GI Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

A Tracheo-Esophageal fistula puts infants at risk for what?

A

Aspiration PNA

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2
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of a T-E fistula?

A

Choking
Poor Feeding
Inability to pass an NG tube
Projectile vomiting

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3
Q

This is when amniotic fluid in utero development flows through the ureters and bladder and back into the amniotic cavity.

A

Polyhdramnios (excess amniotic fluid)

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4
Q

What does VACTERL stand for?

A
Vertebral Defects
Anal Atresia
Cardiac Defects
Tracheo-Esophageal fistula 
Renal abnormalities
Limb/Bone Anomalies
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5
Q

The FOREGUT of the abdomen is made up of what organs?

SEVEN

A
  1. Esophagus
  2. Spleen
  3. Stomach
  4. Liver
  5. Gall Bladder
  6. Pancreas
  7. 1st / 2nd parts of the duodenum
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6
Q

What is the major blood supply of the structures in the foregut?

A

Blood: Celiac Trunk

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7
Q

Are the nerves of the great splanchnic that supplies the for gut pre or post synaptic?

A

Pre-synaptic

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8
Q

_____ (white/gray) rami communicates of the thoracic region send sympathetic fibers down and then _______ (sensory/motor) fibers originate in the gut then follow the sympathetic fibers back to the spinal cord.

A

White

Sensory

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9
Q

A celiac block is preformed at what vertebral level?

A

L1

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10
Q

The MIDGUT of the abdomen is made up of what organs?

SEVEN

A
  1. 3rd / 4th parts of the duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
  4. Appendix
  5. Ascending colon
  6. Cecum
  7. Proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon
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11
Q

What is the major blood supply to the midgut?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

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12
Q

In what region of the abdomen would you expect a patient to complain of pain if it was involving structures of the foregut? midgut? hindgut?

A

Foregut: Epigastric (T5-9)

Midgut: Umbilical (T10-11)

Hindgut: Suprapubic (T12-L1)

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13
Q

What are the structures that compose the hindgut?

SIX

A
  1. Distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
  2. Descending colon
  3. Rectum
  4. Upper Anal Canal
  5. Urogenital sinus
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14
Q

T/F: Sympathetic fibers travel through the sympathetic chain and synapse at their own ganglia.

A

True

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15
Q

What are the 3 sub-plexuses of the Lumbar plexus (Splanchnic Nerves)?

(THINK: They follow the blood supply)

A
  1. Celiac Plexus
  2. Superior Mesenteric PLexus
  3. Inferior Mesenteric Plexus
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16
Q

What it the major blood supply to the hindgut?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

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17
Q

What two types of fibers does the splanchnic nerves have?

A
  1. Visceral afferent

2. Thoracic sympathetic

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18
Q

This structure connects the pharnyx to the stomach, secretes some mucus, does not allow for absorption, is lined with stratified squamous cells to prevent injury, and has sphincters to prevent backflow.

A

Esophagus

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19
Q

This occurs due to chronic inflammation of the lower esophageal epithelium (chronic reflux), notable for growth of columnar epithelium, and can be seen with the presence of pre-malignant lesions

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

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20
Q

This attaches the stomach to the body wall dorsally and ventally

A

Mesogastrium

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21
Q

Which region of the stomach is mucus, pepsinogen, and HCL secreted from?

Which region of the stomach is mucus, pepsinogen, and gastrin secreted from?

A

Body

Antrum

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22
Q

T/F: The lesser and greater omentum arise from the peritoneum and attach to the stomach dorsally and ventrally?

A

True

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23
Q

These cells secrete mucus to protect against acidity.

A

Mucus cells

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24
Q

These cells secrete HCL

A

Parietal Cells

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25
The secretion of HCL is triggered by products of _________, especially ________, arriving in the duodenum
Digestion Peptides
26
This phase of stomach acid production occurs at the sight and smell of food and is responsible for about 1/3rd of stomach acid production
Cephalic Phase
27
These three chemicals produced in the body and stomach stimulate stomach acid release.
Acetylcholeline (from the PSNS) Gastrin Histamine
28
This inhibits the release of stomach acid
Somatostatin
29
What are three ways to "turn down" HCL production?
1. Turn down the PSNS (ACh inhibition - anticholinergics) 2. Turn down Histamine (Antihistamine - H2 blockers) 3. Turn down gastrin
30
These cells secrete pepsin
Chief cells
31
These cells secrete gastrin
Endocrine cells (aka G-Cells)
32
What are three conditions that cause "too much gastrin"?
1. Gastrinoma (Gastrin secreting tumor) 2. Zolinger-Ellison syndrome (duodenal ulcers and a pancreatic gastrin tumor) 3. MEN1 (P3 --> Pancreas, Parathyroid, Pituitary)
33
This disease occurs when mucus and HCL are not in balance due to chronic inflammation, NSAID use, or cigarette smoking. Loss of mucus is the most common cause
Peptic ulcer disease
34
This organ is created in the ventral fold of the mesogastrium and will remain connected ventrally by the falciform ligament.
Liver
35
This organ is created in the dorsal fold of the mesogastrium
Spleen
36
What are the functions (three) of the spleen?
1. Early Hematoposis 2. Mechanical filtration of aging/injured erythrocytes 3. Infection control (clear bacteria, good for malaria, microorganism the host has no antibodies for)
37
This part of the small intestines is the first 2/3rds of the foregut.
Duodenum
38
T/F: The duodenum is the longest segment of the SI at 10-15 inches long
False (Its the shortest)
39
At what ligament doe the duodenum end?
Ligament of Treitz
40
T/F: The duodenum is freely mobile like the jejunum or ileum
False
41
This segment of the duodenum is the hormonal trigger to the gallbladder and pancreas
Superior (L1)
42
These glands are located in the superior segment of the duodenum and rapidly neutralize high-pH chyme for mucosa safety. What do they secrete?
Brunner's Glands Bicarbonate Mucus Urogastrone
43
What two cells does urogastrone inhibit? IS this a negative or positive feedback loop with the stomach?
Chief and Parietal cells Negative
44
This segment of the duodenum is the delivery site for the pacreatic duct, common bile duct, gallbladder, and liver
Descending (L2)
45
What is the name of the primary duct of the descending segment of the duodenum?
Ampalla of Vater (Sphincter of Oddi with lymphatics)
46
Which two ducts open to the duodenum at this juncture?
Pancreatic | Bile Duct
47
This is an acessory duct in the descending duodenum
Duct of santorini
48
This segment of the duodenum is where digestion occurs and crosses the IVC and aorta
Horizontal (L3)
49
This segment of the duodenum is where digestion is continued, it connects to the jejunum, and is where the bowel stops being retroperitoneal
Ascending (L2)
50
These form when neutralization of stomach acid in the duodenum is not adequate or acid delivery is too high
Duodenal ulcers
51
This organ is created as 2 outpouchings of the duodenum and empties into the Ampalla of Vater.
Pancreas
52
This is the main pancreatic duct which runs the entire length of the pancreas. This empties most of its exocrine products where? Where does a portion of the head of the pancreas drain?
Pancreatic duct Ampalla of Vater Ampalla of Santorini
53
Enzymes are produced in what type of cells in the pancreas?
Acinar cells
54
T/F: Pancreatic enzymes a alkaline, clear, and mucus-like
True
55
T/F: Pancreatic enzymes are typically released in their active forms
False (Released inactive, activated in the duodenum)
56
This is an inflammation of the pancreas which causes epigastric and back pain
Pancreatitis
57
What are some causes of pancreatitis?
1. Gallstones (blocked duct) 2. Enzyme activation prior to the duodenum (Alcohol) 3. Infection 4. Trauma 5. Tumor
58
T/F: In pancreatitis, the pancreas can autolyze its symogens if this is ture...... This would cause an increase in what levels in a patients with pancreatitis?
True Amylase / Lipase
59
This is a sac-like structure that is inferior to the liver and stores bile until it is needed, does NOT have a muscularis mucosa, and does not produce its own secretions.
Gallbladder
60
This layer of the gallbladder is made up of simple columnar epithelium with mucosal fold allowing for the GB to enlarge/shrink
Mucosa
61
This layer of the gallbladder allows for contractions to occur
Muscularis Externa
62
This layer of the gallbladder secures it in place
Adventitia
63
Describe the path of bile from the liver, through the GB, and into the duodenum
Bile exits the liver and the R/L hepatic ducts and travels down to the cystic duct into the gallbladder Bile then leaves the GB and travels into the CBD From the CBD, it travels to the Sphincter of Oddi to enter the duodenum
64
What is the medical term for crystallized, packed, and solidified stones in the gallbladder.
Cholelithiasis
65
What are gallstones typical composed of?
Bile salt and cholesterol
66
T/F: Gall stones occur when there is too much bile and not enough cholesterol
False (too much cholesterol, not enough bile)
67
What hormone increases cholesterol composition and decrease GB motility?
Estrogen
68
What can be problematic with gall stones in terms of bilary exit? How would a patient develop cholecysitis? What other problems may you see as a result of gall stones?
The many pathways of the biliary tree have only one exit. Prolonged blockaged leads to bacterial overgrowth leading to infection and inflammation Jaundice Pancreatitis Calcification Rupture
69
T/F: Control mechanisms of the GI system are governed by volume and composition of luminal contents
True
70
GI control is _____ and _______
Neuronal Hormonal
71
Neuronal regulation comes from the _____ and the _____.
CNS ENS (Enteric)
72
What are two plexuses of the enteric nervous system? What do these control?
Submucosal (secretions) Myenteric (motility)
73
What are the 4 layers of the GI tract (brief functions)?
1. Mucosa (make/secrete digestive enzymes, endocrine for GI communication) 2. Submucosa (Blood flow to the liver for filtration, innervation) 3. Muscularis (Circular muscle, long muscle) 4. Serosa (Outer layer)
74
T/F: Submucosal and myenteric plexuses both have short and long reflex loops to/from the CNS and regions of the GI tract
True
75
This reflex occurs when activity in the mouth stimulates motion of the lower GI tract
Gastro-Colic Reflex
76
This is the lose of appetite despite physiologic stimulation that normally produces hunger
Anorexia
77
T/F: Nausea is an objective experience associated with a number of conditions
False (Its subjective)
78
This is the forceful emptying of the stomach and intestinal contents through the mouth.
Vomiting
79
What is the vomit control center in the brain?
Medulla Oblongata
80
What types of problems can vomiting induce?
Electrolyte imbalance Acid-base disturbance fluid loss
81
This type of pain is often described to be originating in the peritoneum
Parietal (Somatic) Pain
82
This type of pain is often described to be originating in the organs themselves
Visceral Pain
83
This type of pain is often felt in another area other than where it originated from
Referred Pain
84
This type of GI bleed occurs in the foregut (Stomach, Esophagus, Duodenum), is bright red in the emesis, or can have a "coffee-ground" appearance to the stool.
Upper GI Bleed
85
This type of GI bleed occurs in the midgut/hindgut (jejunum, ileum, colon, rectum) and typically presents with bright red blood in the stools
Lower GI Bleed
86
Bleeding that is not visible to the eye but detectable on hemeoccult tests in also referred to as being what?
Occult
87
Name FOUR things that commonly cause GI symptoms..
1. Stenosis 2. Regurgitation/Insufficiency 3. Abnormal movements of the GI tract (too fast/slow) 4. Inflammation/Trauma
88
What are THREE things inflammation or trauma cause in the GI tract?
1. Can affect absorption (osmotic issues) 2. Can effect secretion in the GI tract 3. Can cause bleeding
89
This disease of the esophagus typically presents with difficulty swallowing or vomiting up solid food. Common causes include.... ``` GERD NG Tube use Ingestion of Corrosive substances Infection/Inflammation Iatrogenic Injury (Endoscopy) ``` How would you treat this disease?
Esophageal Stricture Tx: Esophageal dilation
90
This disease of the esophagus occurs when there is a tightening of the lower esophageal sphincter that fails to relax typically due to degredation of the myenteric plexus. Sx include.... ``` Pain Vomitting Distended Esophagus (can hold up to 1L of putrid infected material putting the patient at risk for aspiration PNA) Weight Loss Ulceration Esophageal Perforation ```
Esophageal Achalasia
91
This disease of inflammation to the esophagus presents similarly to GERD (Cough, Painful Swallowing, Worse when lying down) and is most commonly caused by GERD
Esophagitis
92
This disease of the stomach is described as delayed gastric emptying which is most commonly caused by neuropathy (DM patients at highest risk). Sx include..... Anorexia Vomiting Retained gastric contents Bezoars
Gastroparesis
93
What are FOUR neurological contributors to gastroparesis?
1. Poor neurological feedback from the duodenum to the stomach 2. Vagal dysfunction (decrease plyoric sphincter tone) 3. Poorly coordinated peristalsis 4. Peripheral neuropathy of enteric nerves
94
This is a mass of hardened, undigested food trapped in the digestive tract. How is it treated?
Bezoar ("Protect from Poison") Tx: Lithotripsy, Endoscopic Morcellation, Coca-Cola Dissolution
95
This disease of the stomach involves a narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum, which can be acquired or congenital. Sx include..... ``` Epigastric pain Nausea Succussion splash Malnutrition Vomiting ``` How is this disease treated?
Pyloric Obstruction/Stenosis Tx: NG Tube IVF and electrolytes PPI or H2 blockers Surgery/Stenting
96
Describe a "succussion splash"?
The sound of the stomach filled with liquids or gases which is heard by auscultating over the the epigastric region and shifting the abdomen side-to-side
97
Pyloric stenosis is more commonly seen in adult or children?
Children (happens in the first few weeks of life) Can happen in adults but typically damage to the pyloric sphincter needs to occur to cause stenosis or hypertrophy
98
What is the classic symptom of pyloric stenosis?
Projectile vomiting
99
What are concerning complications of of projectile vomiting? (THINK: pH)
Metabolic alkalosis
100
What happens to blood volume as a result of projectile vomiting and how do the kidneys respond?
Blood volume decreases causing BP to decrease at the afferent arterioles (Na+ content of filtrate decreases) which causes JG cells to release renin
101
These TWO signs of plyoric stenosis are described as a mass in the epigastrium.
Almond or Olive sign
102
What is the most common causative agent of gastritis r peptic ulcers?
H. pylori | Small, curved, gram-positive organisms
103
What does H. pylori produce? (Two) What doe this do and how does it affect acidity?
Urease which converts urea into ammonia which neutralizes acidity allowing it to flourish H. pylori also produces an enzyme that that break down the stomachs mucus layer
104
What is the dominant affect of H. pylori in the antrum of the stomach? Fundus? Pyloris?
Antrum: Decreased mucus production Fundus: Decreased acid and pepsin production, stomach tissue atrophy, atrophic gastritis, increased risk for stomach CA Pyloris: Decrease somatostatin production resulting in increased gastrin and HCL production