GG S-Z Flashcards
(184 cards)
1
Q
Arrest is based on:
A
Probable Cause
2
Q
Detention is based on:
A
Reasonable Suspicion
3
Q
If there are two adult tenants present at a property, and one refuses entry and the other consents, the consent:
A
Cannot override the refusal.
4
Q
Consent to search can only be given by the person(s):
A
Who controls or owns the item/location to be searched.
5
Q
In accordance with F.S.S. 901.151 an officer may temporarily detain a person to determine his activity if:
A
He has shown any indications of having committed, about to commit, or in the process of committing a crime.
6
Q
An officer may search a vehicle absent a search warrant under the following guidelines: (2)
A
a. A vehicle may be searched if an officer observes (this includes smell) in plain view, from a place where he is allowed to be, evidence of crime.
b. A vehicle may be searched if the owner or the person in control of that vehicle gives a voluntary consent. If possible, a consent waiver should be obtained.
7
Q
What are the exigent circumstances justifying an officer’s entry into a residence: (3)
A
- The officers reasonably believe that life or health are substantially threatened; or
- Officers have an arrest warrant AND are at a suspect’s residence AND reasonably believe the suspect to be within.
- Considering the nature of the offense, any reasonable belief that the suspect is armed, probable cause to believe the suspect committed the offense, strong belief the suspect is in the premises, and the likelihood that an escape or destruction of evidence is being attempted or would be attempted, or that the safety of officers or the public is immediately in danger.
8
Q
According to the U.S. Supreme Court, in order for the “plain view” seizure of an item to be proper: (3)
A
a. An officer must lawfully be within a constitutionally protected area or be at a lawful vantage point outside the area when he sees the item to be seized.
b. The observation of the item must be inadvertent (e.g. the officer must not have been intending to seize the item knowing it was there before the observation.)
c. The officer must then have probable cause to believe the item to be seized is connected with criminal activity (i.e., evidence, contraband).
9
Q
Police may search a vehicle incident to any recent occupant’s arrest when: (2)
A
a. The arrestee is unsecured and within reaching distance of the passenger compartment at the time of the search, or;
b. It is reasonable to believe that evidence relevant to the crime for which the occupant has been arrested might be found in the vehicle.
10
Q
When an individual is placed in handcuffs and detained, regardless of a subsequent arrest, and his person or property is searched for weapons, contraband, or evidence of a crime, the detainment and search shall be:
A
Documented in an incident report, arrest report, or FI card
11
Q
The officer’s supervisor shall be notified ___ any seizure and __ any search of the device.
A
Immediately after; Prior to
12
Q
Any member who suffers injuries deemed to have been preventable had he/she worn a seat belt may experience:
A
A loss of worker’s compensation benefits as well as disciplinary action.
13
Q
During the initial __ of a specialized assignment, an employee may be removed from the assignment by the division commander for any reason.
A
Six months
14
Q
An objective and purposeful observation, evaluation and review of an activity, event, equipment, personnel and execution of department policies and procedures conducted by a member or section under the authority of the Chief of Police.
A
Staff Inspection
15
Q
Staff inspections are to be conducted __ and at the direction of Chief of Police.
A
As needed or required by accreditation standards
16
Q
A staff inspection may be suggested or requested by ___ upon submission of a memorandum briefly stating the reasons for the requested inspection.
A
Any member of the police department
17
Q
Written notice of formal inspection shall be provided to the head of the bureau, division or other component to be inspected not less than ___ prior to the inspection.
A
Five days
18
Q
Spot check inspections shall require __ advance notification.
A
No
19
Q
Inspection reports must be submitted within ___ from the completion of the inspection.
A
Thirty days
20
Q
Follow-up inspections shall be conducted at ___ intervals following the formal inspection and/or when notified the recommendations have been implemented.
A
Three month
21
Q
Temporary restricted-duty requests will not be considered until adequate time has elapsed to accommodate recovery. For the purpose of the policy, that time will be a minimum of ___.
A
Three consecutive work days
22
Q
An organizational model of problem solving, analysis and accountability.
A
Stratified Policing model
23
Q
Isolated incidents that occur and are resolved within minutes and hours, or in some cases, days.
A
Immediate Problems
24
Q
Individual events to which typically an officer responds to or discovers on patrol.
A
Incidents
25
Individual events that arise from calls for service but are deemed more serious by laws and policies of the police department, thus requiring additional investigation and/or a more extensive immediate response.
Cases of Interest
26
Those that occur over several days or weeks and typically require short-term versus immediate responses.
Short-Term Problems
27
A Repeat incident is ___ criminal or quality of life incidents that have occurred at the same place within ___.
Three or more; A 28-day period.
28
Any address that has had ___calls for service in a ___ period will be reviewed by the analysts for additional analysis pertaining to the address and added to the weekly COAR agenda for assignment and follow-up.
10 or more; Four-month
29
A ___ is a group of two or more crimes reported to or discovered by police that are unique because they meet each set of conditions.
Crime pattern
30
Spree / Hot Spot Radius are: (2)
- Two Incidents within a 0.2 mile radius
| - Three or more incidents within a 0.4 mile radius.
31
The conditions to establish a crime Pattern are: (5)
a. They share at least one commonality in the type of crime; behavior of the offenders or victims; characteristics of the offender(s) victims or targets; property taken; or locations of occurrence;
b. There is no relationship between victim(s) and offender(s) (i.e., stranger-on-stranger crime);
c. The shared commonalities make a set of crimes notable and distinct from other criminal activity occurring within the same general date range;
d. The criminal activity is typically of limited duration, ranging from weeks to months in length; and
e. The set of related crimes is treated as one unit of analysis and is addressed through the focused police efforts and tactics.
32
What are the four crime Pattern types?
Series, Spree, Hot Spot, and Compound Problems
33
What is a Series?
A group of similar crimes committed by the same individual or group acting in concert.
34
What is a Spree?
A specific type of series characterized by high frequency of criminal activity within a remarkably short time frame, to the extent that the activity appears to be almost consistent.
35
What is a Hot Spot?
A group of similar crimes committed by one or more individuals at locations within close proximity to one another.
36
What is a Compound Problem?
Are the highest level problems that encompass various locations, offenders, and victims and, in most cases, exist throughout an entire jurisdiction.
37
A crime pattern will be updated if:
An additional incident or crime occurs in the identified area.
38
How long is the period of systematic response after the dissemination of each crime pattern or update?
14 days
39
Those that occur over several months, seasons, or years and stem from systematic opportunities created by everyday behavior and environment.
Long-Term Problems
40
What are the three Long-Term Problem catagories?
- Problem Locations
- Problem Areas
- Compound Problems
41
Individual addresses or types of places at which there is a concentration of crime problematic activity.
Problem Location
42
Also called hot spots, are relatively small areas (e.g., several block area) with a disproportionate amount of crime or disorder activity that is related. (Based on 2-year analysis of overlapping identified crime patterns)
Problem Area
43
A Problem Area is based on a __ year analysis of overlapping identified crime patterns.
Two
44
What does C.O.A.R. stand for?
An acronym for Collaborative Operational Analysis and Response.
45
C.O.A.R. meetings occur on a ___ basis.
Weekly
46
S.T.A.R.C.O.M. meetings occur on a ___ basis.
Monthly
47
What are the four Stratified Accountability Meetings?
- Daily Staff / Roll Call Briefings
- Weekly C.O.A.R. Meetings
- Monthly S.T.A.R.C.O.M. Meetings
- Annual Meetings
48
The role of the Patrol Sergeant within the Stratified Policing model is: (9)
a. Must be aware of all types of problems occurring in the districts and engaged in resolving those problems.
b. Will lead roll-call briefings to inform their patrol officers about problems in their assigned districts and assure their officers are working in a coordinated manner to address those problems.
c. Will be responsible for addressing identified short term problems such as repeat call for service locations and crime patterns.
d. Will take an active role in assisting officers to address crime patterns (e.g., assist with directed patrols, conducting field interview cards, and traffic stops).
e. Will document all efforts to address a pattern via the police department’s intranet (SMARTFORCE).
f. Will hold officers accountable for responses to crime patterns and repeat call for service locations.
g. Will hold officers accountable for all documentation of responses in the police department’s intranet (SMARTFORCE).
h. Will be invited to weekly COAR meetings to explain the actions they have taken when appropriate.
i. Will be invited to monthly STARCOM meetings to explain the actions they have taken when appropriate.
49
Rude or argumentative calls should be referred to a:
Supervisor.
50
A generic term often used to describe the escalating scale of responding force options available to an officer when responding to increasing levels of resistance.
Force Continuum
51
Response to resistance which is limited to holding and restraining persons, which shall include arm lock, take-down holds, and handcuffing but shall not include carotid artery holds or choke holds.
Restraining Force
52
Firearms should not be discharged from or at a moving vehicle except under the following conditions: (3)
1. As a last resort, when all other opportunities have been exhausted, to prevent death or great bodily harm to the officer or another person;
2. As a last resort to prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who would pose an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm;
3. When authorized by a Lieutenant or higher authority.
53
When may an officer draw his firearms?
Whenever officers have reason to fear for their safety or the safety of others
54
The Primary Target Area (zone1) when deploying the SIM is:
Buttocks, thighs, calves
55
The Secondary Target Area (Zone2) when deploying the SIM is:
Abdominal area
56
The Third Targeted Area (Zone 3) when deploying the Sim is:
Head, neck, spinal cord, kidney area, and center of mass. (Deadly Force)
57
A Subject Resistance Report will be completed before the end of the officer's tour of duty for use of the following: (6)
- Physical and Defensive force
- SIM Shotgun (whether the person was struck or not)
- Baton was deployed and used
- OC Aerosol intentionally or unintentionally discharged
- CEW is discharged on a person (whether struck or not)
- Destruction of an injured animal.
58
The basic skills course for certification of the CEW is a minimum of ___.
Four hours.
59
Recurrent training for the dart-firing stun gun must be conducted ___ and be a minimum of ___.
Annually; One hour duration.
60
Name the Target areas for the CEW: (3)
- Primary: Center mass of the Back
| - Secondary: Center mass of the chest or legs
61
Relief from duty with full pay and benefits is intended to serve two purposes:
1. To address the personal and emotional needs of an employee involved in the use of deadly force.
2. To assure the community that verification of the facts surrounding such incidents are professionally explored.
62
Employees relieved from duty for a deadly force incident shall remain in the "relieved from duty" during the initial ___
24 hour period following the incident.
63
If a firearm is pointed directly at a subject in order to gain compliance, it shall be:
Documented in an offense report. "Rest" or "Low-ready" does not require any documentation.
64
Pointing a firearm at a subject to gain compliance DOES or DOES NOT require a Subject Resistance Report.
Does not
65
Under what circumstances can a Subject Resistance Response Report be left to a supervisor's discretion but may also be completed?
Restraining Response/Force was necessary due to resistance without violence and there are no injuries.
66
An accidental use of OC Aerosol will be documented:
-Via memorandum to the officer's immediate supervisor and may, at a later time, require a police report and a Subject Resistance Response Report.
67
Any Accidental discharge of a CEW will be documented:
-Via memorandum to the officer's immediate supervisor and may, at a later time, require a police report.
68
Any Negligent discharge of a CEW will be documented: (2)
- Via memorandum to the officer's immediate supervisor and may, at a later time, require a police report.
- Supervisor will complete a Supervisor's Administrative Complaint to be forwarded to IA.
69
When a supervisor is notified of the use of force by an officer, the supervisor shall investigate the incident as follows:
1. Respond to the scene
2. Ensure medical attention is provided (if necessary)
3. Photograph suspect and scene
4. Interview all witnesses and witness officers at the scene.
5. Ensure all witnesses complete written statements (or recorded)
6. Ensure all witness officers' complete supplemental reports.
7. Command Staff notifications
8. Review Incident and supplemental reports.
9. Complete Subject Resistance Response Report and memorandum outlining the investigation.
10. Reports, images, and memo forwarded to the Professional Standards Division.
70
All narcotic and search warrants require the presence of a:
Supervisor
71
Should traffic control be needed for an extended period of time, the shift supervisor will arrange for officer relief:
Every two (2) hours.
72
The training committee will be made up of the following members:
1. Chief of Police or his designee
2. Professional Standards Division Commander
3. Staff Services Supervisor
4. Staff Services Administrative Assistant
5. Officers assigned to the training function on a full time basis
73
When supervisory personnel determine specific needs for proficiency to be addressed through in-service training, they shall:
Notify their supervisor in writing and through the Chain of Command.
74
The training program evolution will be prepared for each fiscal year ___ prior to the fiscal year beginning.
At least six months
75
The instructor must have served a minimum of ___ internship in the subject matter being taught.
An eight-hour
76
All grades obtained in a course shall be retained by the Staff Services Supervisor for ___.
A minimum of three years.
77
The course file (lesson plan, all the attendance sheets, the title of the course, dates, exams, final exams and a copy of each officer’s certificate of completion) will be retained for documentation purposes for ___.
A minimum of four (4) years
78
What training is conducted biennially? (6)
- Defensive Driving
- CPR
- Use of Force
- Ethics
- Police Death Awareness training
- All Hazard plan tabletop excercises
79
What training is conducted annually? (8)
- Weapons
- Legal Updates
- Firearms and qualifications
- Department Pursuit Policy
- Use of Force Policy
- Infectious Disease
- All Hazard Plan
- Dealing with Mentally Ill subjects
80
Whose responsibility is it to assess the need for remedial/additional training?
The Training Section and supervisors
81
Officers with less than___ years of service shall return all Department issued badges to the Purchasing Section.
Five (5)
82
Any badge lost or stolen shall be:
Reported immediately to the officer’s supervisor and a report shall be written.
83
Examples of when body armor may not be worn are:
- Traffic direction and control for extended periods of time, particularly in temperatures above 78 degrees.
- Processing secure crime scenes, including traffic crashes, particularly in temperatures above 78 degrees.
- Extra duty details where the potential for violent encounters is minimal and the risk to health posed by temperatures and/or weather conditions may be great, such as days of high temperatures and humidity reported by weather services to pose health risks for heat exhaustion and heat stroke.
84
Personal clothing, prescription eyeglasses, contact lenses, jewelry or watches damaged while in the performance of official police duty will be repaired or replaced by the department at a cost not to exceed:
$200.00
85
Nonprescription sunglasses lost or damaged in the line of duty will be repaired or replaced by the department at a cost not to exceed:
$30.00
86
Documentation to the supervisor for damage/loss of personal items will be requested within:
48 hours of the incident
87
In every case involving the impounding of a vehicle, the officer shall first obtain approval from:
A supervisor.
88
If the vehicle impounded is a recovered/stolen vehicle, it shall be the responsibility of the on-duty police supervisor to ensure:
Notification, via phone and/or FCIC/NCIC teletype message, is made to the originating agency by the reporting officer or on-duty Police Service Aide (PSA) in order to have it removed from FCIC/NCIC networks.
89
A vehicle "hold" may be placed on a vehicle stored within a wrecker operator's storage facility for a period not to exceed ___.
Five (5) days,
90
Use of tobacco products in a vehicle is:
Prohibited
91
All vehicles shall be fully gassed up or with a minimum of ___ at the end of each shift.
Three quarters (3/4) tank of gas
92
Any traffic citation received while on or off duty operating any vehicle must be reported to the Bureau Chief in writing within___.
24 hours of occurrence.
93
A supervisor shall respond to the scene of any traffic crash involving a police department vehicle in order to :
Conduct a supervisory investigation into the incident and to ensure the traffic crash is investigated in accordance with state law.
94
At the approval of a district/division commander, a ___ may be completed for crashes involving a police department vehicle and fixed objects such as mailboxes, curbs, culverts, etc.
Police incident report classified as Property Damage
95
All department vehicle crashes will be investigated by:
A Traffic Homicide Investigator
96
The supervisor will provide copies of the Vehicle Damage Report to: (4)
- THI Sergeant For review
- Risk Management
- Purchasing Section
- Department Fleet Manager.
97
The assigned operator of a damaged vehicle will make contact with the Fleet Manager, within ___, to arrange a visual inspection of the damage and determine if a repair is warranted.
3 city business days after the incident
98
Members who are unable to report for duty due to illness or other emergency shall notify their supervisor:
Not less than 1 hours prior to the scheduled reporting time. (Rules and Regulations)
99
Sworn personnel involved in an official law enforcement action or take LEO related action while off-duty shall report the incident to:
The on-duty supervisor immediately.
100
If an off-duty member is involved in a LEO matter as a witness or victim, they shall notify:
Their supervisor at the beginning of the next assigned shift.
101
The supervisor who is notified of a member's involvement in a law enforcement matter while off-duty will notify:
The Chief of Police via the chain of command.
102
Legally, a communicable disease is ___ under Federal law so discrimination against an infected person is illegal.
A handicap
103
Vaccinations are made available to at-risk employees within ___ of initial assignment as well as:
Ten days; post-exposure evaluation and follow-up from an exposure incident.
104
Any exposure or possible exposure to a communicable disease shall be reported on the ___ and submitted to ___.
Employee Injury/Incident Form; The immediate supervisor.
105
To dispose of contaminated/Biohazard items properly, contact ___ and they will pick up all contaminated waste.
An environmental health services company.
106
While the department cannot coerce a citizen, suspect or otherwise, to take periodic tests for infection, the department WILL try to ___.
Convince the citizen who may have transmitted infection to do so. (A signed consent form should be obtained before blood is drawn for testing.)
107
In the event of a citizen refusal to have blood drawn for periodic texting for infection, the ___ should be consulted as soon as possible on ___.
State Attorney's Office; The aspect of obtaining a court order.
108
___ exists for a supervisor routinely to know that a person tests positive (for HIV or Hepatitis B). The department views a breach of confidentiality as ___.
No need; Grounds for disciplinary action.
109
Bloodborne pathogen training will be conducted at least:
Annually.
110
Pills, to include capsules, caplets, and other tablet forms, will be counted and a gross weight taken by the submitting officer unless:
The quantity is in excess of 300.
111
When the item is turned in by an owner or recovered from an identifiable individual, a safekeeping card will be completed and the officer will explain that the property will be in safekeeping for a period of ___.
60 days.
112
A safekeeping card should not be filled out when seizing:
Firearms pursuant to a risk protection order.
113
What is Reasonable Suspicion?
Articulable facts or circumstances which would lead a reasonable law enforcement officer, faced with the circumstances as they exist at the time, to suspect that a crime has been committed, is being committed, or will be committed.
114
Police Bias training will be conducted:
Annually.
115
Periodic training is training that is conducted:
Minimally every three years.
116
Periodic training consists of: (4)
- First Aid
- Eyewitness Identification policy
- Autism interviews
- General topics
117
Less Lethal or impact weapons training will be conducted:
annually or biannually
118
The process for the actual return of firearms or ammunition seized or voluntarily surrendered may not take longer than:
7 Days.
119
If the homeless person has large items or more personal property than can reasonably be collected, and the individual is removed from public property, the excess property should be:
Photographed and left in place. LEO will then notify Code Enforcement of circumstances.
120
If the homeless person has large items or more personal property than can reasonably be collected, and the individual is removed from private property where the landowner wants the individual’s property removed, the landowner may:
Contact Neighborhood Services - Code Enforcement to discuss options for property removal.
121
Who is ultimately responsible for removal of a homeless person's property?
The landowner - however, any item posing a healthy or safety concern may be removed and destroyed by Code Enforcement in accordance with the Nuisance Abatement Program.
122
When encountering a homeless camp involving multiple camp sites on public property, officers should:
Contact Code Enforcement to notify them of the homeless camp location.
123
When a homeless camp involving multiple camp sites is located on private property, it will be the discretion of the:
Landowner whether to cause the homeless individual(s) to vacate the property. The landowner may contact the Code Enforcement Section to discuss options for property removal, but the responsibility to remove the property will rest with the landowner.
124
To record services offered to homeless individuals, officers will use:
The Field Interview Report and Offense Reporting System.
125
Orders conflicting with written directives and procedures may be issued only by:
A Lieutenant or higher authority and must be justified in writing to the Chief of Police the next working day.
126
The number of members reporting directly to command-level officers (mid-management) should not exceed:
Five.
127
The number of subordinates reporting directly to first-line supervisors should not exceed:
Nine.
128
When a situation arises which is not addressed by any written directive, the employee should rely upon the principles outlined in the:
"Code of Ethics"
129
Employees will review and sign off on any new or revised policy in a reasonable amount of time. For the purposes of this policy, a reasonable amount of time is considered to be:
Within 30 days, whenever possible.
130
Responsibility for numbering and indexing all parts of the written directive system rests with:
Accreditation.
131
Authorization to contract a certified interpreter when no law enforcement personnel are available must come from:
A District Lieutenant or Division Commander.
132
When a request is made by a citizen to speak to a supervisor, the agency member shall contact the supervisor:
As soon as practical and/or prior to leaving the scene.
133
The flag will be flown at half-staff for ___ days from the death of the President or former President.
30 days
134
The flag will be flown at half-staff for ___ days from the death of the VP, US Chief Justice or retired US Chief Justice, or the Speaker of the House of Representatives.
10 days
135
The flag will be flown half-staff from ___ of an Associate Justice of supreme court, former Vice President, Governor of a state, or a secretary of an executive or military department.
The day of death until internment
136
The flag will be flown at half-staff ___ for a member of Congress.
on the day and the following day
137
Any officer who is "On-Call" is prohibited from working:
Any off duty detail until the officer is no longer "On-Call."
138
A supervisor will be assigned to a detail of ___ or more officers are required.
Five.
139
During the initial ___ of a specialized assignment, an employee may be removed from the assignment by the division commander for any reason. The employee may also request a transfer to road patrol during this period for any reason.
Six months.
140
It shall be the responsibility of the commander of the applicable bureau or division to ensure the orientation or training in new positions is initiated within the first ___ of the assignment.
30 days.
141
A parking specialist must complete a ___ training course for Parking Enforcement Specialist as approved by the CJSTC.
sixteen hour
142
Parking Specialists must work in:
Pairs.
143
Review of personnel assignments will be conducted ___ and will be submitted ___.
Annually; Within the first quarter of the calendar year.
144
Reserve Officers must attend ___ at the same frequency of full-time officers.
Use of Force training and complete firearms qualifications
145
Any officer returning to the NPB from a specialized assignment of more than ___ must complete a field training refresher course.
Three years
146
The following positions require refresher training: (7)
a. Detective
b. School Resource Officer
c. Crime Prevention
d. Marine Patrol Officer
e. K-9 Officer
f. Public Information Officer
g. Recruitment Officer
147
Refresher training for officers returning to NPB will be completed within:
Two weeks.
148
To be eligible for the Sergeant Leadership program, the sergeant must have: (4)
- Completed two consecutive years as a sergeant
- Be free of discipline for a minimum of one year
- Hold a Bachelor's Degree
- Receive a minimum of "acceptable", "met standards", or "satisfactory" in each category of their last two yearly evaluations.
149
The Sergeant Leadership program is ___ in length.
Six weeks
150
Passing grades for a written training exam is:
75%
151
___ should be viewed within a framework bound by our code of ethics, statutory and case law, common sense and good judgment.
Discretion.
152
Any decision not to arrest must be reached only after the officer has carefully weighed the situation using the following guidelines: (2)
- When the arrest would cause greater risk to the general public than the offender remaining on the street
- When the arrest would cause harm to an offender who poses no threat to the public.
153
During arrest, leg restraints may be used when:
Circumstances so warrant and with the approval of a supervisor.
154
The four "no-knock" exceptions given under Benefield V. State are:
1. The person inside the building already knows of the officers' presence, purpose, and authority.
2. The officers justifiably believe that persons inside the building are in danger of immediate bodily harm.
3. The officers' life would be in danger were he to knock and announce.
4. Those within are made aware of the presence of someone outside and are then engaged in activities which justify the officers' belief that an escape or destruction of evidence is being attempted at that time.
155
If the suspect to be arrested is believed to be located in a third party’s residence, an ___ is required.
arrest warrant and a search warrant
156
Misdemeanor warrants will be the concern of the ___.
Saint Lucie County Sheriff's Department.
157
When members of the Port Saint Lucie Police Department make an arrest on an outstanding warrant from another agency, the officer needs ___.
Only to complete the arrest affidavit which will serve as the report.
158
All juvenile complaint affidavits must follow the ___.
Standard warrant application process.
159
Persons arrested for misdemeanor offenses shall be issued a Notice to Appear citation unless: (12)
1. The subject does not have Florida photo identification.
2. The subject is a known habitual offender.
3. The offense committed is of a violent nature.
4. The officer has reason to believe that the accused will repeat the offense if continued at liberty.
5. The accused exhibits violent or disorderly behavior.
6. The accused resides outside of the 19th judicial circuit.
7. The accused has no valid address.
8. The liberty of the accused person presents an unreasonable risk of bodily injury to him/herself or others.
9. The accused has no ties to the jurisdiction reasonably sufficient to ensure appearance in court or there is a substantial risk the accused will refuse to respond to the notice.
10. The arresting officer has reason to suspect that the accused person may be wanted in another jurisdiction.
11. It appears that the accused person has previously failed to respond to a notice or summons, or has violated the conditions of a pretrial release program.
12. The accused person is a juvenile.
160
The temporary processing area shall not contain any more than ___ detainees at one time.
Four.
161
When more than four detainees are in custody, arrangements will be made to:
Use the secured facilities of neighboring agencies or detainees will be transported directly to the appropriate county facility.
162
It is recommended that a minimum of __ officers be present when a detainee is being placed in the temporary processing area.
Two.
163
A child offender cannot, under any circumstance, be held for longer than ___.
Six hours.
164
According to the JJDP Act, child detainees must be separated from adults by ___.
Sight and sound.
165
Training related to the use of the temporary processing room and interview rooms will be conducted on a:
Periodic basis.
166
When a victim, suspect or defendant, diagnosed with autism or an autism spectrum disorder, or his or her parent or guardian, request a professional to be present during interviews, the interviewing officer or other individual designated by the interviewing officer, shall:
Advise the individual making the request for a professional to be present, that all expenses related to the attendance of the professional shall be borne by the requesting individual.
167
If an officer of this agency is determined to be the suspect of the domestic violence incident, the ___ will respond to the scene.
Professional Standards Division Commander and the Criminal Investigations Division Commander.
168
The first supervisor on scene at an officer involved domestic will complete a:
Detailed report of their involvement and any observations and statements made on scene and relay the information to the Criminal Investigations Division.
169
Regardless of an arrest, what happens on scene to an officer who is determined to be the suspect in a domestic violence investigation?
All department-issued firearms shall be removed from the home or other possession of the suspect and turned over to the Professional Standards Division pending an administrative review.
170
Upon any decision to make an arrest of an officer for domestic violence, the ___ will notify the Chief of Police.
Professional Standards Division Commander
171
When will an administrative investigation be initiated for an officer involved in a domestic violence arrest?
Once the criminal investigation has been completed and filed with the State Attorney’s Office.
172
An administrative investigation into domestic violence is based on:
The preponderance of evidence to support domestic abuse.
173
When completing a warrant, the notary law enforcement officer should preferably be:
A Supervisor.
174
The Shift Sergeant shall cause the return of any reports needing:
Additional follow-up to the original investigating officer.
175
The Criminal Investigations Division (CID) Sergeant shall review all reports and assign officer follow-up through the RMS system indicating a ___ day turn around period.
Ten
176
The polygraph examiner shall maintain copies of each polygraph report, together with polygraph charts and all allied papers, for a period of ___ and in-definitely in capital offenses.
Five years
177
If a child is beyond parental control, he or she is considered:
Ungovernable
178
Parents, guardians and/or school officials DO/DO NOT have the right to waive Miranda Rights for a juvenile.
Do not (Only the child can waive his rights)
179
A command notification will be issued on all juvenile law violations where:
Some form of enforcement action was taken, and the notification will indicate whether the civil citation program was used.
180
In cases where the civil citation program is not used for child offenders, and an arrest is made instead, a ___ and written justification as to the reason the civil citation program it was not used must be documented in the incident report and the juvenile arrest affidavit.
Supervisor’s approval
181
A group of similar crimes committed by the same individual or group acting in concert.
Series
182
A specific type of series characterized by high frequency of criminal activity within a remarkably short time frame, to the extent that the activity appears to be almost consistent.
Spree
183
A group of similar crimes committed by one or more individuals at locations within close proximity to one another.
Hot Spot
184
Are the highest level problems that encompass various locations, offenders, and victims and, in most cases, exist throughout an entire jurisdiction.
Compound Problem..
