GI Flashcards

(249 cards)

1
Q

What gene increases your risk of IBD?

A

HLA-B27 (for all seronegative spondyloarthropathy)

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2
Q

What age is IBD most common?

A

Bimodal:
* 15-20
* 55+

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3
Q

What are some risk factors/ causes of Crohns (4)?

A
  • Family history
  • Smoking
  • NOD-2 mutation
  • Recent bacterial infection
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4
Q

What are some risk factors/ causes for UC (2)?

A
  • Family history
  • Recent bacterial infection
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5
Q

What antibodies can be found in people with UC?

A

pANCA autoantibodies

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6
Q

What is protective against UC?

A

Smoking

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7
Q

Where does Crohns affect?

A

Whole GI tract (especially terminal ileum and proximal colon, often spares rectum)

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8
Q

Which layers of gut wall does Crohns affect?

A

Transmural (all layers)

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9
Q

What does the body fail to absorb in Crohns?

A

Pretty much anything especially B12, folate (B9), Fe, H2O

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10
Q

Where does UC affect?

A

Colon only (including rectum)

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11
Q

Which layers of the gut wall does UC affect?

A

Confined to mucosa

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12
Q

What does the body fail to absorb in UC and why?

A

H2O as this is absorbed in the colon

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13
Q

What are the signs/ symptoms of IBD (3)?

A
  • Pain abdomen
  • Weight loss
  • Diarrhoea
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14
Q

Which IBD is bloody, mucous diarrhoea more commonly found in?

A

UC

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15
Q

Where can pain specifically be felt in UC and Crohns?

A
  • Crohns = RLQ
  • UC = LLQ
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16
Q

When else can pain be felt in UC?

A

During defecation in the rectum (as ulcers can be found very far along)

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17
Q

What are some extra intestinal signs/ symptoms of IBD (4)?

A
  • Episcleritis / uveitis (eye inflammation)
  • Erythema nodosum / pyoderma gangrenosum (skin lesions)
  • Aphthmous mouth ulcers
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis (only UC)
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18
Q

Which one of these 4 extra intestinal signs is more common in Crohns?

A

Aphthmous mouth ulcers (think Crohns even affects the mouth)

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19
Q

How is Crohns investigated (4)?

A
  • High CRP and faecal calprotectin
  • Endoscopy
  • Biopsy
  • Imaging e.g. mri, xray (check for complications)
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20
Q

What would a Crohns endoscopy show?

A

Skip lesions + cobblestoning, strictures (narrowed area)

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21
Q

What would a Crohns biopsy show?

A

Transmural inflammation, non caseating granulomas (not from infection)

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22
Q

What is faecal calprotectin?

A

Released by intestines when inflamed

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23
Q

How is UC investigated?

A
  • High CRP and faecal calprotectin
  • Colonoscopy
  • Biopsy
  • Imaging (check for complications)
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24
Q

What would a UC colonoscopy show?

A

Continuous ‘lead pipe’ appearance

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25
What would a UC biopsy show?
Mucosal inflammation with crypt hyperplasia + abscesses
26
How is IBD treated with medication for flares?
THIS IS WRONG, re-write flash card 1. Sulfasalazine 2. Prednisolone (steroid)
27
How is IBD treated with medication during remission?
THIS IS WRONG, re-write all IBD treatment flashcards 1. Azathioprine 2. Methotrexate
28
What drug can be used if others do not work for IBD?
Infliximab (monoclonal antibody)
29
How else can IBD be treated (non pharmacologically)?
Surgery
30
What are some complications of Crohns (4)?
* Fistula * strictures * Abscesses * Bowel obstruction
31
What is a serious complication of UC?
Toxic megacolon
32
What is coeliacs disease?
Autoimmune condition where exposure to gluten --> inflammation of small bowel
33
What type hypersensitivity is coeliacs disease?
Type 4
34
What genes have been associated with coeliacs disease?
* HLA-DQ2 * HLA-DQ8
35
What part of gluten causes coeliacs disease?
Prolamines in gluten (alpha gliadin)
36
What 2 auto antibodies are produced in coeliacs disease?
* Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG) * Anti-endomysial (anti-EMA)
37
What has coeliacs disease been associated with?
* T1DM * Autoimmune thyroid diseases Some other autoimmune diseases (in GI/hep system)
38
Which part of the small intestine is most commonly affected in coeliacs?
Proximal Jejunum, duodenum (biopsy taken from duo)
39
What are signs/ symptoms of coeliacs disease (4)?
* Anaemia * Weight loss/ failure to thrive * Diarrhoea/ steatorrhoea (fat in shit) * Dermatitis herpetiformis
40
What causes anaemia in coeliacs disease?
Malabsorption (Fe, B12 and folate deficiency)
41
What is dermatitis herpetiformis?
Itchy blistery skin rash *In coeliacs*
42
How is Coeliacs disease diagnosed?
* Antibody testing * Duodenal biopsy = gold standard
43
Which antibodies are tested in Coeliacs disease?
tTg-IgA (anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA)
44
What can often cause a false negative result in coeliacs disease when measuring immunoglobulin presence?
IgA deficient patients
45
What antibody can be tested in IgA deficient patients who are suspected to have coeliacs?
tTg-IgG
46
What would a duodenal biopsy show in coeliacs?
Crypt hyperplasia + villous atrophy
47
How is coeliacs treated?
Don't eat gluten
48
What is a differential diagnosis of coeliacs?
Tropical sprue (enteropathy (small intestine inflammation) associated with tropical travel)
49
What is IBS?
Functional disorder whereby the gut and nervous system don't communicate effectively
50
What is a functional disorder?
No identifiable organic disease underlying the symtpoms
51
What has IBS been associated with?
Stress + anxiety
52
How can IBS present as (3 types)?
* Constipation (IBS-C) * Diarrhoea (IBS-D) * Mixed (IBS-M)
53
What are the symptoms of IBS?
* Abdominal pain * Bloating * Change in stool form and frequency * Mucous in stool (blood is rare)
54
How is IBS diagnosed?
Diagnosis of exclusion (normal bloods, coeliac tests)
55
How is IBS treated?
1. Lifestyle advice, reassurance (e.g. fibre for constipation) 2. Laxatives for constipation; Antimotility drugs for diarrhoea 3. TCAs, SSRIs (CBT if they don't work)
56
Give an example of a laxative used for IBS?
Senna
57
Give an example of an antimotility drug used for IBS?
Loperamide
58
Give an example of a TCA for IBS?
Amitriptyline
59
Give an example of an SSRI for IBS?
Citalopram
60
What is gastro oesophageal reflux disease?
Reflux of gastric acid though the lower oesophageal sphincter irritating the lining of the oesophagus
61
What can cause GORD (4)?
* Obesity/ pregnancy * Hiatal hernia (stomach bulges through abdomen) * Drugs (e.g. antimuscarinics) * Scleroderma (thickened/ hardened LOS)
62
What are the symptoms of GORD (3)?
* Heartburn (pain behind sternum) * Cough (especially at night) * Dysphagia (bad sign)
63
What position are the symptoms worst?
Lying on right hand side
64
How is GORD investigated?
* If no 'red flags' start treatment * Otherwise refer for endoscopy
65
What are red flag symptoms for GORD (3)?
* Dysphagia * Haematemesis (vomiting blood) * Weight loss
66
How is GORD treated?
1. Lifestyle changes (smaller meals, weight loss, no caffeine, alcohol) 2. Medications 3. Surgery
67
What medications are used in GORD (3)?
* PPIs * Antacids (neutralise stomach acid) * H2 receptor antagonists
68
What is an example of a PPI used for GORD (2)?
* Omeprazole * Lansoprazole
69
What is an example of an antacid used for GORD?
Gaviscon
70
What is a side effect of antacids?
Diarrhoea
71
What is an example of a H2 receptor antagonist?
Ranitidine
72
Where are H2 receptors found in the stomach and what do they do?
On parietal cells (cause parietal cells to release gastric acid)
73
What cell releases histamine in the stomach?
Enterochromaffin like cells
74
What are 2 complications of GORD?
* Oesophageal strictures * Barrets oesophagus
75
How are oesophageal strictures treated?
Endoscopic oesophageal dilation
76
What is Barrets oesophagus?
Change in oesophagus epithelium from stratified squamous to simple columnar (metaplasia)
77
What is the change in cells seen in Barrets oesophagus known as?
Metaplasia
78
What is dysplasia?
Morphological changes seen in cells in the progression to becoming cancer. The cells become more ‘jumbled up’
79
What is a Mallory Weiss tear?
Tear in mucosal layer of lower oesophagus
80
What causes a Mallory Weiss tear?
Sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure (due to coughing or vomiting)
81
What are some risk factors for Mallory Weiss tear (4)?
* Alcohol (makes you sick) * Chronic cough * Bulimia * Hyperemesis gravidarum
82
What is hyperemesis gravidarum?
Severe vomiting during pregnancy
83
What would a history of portal hypertension and liver disease suggest, rather than Mallory Weiss tears?
Oesophageal varices rupture
84
What are the symptoms of Mallory Weiss tear (3)?
* Haematemesis * Pain in chest * Hypotensive if severe
85
How is a Mallory Weiss tear diagnosed?
Endoscopy
86
What score is used to determine the severity of an upper GI bleed?
Rockall score
87
How is Mallory Weiss tear treated?
Most spontaneously heal in 24 hours
88
What are the two main types of peptic ulcer?
* Gastric ulcer * Duodenal ulcer
89
Which type of peptic ulcer is most common?
Duodenal ulcers
90
What is a peptic ulcer?
A gap in the mucosal lining of the stomach or small intestine that allows acid and digestive enzymes to contact the inner layers
91
Which type of peptic ulcer is most common?
Duodenal ulcer
92
Which part of the duodenum is most commonly affected by ulcers?
D1/D2 posterior wall
93
Which part of the stomach is most commonly affected by ulcers?
Lesser curve
94
What are the causes of peptic ulcers (3)?
* H-pylori * NSAIDs * Zollinger Ellison syndrome
95
What is Zollinger Ellison Syndrome?
Gastrinoma (gastrin secreting tumour), most commonly occurs in the stomach, duodenum or pancreas
96
Which of those 3 causes is most common in duodenal ulcers?
H-pylori
97
What are the symptoms general symptoms of a peptic ulcer (4)?
* Dyspepsia * N+V * Abdominal pain * Haematemesis
98
What are the specific symptoms of a gastric ulcer (2)?
* Worse on eating * Weight loss (?maybe because they don't want to eat?)
99
What are the specific symptoms of a duodenal ulcer (2)?
* Improves on eating * Weight gain (?maybe they want to eat to take the pain away?)
100
How are peptic ulcers investigated (3)?
* Urea breath test (for H-pylori) * Stool antigen test (for H-pylori) * Endoscopy + biopsy
101
How are peptic ulcers treated?
Treat underlying cause (e.g. stop NSAIDs/ treat H-pylori)
102
How is H-pylori treated?
Triple therapy
103
What does triple therapy for H-pylori involve?
* Clarithromycin * Amoxicillin * PPIs
104
What is a complication of peptic ulcers?
Bleeding
105
Which artery is commonly eroded in gastric ulcers?
Left gastric
106
Which artery is commonly eroded in duodenal ulcers?
Gastroduodenal artery
107
What is gastritis?
Gastric mucosal inflammation and injury
108
What is gastropathy?
Damage to the mucosal lining, without inflammation
109
What causes gastritis (3)?
* Autoimmune (related to pernicious anaemia - anti IF ABs) * Infective * Mucosal ischemia
110
What bacteria most commonly causes gastritis?
H-pylori
111
What can cause gastropathy?
NSAIDs (don't usually cause inflammation, just damage)
112
Symptoms of gastritis (4)?
* Epigastric pain * Diarrhoea * N+V * Indigestion
113
How is gastritis investigated?
Endoscopy + biopsy (test for causes)
114
What is a complication of gastritis?
Peptic ulcers
115
What is an appendicitis?
Inflamed appendix
116
What can cause an appendicitis other than infection (3)?
* Faecolith (hardened faeces) * Lymphoid hyperplasia of Peyer's patches (blocks appendix) * Filarial worms
117
What are some examples of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) (2)?
* Peyers patches * Tonsils
118
What bacteria most commonly found in appendicitis?
Escherichia coli (E. coli)
119
Symptoms/ signs of appendicitis (5)?
* Umbilical pain that localises to McBerney's point * Tenderness and guarding (tensing of muscles) * Rosving sign * Obturator sign * Psoas sign
120
What is rosving sign?
Pressing in LLQ causes RLQ pain
121
Where is McBurneys point?
2/3rds the way from the naval to the right anterior superior iliac spine
122
How is an appendicitis diagnosed (3)?
* Symptoms/ examination * Ultrasound * CT = gold standard (if unsure)
123
How is an appendicitis treated?
* Abx * Appendectomy (laproscopic)
124
Complications of appendicitis (2)?
* Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)/ rupture * Abscess
125
What is a diverticulum?
Out pouching of colonic mucosa
126
What is diverticulosis?
Asymptomatic diverticulum
127
What is diverticular disease?
Symptomatic outpouching of the colonic mucosa
128
What is diverticulitis?
Infected/ inflamed diverticulum
129
What percentage of diverticulum are asymptomatic?
95%
130
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
Embryological remnant of the attachment of the midgut to yolk sac (1 meter from termination of ileum)
131
What are some risk factors/ causes of diverticulum (4)?
* Connective tissue disorders (EDS/marfans) * Ageing * High colon pressure * Chronic cough (COPD)
132
What are the symptoms of diverticular disease (3)?
* LLQ pain * Constipation * Rectal bleeding (fresh/ red)
133
How is diverticulum diagnosed?
* CT scan with contrast = gold standard * Colonoscopy
134
How are the diverticulum conditions treated?
* Laxatives (for symptoms) * Surgery (not usually for diverticulitis) * Abx (for infection)
135
What are some complication of diverticulitis?
* Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) * Obstruction * Fistulae
136
What is a bowel obstruction?
Mechanical obstruction that prevents food passing through the intestines
137
What type of bowel obstruction is far more common?
Small bowel obstruction
138
What causes small bowel obstructions most commonly (2)?
* Adhesions * Hernias (through abdominal wall)
139
What causes large bowel obstructions (3)?
* Malignancy * Diverticular disease * Volvulus (loop of intestine twists around itself)
140
What locations can bowel obstructions be divided into?
* **Intraluminal** (faecal compaction, gallstone ileus) * **Mural** (cancer, strictures, intussusception) * **Extramural** (hernias, adhesions, volvulus)
141
What is intussusception?
Telescoping of intestine
142
What are the symptoms of a bowel obstruction (4)?
* Abdominal pain (colicky) * Vomiting * Constipation * Distension
143
What is the order of symptoms in proximal (SBO) and distal (LBO) obstruction?
* Proximal = vomiting first, then constipation * Distal = constipation first, then vomiting
144
How are bowel obstructions diagnosed (2)?
* AXR (distended loops of bowels, transluminal gas shadows) * CT abode with contrast = gold standard (dilated bowel loops) * Bloods (monitor U&Es)
145
How do you treat bowel obstruction (4)?
* Fluid resus * NG tube * Abx * Surgery last resort
146
What is a pseudo obstruction of the bowels?
No mechanical obstruction problem with; peristalsis may stop (known as ileus)
147
What is diarrhoea defined as?
3+ loose stools per day (frequency + consistency)
148
What chart measures stool consistency?
Bristol stool chart
149
What is normal on the Bristol stool chart?
3 and 4
150
What is the name for bloody diarrhoea?
Dysentery
151
What are 4 types of diarrhoea by constituents?
* Watery (IBS-D) * Steatorrhoea (fat) * Inflammatory (normal constituents) * Haemorrhagic
152
What are the three types of diarrhoea by time frame?
* Acute <14 days * Sub-acute 14-28 days * Chronic >28 days
153
What causes diarrhoea (7)?
* IBD * Coeliacs * Hyperthyroidism * IBS * Malignancy (cancer/ tumour) * Infective * Medications
154
What are the most common viruses to cause diarrhoea in kids and adults?
Kids = rotavirus Adults = norovirus
155
What bacteria cause diarrhoea most commonly (5)?
* Campylobacter = most common * C. difficile * Escherichia coli * Sallmonella * Cholera
156
What other infective thing can cause diarrhoea?
Worms!!!!!! yucky yucky yucky
157
What do antibiotics increase the risk of?
Infection (particularly C. difficile)
158
What causes giardiasis?
Parasites (amoeba histolytica)
159
What can campylobacter sometimes cause?
Guillain Barre syndrome
160
What are the two common types of oesophageal cancer?
* Adenocacinoma * Squamous cell carcinoma
161
Where are both these types of oesophageal cancer found most commonly (which part of oesophagus)?
* Adenocarcinoma = bottom 2/3rds * Squamous cell carcinoma = top 2/3rds
162
What are the symptoms of oesophageal cancer (6)?
* **A**naemia * **L**oss of weight * **A**norexic * **R**ecent sudden symptoms worsening * **M**elinia/ Haematemesis * **S**wallowing issues (dysphagia) **ALARMS**
163
How is oesophageal cancer diagnosed and investigated (3)?
* Gastroscopy + biopsy * Barium swallow (shows up when series of x rays taken) * CT (for staging)
164
How is oesophageal cancer treated (2)?
* Radio/chemotherapy * Surgery
165
What is achalasia?
Nerves in oesophagus stop working (can be confused with oesophageal cancer)
166
What is the most common type of gastric carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma
167
What is an adenocarcinoma?
Glandular epi malignant tumour
168
What are the two types/ severities of gastric cancer?
* T1 = 'well differentiated' only in mucosal layer * T2 = 'undifferentiated' in muscular própria layer of stomach
169
What are some causes/ risk factors for gastric carcinomas (4)?
* H. pylori * Smoking * Family history/ genetics * Pernicious anaemia (autoimmune chronic gastritis)
170
What gene increases risk of mutation in stomach cancer?
**CDH-1** mutation (cadherin gene)
171
What are the symptoms of gastric carcinomas (5)?
* Severe epigastric pain * Anaemia * Weight loss * Fatigue * Progressive dysphagia
172
Where do gastric tumours commonly metastasise to and what can this cause?
Liver --> jaundice
173
What is a krukenberg metastasis?
Tumour metastasis to the ovary
174
How is gastric carcinoma diagnosed?
Endoscopy + biopsy
175
How does the TNM grading of tumours work?
* T = size + extent of main tumour * N = lymph nodes affected * M = extent of tumour metastases
176
How are gastric carcinomas treated (2)?
* Surgery * ECF regimen (types of chemo used together)
177
Are small intestine tumours common?
No, you idiot
178
What is the most common type of SI cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
179
What are some risk factors for SI cancers?
Chronic SI disease (e.g. crohns, coeliacs)
180
What are common benign polyps in the large intestine known as?
Adenoma
181
What is the most common type of colorectal cancer and can polyps in the large intestine progress to?
Adenocarcinomas
182
What are some risk factors/ causes of colorectal cancer (4)?
* Genetic/ familial * Alcohol * Smoking * IBD
183
What are 2 inherited conditions that increase the risk of colorectal cancer?
* Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), (APC gene mutation) * Hereditary non polyposis colon cancer (Lynch syndrome), (MLH 1/2 gene mutated)
184
How are FAP and Lynch syndrome inherited?
Autosomal dominant
185
Where does colorectal cancer commonly metastasise to?
Liver and lung
186
What part of the bowel do tumours most commonly occur in?
Rectum (most common); distal colon (sigmoid onwards)
187
What are the symptoms of colorectal cancer (4)?
* LLQ pain * Bloody stool * Change in bowel habits * Tenesmus (feeling of needing to pass stool)
188
How is colorectal cancer diagnosed?
* Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) * Colonoscopy + biopsy
189
What is the treatment for colorectal cancer?
Surgery + chemo
190
What is the presentation of people with dyspepsia (3)?
* Early satiation * Epigastric pain + reflux * Extreme fullness
191
What are 3 common bacteria that infect the gut?
* Helicobacter pylori * Escherichia coli * C difficile
192
How does Helicobacter pylori cause peptic ulcers (2 ways)?
* Increase acidity * Produce ammonia (toxic to epithelial cells)
193
How does h pylori produce ammonia?
Produces urease which converts urea to ammonia which damages the epithelial cells
194
How does h pylori increase acidity?
* Decrease somatostatin production --> increases gastric acid production * Decreases HCO3- secretion
195
What does h pylori cause (3)?
* Peptic ulcers * Gastritis * Adenocarcinoma
196
How is h pylori diagnosed (2)?
* Antigen stool test * Urea breath test
197
How is h pylori treated (3)?
Triple therapy: clarythromycin, amoxicillin and PPIs
198
What often induces c difficile infection?
Antibiotic use (kills healthy bacteria)
199
What is a complication of c difficile?
Pseudomembranous colitis (swelling + inflammation of intestines)
200
What is achalasia?
Dysmotility of the GI tract (impaired peristalsis)
201
Where does achalasia most commonly affect?
Oesophagus (at LOS)
202
What kind of dysmotility does oesophageal achalasia usually result in?
Failure of smooth muscle to relax
203
What are the symptoms of oesophageal achalasia (3)?
* **Non-progressive** dysphagia * Substernal pain * Aspiration pneumonia (food regurg)
204
How is achalasia diagnosed (2)?
* Barium swallow test * Manometry (measure pressure down oesophagus)
205
How is achalasia treated (3)?
* Surgery (extend stomach past LOS) * Balloon dilation * Medications
206
What medications are used in people with achalasia (2)?
* Nitrates * Nifedipine (CCB)
207
What are some complications of achalasia (2)?
* Barrets oesophagus * Aspiration pneumonia
208
What is ischemic colitis?
Ischemia of colonic arterial supply --> inflammation of colon
209
Which arteries can be affected by ischemic colitis?
* SMA (duodenum --> 2/3rds way along transverse colon) * IMA (2/3rds way along transverse colon --> rectum)
210
What causes ischemic colitis (3)?
* Atherosclerosis * Arrhythmias (e.g. AF) * Bowel obstruction/ twisting of intestine (volvulus)
211
Which parts of the colon are most commonly affected by ischemic colitis (3)?
* Splenic flexure *most common* * Sigmoid colon * Caecum *Supplied by most distal branches of arteries*
212
What are the symptoms/ signs of ischemic colitis (2)?
* LLQ pain * Blood in stool
213
How is ischemic colitis diagnosed?
Colonoscopy with biopsy = gold standard (done after patient recovered)
214
How is ischemic colitis treated?
* IV fluids * Antibiotics (prophylactic) * Surgery (if infarcted + gangrenous)
215
What are some complications of ischemic colitis?
* Perforation = peritonitis * Strictures = bowel obstruction
216
What is mesenteric ischemia?
Ischemia of mesenteric vessels supplying mainly the small intestines
217
Which parts of the colon have a mesentery?
Transverse and sigmoid
218
What are the two classifications of mesenteric ischemia?
* Acute (abdominal MI) * Chronic (abdominal angina)
219
What are the symptoms/signs of acute mesenteric ischemia (2)?
* Severe abdominal pain * No guarding
220
What are the symptoms/ signs of chronic mesenteric ischemia?
* Colicky abdo pain after eating * Weight loss * Abdominal bruit (heard on auscultation)
221
How is mesenteric ischemia diagnosed?
* CT angiogram * Bloods = metabolic acidosis
222
How is mesenteric ischemia treated?
* Fluids * Abx (prophylactic) * Heparin * Surgery
223
What are some complications of mesenteric ischemia?
* Acute bacterial peritonitis (after perforation) * Strictures
224
What are haemorrhoids?
Swollen veins in and around anus that can prolapse through
225
What causes haemorrhoids (3)?
* Constipation * Being overweight/ pregnant * Anal sex
226
What are the two types of haemorrhoid?
* Internal * External
227
What defines an internal vs external haemorrhage?
Originate above/ below internal rectal plexus (**Dentate** line)
228
Which type of haemorrhage is more painful?
External (has more nerve supply)
229
What are the symptoms of a haemorrhoid (5)?
* Bright red (fresh) blood in stool * Bulging pain * Itchy bum (pruritus ani) * Mucous in stool * Need to defecate after emptying bowels
230
How are haemorrhoids diagnosed (2)?
* Digital rectal exam * Proctoscopy (look inside anus)
231
How are haemorrhoids treated (2)?
* Stool softener * Rubber band ligation (rubber band put round haemorrhoid and they drop off)
232
What is a perianal abscess?
Walled off collection of stool and bacteria around anus
233
What causes perianal abscesses (2)?
* Anal sex * IBD
234
What are some symptoms of perianal abscesses (2)?
* Pus in stool * Tender + painful
235
How is a perianal abscess treated?
Surgical removal + drainage
236
What is an anal fistula?
Abnormal track/ connection between anal canal and elsewhere (usually skin)
237
What causes anal fistulas (2)?
* Progression from abscess * Rectal cancer
238
What are the symptoms of an anal fistula (2)?
* Bloody pusy stool * Painful
239
How is an anal fistula treated?
Surgery (removal + drainage) with antibiotics
240
What is an anal fissure?
Tear in anal skin lining below dentate line (very painful)
241
What causes anal fissure (4)?
* Hard faeces * Child birth * Anal sex * IBD
242
What are the symptoms of anal fissure (3)?
* Painful * Itchy * Bloody stool
243
How is anal fissure treated (2)?
* Stool softeners (fibre + more fluids) * Topical creams
244
What is a pilonidal sinus?
Hair follicle gets stuck in skin
245
What is it called when a pilonidal sinus becomes infected?
Pilonidal abscess
246
What is zenkers diverticulum?
Pharyngeal pouch - food gets caught in pouch at back of oesophagus
247
What are the symptoms of zenkers diverticulum (2)?
* Smelly breath * Regurgitation of food
248
What viral infection in the gut is indicative of AIDs?
Cytomegalovirus (owl eye colitis)
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What can cytomegalovirus cause in the large intestines?
Pseudomembranous colitis