order to provide an opportunity for the employee to improve his/her performance.
239
If a performance issue occurs within the ___ prior to the end of the rating period and will not result in an overall less than satisfactory rating, the evaluation may proceed on the normal due date.
Ninety (90) days
240
If a performance issue will result in an overall
| rating less than satisfactory, the evaluation and benefits will be:
Delayed to allow the employee to have up to Ninety (90) days to improve performance to a satisfactory level.
241
All contested evaluations shall then be reviewed by ___.
The rater's reviewer (LT).
242
The City Performance Evaluation has the three following ratings: (3)
- Below
- Met
- Exceeded
243
The PSLPD Short Form evaluation has the following rating categories:
- Meets Standards
| - Exceeds Standards
244
The PSLPD Long Form evaluation has the following rating categories:
- Failed to Meet Standards
- Met Standards
- Exceeds Standards
245
The City Human Resources Department prepares a list of personnel whose evaluations are due __.
On a monthly basis.
246
Complaints of discrimination against the department shall be investigated by:
Human Resources / Administrative Services Department.
247
Police officers conduct their duties pursuant to a grant:
Of limited authority from the community.
248
Training in ethical standards to all Police Department personnel shall be conducted:
At a minimum biennially by the Professional Standards Division.
249
LEO probation ends one year after:
Completion of the FTO Program.
250
Property should only be seized when:
Needed for evidence or for the protection of an officer making an arrest.
251
What is the Two Person Rule?
Two (2) members of PSLPD, one of which shall be a sworn supervisor, are required to verify and initial the packaging of any NARCOTIC or CURRENCY item submitted into Evidence.
252
Any cash in excess of ___ or other property to be stored with a value in excess of ___ shall be stored in the temporary “slam” lockers during non-regular operating hours of the Evidence section.
$1000.00; $1,000.00
253
When counting, opening or transferring currency in evidence, the ___ rule shall be employed.
Two (2) person
254
The two (2) person rule shall be employed when: (2)
- Weighing and/or counting narcotic or dangerous drug evidence.
- Counting, opening or transferring currency in evidence
255
If any firearms are found to be loaded and there is nobody available who is familiar with the firearm for submission into evidence, a __ shall be contacted.
Firearms instructor/armorer
