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GLOBE Exams Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the skeletal manifestations of NF1?

A

Scoliosis, pseudoarthrosis of tibia, hemihypertrophy

Referral to ophthalmology is needed for optic gliomas or hamartomas if presenting with pseudoarthrosis of tibia.

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2
Q

What is NF2 characterized by?

A

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

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3
Q

Can early Charcot (first flares) show normal x-rays?

A

Yes

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4
Q

When should bisphosphonates be started after a hip fracture?

A

Within 3 months post-op

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5
Q

What is the most common mucopolysaccharidosis?

A

Morquio syndrome

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6
Q

What are the features of Morquio syndrome?

A

Genu valgum, kyphosis, cloudy corneas, normal intelligence, cervical instability

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7
Q

What approach is used for PAO?

A

Anterior approach to the hip

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8
Q

What finger changes are suggestive of gout?

A

Arthritis changes including peri-articular erosions

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9
Q

What does a lateral talar process fracture lead to?

A

50% of subtalar arthritis

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10
Q

What is the primary blood supply to the patella?

A

Inferior pole

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11
Q

What does Cohen’s kappa coefficient measure?

A

Interobserver reliability

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12
Q

What is the risk associated with halo vest immobilization in elderly patients with type 3 odontoid fractures?

A

Increased risk of early mortality compared to surgery

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13
Q

What is associated with distal radius dorsal malunions?

A

Loss of prono-supination

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14
Q

What can happen to the ECU in DRUJ?

A

Can get stuck

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15
Q

What is eosinophilic granuloma treated with if symptomatic?

A

Intralesional methylprednisolone

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16
Q

What is C Acnes?

A

A gram positive bacillus/rod

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17
Q

What does TRE17/VSP6 indicate?

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst

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18
Q

When is the elbow most stressed during throwing mechanics?

A

Late cocking

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19
Q

Which muscle belly is most medial in the context of Tom, Dick, and Harry?

A

FDL

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20
Q

What nerve is at risk due to lateral overpenetration of tibial ex-fix pins?

A

Deep peroneal nerve

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21
Q

How is Stage 4 PTTI treated?

A

TTC

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22
Q

What percentage of the glenoid face requires operative intervention?

A

20-25%

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23
Q

What medication has been shown to help union rates in atypical femur fractures?

A

Teriperatide

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for the terrible triad?

A

Supinated forearm is axially loaded and collapses into valgus

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25
What will myositis ossificans have elevated levels of?
Serum alkaline phosphatase
26
Where should the graft be fixed in MPFL for skeletally immature patients?
More anterior and distal
27
What is the effect of adding clindamycin to patients with NSTI?
Decreases amputation rate
28
What risk is associated with hinged TKA?
Elevated risk of aseptic loosening
29
How many compartments does a hand compartment release involve?
10 compartments
30
What percentage of humeral growth comes from the proximal humerus physis?
80%
31
What is a risk factor for failure of quad tendon repair?
Long standing inflammatory arthropathy (rheumatoid)
32
What is the treatment for tarsal coalition <50% of the joint?
Coalition resection
33
What is the treatment for tarsal coalition >50% of the joint?
Subtalar fusion
34
What can wrist denervation be done for?
Early stages of SLAC wrist if motion is preserved
35
What does MDM2/CDK4 amplification indicate?
12q13-15 amplification
36
What is the growth disturbance risk after tillaux fractures?
Rare
37
What is likely to return to baseline within 2 weeks after cubital tunnel release?
Nerve conduction velocity
38
What must be repaired after volar fixation of scaphoid?
Radioscaphocapitate ligament
39
What does lunate collapse with fixed scaphoid rotation require?
PRC
40
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in a child?
Rhabdomyosarcoma
41
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in the foot?
Synovial sarcoma
42
How is turf toe treated?
Capsuloligamentous repair
43
What does anteromedial facet coronoid fracture lead to?
Risk of VARUS posteroMEDIAL rotatory instability
44
Do CSI’s outside of 3 months increase the risk of PJI?
No
45
What does a 3.0 Tesla MRI exert on protons compared to a 1.5 Tesla?
9x more energy
46
What is the minimum supportive care for torticollis?
2 weeks with soft collar and analgesics
47
How can a hip resurfacing be converted to a THA?
By revising the femoral stem
48
What is a complete radial tear extending to the meniscocapsular junction functionally equivalent to?
A root tear
49
What is the treatment for ringworm?
Topical antifungals and return to play in 72h
50
What percentage of AIN compression resolves on its own within 2 years?
The vast majority
51
What is the female to male ratio for CRPS?
4:1
52
What causes exertional heat exhaustion?
Hypernatremia from inadequate water replacement
53
What is the minimum time for a partial UCL tear throwing cessation program?
6 weeks
54
What is the benefit of endoscopic os tali resection?
Associated with earlier return to sport
55
What has higher re-operation rates but better long-term outcomes in ACL?
Meniscal repair over meniscectomy
56
What should be aimed for when fixing sagittal deformity?
Pelvic incidence within 9 degrees of lumbar lordosis
57
What is a desmoid tumor characterized by?
Estrogen receptor +
58
What is a risk associated with DA hip?
Femoral sided peri-prosthetic fracture
59
What is the atlantooccipital association risk?
No sports for life due to risk of cord compression and sudden death
60
What should be avoided in PCL injury?
No prone hamstring curls
61
What is the recommended procedure for exertional compartments?
Four compartment fasciotomy
62
What does a single incision indicate in surgery?
Nerve
63
What does a two incision indicate in surgery?
HO
64
Can distal scaphoid excision be done in DISI?
No
65
Is there a difference in outcomes between transposition and in situ release for ulnar nerve in distal humerus fractures?
No
66
What are the surface anatomical markers of disk spaces?
C2-3 = Angle of mandible, C3-4 = hyoid bone, C4-5 = thyroid cartilage, C5-6 = cricoid cartilage
67
What is the nonunion rate for type C peri-prosthetic humerus shaft fractures?
50%
68
What do patients with RA undergoing TKA experience?
Higher rates of early revision and DVT
69
What is pathognomonic for nail-patella syndrome?
Bilateral iliac horns
70
What do anti-virals inhibit?
DNA polymerase
71
What is amniotic band syndrome also known as?
Streeter’s dysplasia
72
Is an injury as a pro sports team doc protected health information?
No
73
What is the primary blood supply for the scaphoid?
Primarily from the dorsal ridge
74
What is the most important part of pain relief in CMC surgery?
Trapezium excision
75
What does hyperostotic bony lesions and inflammatory state indicate?
Caffey disease
76
What factors contribute to female ACL injuries?
Both quad dominant and more valgus and external rotation during landing
77
What is the survival rate for localized osteosarcoma without spread?
70%
78
What does PVL in MRSA do?
Destroys host leukocytes by poking holes in their membranes
79
What is the most common complication of multi-lig reconstruction?
Arthrofibrosis
80
What is mandatory reporting for all physicians?
Child and elder abuse
81
What is the cutoff for acute periprosthetic joint tap?
10,000 cells
82
In psoriatic arthritis, when do skin plaques tend to appear?
Years before joint findings
83
What muscles pull the pediatric tibia shaft into valgus?
Anterior and lateral compartments
84
What does a posterior epiphyseal extension angle >10 predict?
Contralateral slip in SCFE
85
Is the use of a provisional plate for reduction of a tibia shaft associated with increased complications?
No
86
How is a tibial shaft stress fracture treated?
Anterior compression plate
87
What does surgery help with in metastatic myeloma spine?
Pain

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