GI Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
Which type of ulcers (gastric or duodenal are more common)?
A
Duodenal
2
Q
What is the most common gram negative cause of acute cholangitis?
A
E.coli
3
Q
What is the most common gram positive cause of acute cholangitis?
A
Enterococci
4
Q
How is Wilson’s disease treated?
A
Oral zinc therapy
5
Q
What impact does SIBO have on vitamin B12 and folate?
A
Decreased B12
Increased folate
6
Q
What may fenofibrate lead to (and how)?
A
Causes increased cholesterol secretion, so may cause cholesterol gallstone formation
7
Q
Which type of glands are usually preserved in Crohn’s?
A
Mucin glands
8
Q
ZE tumours are commonly located where?
A
Proximal duodenal wall and the head of the pancreas
9
Q
What is melanosis coli and how is it caused?
A
Darkening of the mucosal lining due to prolonged laxative use
10
Q
How are duodenal ulcers relieved?
A
Eating or drinking milk
11
Q
Which test is mandatory to diagnose Coeliac?
A
Duodenal biopsy
12
Q
What do high serum amylase and serum lipase indicate?
A
Hypertriglyceridaemia induced pancreatitis
13
Q
What three factors stimulate gastric acid secretion?
A
ACh
Gastrin
Histamine
14
Q
What three factors inhibit gastric acid secretion?
A
Somatostatin
Secretin
CCK
15
Q
How is giardiasis diagnosed?
A
Stool sample
16
Q
What are three characteristics of haemolytic jaundice?
A
Splenomegaly
Reticulocytosis (increase in immature RBCs)
Anaemia
17
Q
If the large bowel has a diameter of over x, it is considered dilated. What is x?
A
5.5cm
18
Q
If the small bowel has a diameter of over x, it is considered dilated. What is x?
A
3cm
19
Q
How is hydatid disease treated (2)?
A
Drainage and albendazole
20
Q
Which type of fibre intake should be increased in diverticular disease?
A
Soluble
21
Q
What three symptoms/signs are associated with Budd-Chiari?
A
Abdominal pain
Ascites
Hepatomegaly
22
Q
How is TB diagnosed?
A
Ileal biopsy
23
Q
What are three most common bacterial causes of ascending cholangitis?
A
E.coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
24
Q
What type of vomiting is caused by pyloric stenosis?
A
Projectile
25
Which type of inheritance is haemachromatosis?
Autosomal recessive
26
Which two types of antibodies are important in autoimmune gastritis?
Anti-parietal and anti-intrinsic factor
27
What is removal of the sigmoid colon called?
Hartmann's procedure
28
What faecal test is used to investigate pancreatitis?
Faecal elastase
29
Are fistulae more common in Crohn's or UC?
Crohn's
30
FAP is a mutation in which gene?
APC tumour suppressor
31
HNPCC is a mutation in which gene?
DNA mismatch repair
32
Which type of inheritance do FAP and HNPCC show?
Autosomal dominant
33
When does CVID become apparent?
Adulthood
34
What is the treatment for life-threatening C.diff infection?
Oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole
35
Which two disease are associated with alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
COPD and liver disease
36
Of Crohn's and UC, which is TH1 mediated and which is mediated by TH1 and TH2?
```
Crohn's = TH1
UC = TH1 and TH2
```
37
What % of people with Hep C will become chronic carriers?
80%
38
GISTs are what type of tumours?
Mesenchymal
39
In which populations are squamous carcinomas in the oesophagus most common?
Eastern/developing countries
40
Where in the oesophagus is squamous carcinoma usually found?
Upper 2/3rds
41
When is vomiting due to gastroperesis worst?
In the evening
42
When in life is H.pylori usually contracted?
Under 5s
43
What does H.pylori do to the pH of its environment?
Increases it
44
What is the floor of the inguinal canal formed of?
Inguinal and lacunar ligaments
45
What is the medial border of the femoral canal formed from?
Lacunar ligament
46
How are small bowel lymphomas treated?
Surgery and chemotherapy
47
What is the average lifespan of an enterocyte?
72 hours
48
Which IL is important in H.pylori chronic gastritis?
IL-8
49
What are the two causes of small bowel ischaemia?
Arterial occlusion or perfusion insufficiency
50
What effect does coeliac disease have on the risk of gallstones?
Increases the risk
51
Is adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus more common in males or females?
Males
52
Is toxic megacolon more associated with Crohn's or UC?
UC
53
Which GI disease is associated with childhood onset diabetes?
Coeliac
54
What type of tumour are most oral cancers?
Squamous
55
Which type of bowel infarct causes stricturing?
Mural
56
Which gene is important in Crohn's?
NOD2
57
What are the three layers of a peptic ulcer?
Floor of necrosis
Base of granulation tissue
Deep layer of fibrosis
58
Inflammation in UC involves which layers?
Mucosa and submucosa
59
Autoimmune gastritis shows which two things?
Atrophy and intestinal metaplasia
60
UC causes which electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalaemia
61
Are adenomas of the liver more common in males or females?
Females
62
Perl's stain detects what?
Iron
63
Proteases in pancreatitis cause what (2)?
Tissue destruction and haemorrhage
64
Which type of cirrhosis is seen in alcoholics?
Micronodular
65
What is bile released in response to?
CCK
66
The liver has how many acinar zones?
3
67
Acute pancreatitis may cause which two electrolyte imbalances?
Hypocalcaemia
| Hyperglycaemia
68
Does Hep B or C have a longer incubation period?
B
69
What is the main treatment for haemachromatosis?
Venesection
70
PBC is associated with which antibodies?
AMA
71
Which two places does copper accumulate in in Wilson's?
Brain and liver
72
Acutely, which form of hepatitis (B or C) is more likely to kill you?
B
73
Bizarre stromal cells and vessels are a sign of what?
Radiological colitis
74
All adenomas of the colon are what?
Dysplastic
75
C.diff overgrowth causes which type of colitis?
Pseudomembranous
76
Less than 100 polyps suggests which (FAP/HNPCC)?
HPNCC
77
Does HNPCC have an early or late onset?
Late
78
Small bowel ischaemia is usually located where?
Left sided
79
Do all colonic adenomas need removed?
Yes
80
What is the treatment for Hep B?
PEG IFNalpha + tenofovir + entecavir
81
What is the treatment for Hep C?
PEG IFNalpha + ribavirin
82
Which form of hepatitis is most common in the tropics?
Hep E
83
Which hepatitis drug can cause haemolytic anaemia?
Ribavirin
84
What is the main route of spread of Hep E in the UK?
Zoonosis
85
Which is the most common form of hepatitis amongst PWIDs?
C
86
Which form of hepatitis may be asymptomatic in young children?
A
87
Which drug is used for sedation in hepatic encephalopathy?
Lorazepam
88
What are the three drugs used in H.pylori eradication?
Amoxicillin + omperazole + clarithromycin
89
Which drug can replace amoxicillin in H.pylori eradication if there is a pencillin allergy?
Metronidazole
90
Which deficiency causes agammaglobulinaemia?
XLA
91
In autoimmune hepatitis, what do HLA DR3/4 mean in terms of onset and severity?
HLA DR3 = early onset and severe
| HLA DR4 = late onset and severe
92
What is gluconeogenesis?
The non-specific breakdown of non-carbohydrate precursors to form new glucose
93
What does AST stand for?
Aspartate transaminase
94
Is UC or Crohn's associated with granulomas?
Crohn's
95
Do RBCs appear macro/microcytic in autoimmune gastritis?
Macrocytic
96
Food poisoning associated with shellfish is usually due to?
Norovirus
97
What is schistosomiasis caused by?
Trematodes
98
Salmonella presents which two antigens?
O and H
99
Which infection is associated with lactose intolerance for a few weeks after?
Giardia intestinalis
100
Which drug is used to treat recurring C.diff?
Fidaxomicin
101
Which type of jaundice may be caused by E.coli 0157?
Pre-hepatic
102
Which bacteria is part of the normal gut flora of some reptiles?
Salmonella
103
On which type of agar is enterohaemorrhagic E.coli grown on?
Sorbitol MacConkey
104
Which impact to E.coli toxins have on intracellular cAMP?
Increases
105
How is enteric fever treated?
Azithromycin
106
Cestodes are associated with...
Pork and beef
107
What is the mortality rate for acute pancreatitis?
10%
108
Are pancreatic acinar cells endo/exocrine?
Exocrine
109
High coffee intake is a risk factor for which type of pancreatic tumours?
Exocrine
110
Necrosis occurs how many days post-illness in pancreatitis?
3-5
111
What are the causes of chronic pancreatitis?
```
CAT And PIG
Congenital/acquired
Alcohol
Tropical countries
Autoimmune
Pancreatic duct obstruction
Idiopathic
Genetics (CF)
```
112
Does somatostatin suppress or inhance the release of pancreatic hormones?
Suppress
113
Which criteria is used to assess the severity of pancreatitis?
Glasgow criteria
114
Alpha amylase produces what?
Oligoaccharides
115
How can the secretions of the parotid, submandibular and sublingual glands be described?
```
Parotid = serous
Submandibular = more viscous
Sublingual = mucous
```
116
What are three side effects of orlistat?
Abdominal cramps
Diarrhoea
Vitamin deficiency
117
What do NSAIDs block to cause peptic ulcers?
COX 1
118
Which drugs need to be stopped before doing a faecal antigen test for H.pylori?
PPI 2 weeks before
| H2 antagonist 1 day before
119
What is the operation for appendicitis?
Laparoscopic appendectomy
120
What is the first investigation for rectal bleeding?
PR exam
121
What is the investigation for diverticulitis?
CT colonography
122
What medications are given for diverticulitis?
Metronidazole + co-trimoxazole
123
What is pneumoperitoneum?
Free gas under the diaphragm
124
What is the treatment for PSC?
Liver transplant
125
What is the treatment for PBC?
Ursodeoxycholic acid
126
What are the conditions for severe UC?
```
6+ bloody stools in 24 hours
+1 of...
-fever
-HR >90bpm
-anemia
-elevated ESR
```
