GOM

Question 1

The GOM must be used by the certificate holder’s flight, ground, and maintenance personnel in conducting its operations.

a) True.

b) False.

Answer 1

A) True.

Question 2

Who, through the director of operations, exercises operational control of company flight operations?

a) President.

b) Directors of Base Operations.

c) Chief Pilot.

Answer 2

C) Chief Pilot.

Question 3

Who has operational control over all Air Evac EMS, Inc. company flight operations and is responsible for all operational functions?

a) President.

b) Vice President of Operations.

c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Answer 3

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Question 4

Pilots authorized to exercise operational control duties are listed in the “Operational Control Pilot List – Air Evac EMS, Inc.” that is maintained in the

a) Operations Control Center.

b) Flight Operations Department.

c) Pilot’s record at his primary assigned base.

Answer 4

B) Flight Operations Department.

Question 5

Operations Control Center (OCC) Tier I OCC and Tier II ICC duties and responsibilities can be found in __________ of the Operations Manual.

a) Chapter 8.

b) Chapter 4.

c) Chapter 2.

Answer 5

A) Chapter 8.

Question 6

The Operations Control Center (OCC) reports to the _________, including matters of operational control.

a) Chief Pilot.

b) President.

c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Answer 6

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Question 7

Operations Control Center (OCC), through the authority of the __________, exercises operational control of company aircraft.

a) Chief Pilot.

b) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

c) President.

Answer 7

B) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Question 8

Who has responsibility to ensure flight operations has a copy of each pilot’s current medical and pilot certificate on file?

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

b) Pilot Records Supervisor.

c) Each individual pilot.

Answer 8

C) Each individual pilot.

Question 9

Before each flight, the pilot in command shall become familiar with

a) The routes to be flown to include en route terrain and obstacle elevations, and the airports and/or heliports where a landing may occur.

b) Anticipated flights, name and location of relief pilot, and names of the medical personnel.

c) The location of the aircraft engineering log, location of the base mechanic, and the name of the OCC specialist on duty for that service area.

Answer 9

A) The routes to be flown to include en route terrain and obstacle elevations, and the airports and/or heliports where a landing may occur.

Question 10

The pilot reporting to duty will receive a shift change briefing (when a previous pilot is available) addressing the following items

a) Names of the medical personnel on duty, status of the NVG batteries, and maintenance inspections coming due.

b) Aircraft status, hazard updates, and name and location of the relief pilot.

c) Name of the CenCom specialist on duty for that service area, name and location of the base mechanic, and name of the nearest available area pilot.

Answer 10

B) Aircraft status, hazard updates, and name and location of the relief pilot.

Question 11

Who has the final authority concerning matters of flight safety and aircraft operation, in accordance with FARs and the AEEMS GOM?

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

b) OCC Specialist.

c) Pilot in Command.

Answer 11

C) Pilot in Command.

Question 12

In the event of a hard landing, sudden stoppage, lightning strike, any limitation exceeded, or any occurrence that calls into question airworthiness, that aircraft shall not be flown until released by the

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations or his designee.

b) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

c) Maintenance Control Specialist.

Answer 12

B) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

Question 13

As soon as possible after shift change, company aircraft shall be

a) Washed and topped off with fuel.

b) Washed, preflight checked, and topped off with fuel.

c) Preflight checked, operationally checked if necessary, and ready for operation.

Answer 13

C) Preflight checked, operationally checked if necessary, and ready for operation.

Question 14

Who has final responsibility for determining the aircraft is airworthy, and that it is properly returned to service after the completion of any maintenance.

a) Senior Director of Flight Operations or his designee.

b) Senior Director of Maintenance or his designee.

c) Pilot in Command.

Answer 14

C) Pilot in Command.

Question 15

When may a pilot, who is not a company flight instructor or company check pilot, allow any person to manipulate or “follow through” the flight controls of any company aircraft?

a) At no time.

b) If the pilot holds a FAA issued CFI with appropriate category and class ratings.

c) If the pilot holds an ATP certificate.

Answer 15

A) At no time.

Question 16

Who may start a company aircraft?

a) A properly qualified pilot or a properly qualified mechanic.

b) A properly qualified and designated PIC.

c) Any person authorized by the Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Answer 16

B) A properly qualified and designated PIC.

Question 17

Flight time in helicopters is defined as

a) The time from when the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when it comes to a full stop at the next point of landing.

b) The time from when the main rotor blades start to turn for the purpose of flight and ends when the main rotor blades come to a complete stop at the next point of landing.

c) The time from when the engine is started for the purpose of flight and ends when the engine is shut down at the next point of landing.

Answer 17

A) The time from when the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when it comes to a full stop at the next point of landing.

Question 18

Time in service, with respect to maintenance time records, is the time

a) Recorded from the pilot’s watch.

b) Recorded on the aircraft clock.

c) Recorded from the Hobbs/Recording Tachometer.

Answer 18

C) Recorded from the Hobbs/Recording Tachometer.

Question 19

How often must recurrent training be completed?

a) Every 6 months.

b) Every 12 months.

c) Every 24 months.

Answer 19

B) Every 12 months.

Question 20

How often must a line check be completed?

a) Every 6 months.

b) Every 12 months.

c) Every 24 months.

Answer 20

B) Every 12 months.

Question 21

Night landings to unimproved sites when any component of the NVG system is inoperable are not permitted without

a) Chief Pilot authorization.

b) Medical personnel acceptance of the risks involved.

c) Tier I OCC approval.

Answer 21

C) Tier I OCC approval.

Question 22

Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s definition for improved sites is

a) An area where improvements have been made specifically to assist the landing of an aircraft (ex. runways, helipads, PILA sites, etc.).

b) Any area that is adequate for landing a helicopter without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

c) Any area that has adequate lighting (for night operations) and enough area to land a helicopter without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Answer 22

A) An area where improvements have been made specifically to assist the landing of an aircraft (ex. runways, helipads, PILA sites, etc.).

Question 23

Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s definition for unimproved landing sites is all sites that are not improved.

a) True.

b) False.

Answer 23

A) True.

Question 24

For all nighttime operations, both aided and unaided, the pilot must have__________, as required by 14 CFR 135.207.

a) Night vision goggles available.

b) Visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the aircraft.

c) Conducted three instrument approaches (non-precision and/or precision) within the past 30 days.

Answer 24

B) Visual surface light reference, sufficient to safely control the aircraft.

Question 25

All unaided takeoffs and landings to meet the night flight experience requirements will be conducted a) In a simulator. b) At a lighted improved site. c) At an unimproved site.

Answer 25

B) At a lighted improved site.

Question 26

If a pilot has not flown a specific Make or Model (ex. Bell 206, Bell 407, AS350) aircraft within the previous __________ days, he/she will be required to perform __________ takeoffs and landings tot a full stop, in a traffic pattern or similar to a traffic pattern at your location, as the sole occupant of that specific make/model aircraft. a) 30,2 b) 45,3 c) 30,3

Answer 26

C) 30,3

Question 27

If a pilot has not flown a specific Make or Model (ex. Bell 206, Bell 407, AS350) aircraft within the previous __________ days, he/she will be required to perform additional training with a Company Flight Instructor in that specific make/model aircraft. a) 30 b) 60 c) 90

Answer 27

C) 90

Question 28

The preflight risk analysis is required to be completed prior to a) The preflight of the aircraft b) The first leg of a helicopter air ambulance (HAA) operation. c) The medical personnel brief.

Answer 28

B) The first leg of a helicopter air ambulance (HAA) operation.

Question 29

Pilots are expected to comply with weather minimums of no lower than __________ day, and __________ night, unless alternate weather minimums have been approved. a) 1000, 3; 1500, 5 b) 800, 3; 1000, 3 c) 500, 2; 800, 3

Answer 29

A) 1000, 3; 1500, 5

Question 30

With prior approval, a pilot may be approved for the following alternate weather minimums. a) 1000, 3 day; 1500, 5 night. b) 800, 3 day; 1000, 3 night. c) 500, 2 day; 800, 3 night.

Answer 30

B) 800, 3 day; 1000, 3 night.

Question 31

During nighttime operations, a(n) __________ cloud layer will be viewed as a ceiling. a) scattered b) overcast c) broken

Answer 31

A) scattered

Question 32

While conducting VFR operations, the PIC must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of flight are cleared vertically by no less than __________ feet for day operations and _________ feet for night operations. a) 200, 400 b) 300, 500 c) 500, 1000

Answer 32

B) 300, 500

Question 33

When a new transport request is received while airborne, the flight may proceed without conducting a full VFR preflight plan. a) True; if this possibility was considered and documented in the original VFR flight planning as an operational consideration. b) True; if authorized by Tier III OCC before accepting the new request. c) False.

Answer 33

A) True; if this possibility was considered and documented in the original VFR flight planning as an operational consideration.

Question 34

Prior to flight, the PIC is required to calculate weight and balance using the company’s approved weight and balance program. a) True. b) False.

Answer 34

A) True.

Question 35

When should the aircraft preflight be completed? a) Anytime during the shift. b) At the end of the shift, prior to the relief pilot reporting for duty. c) Upon arrival at the duty station.

Answer 35

C) Upon arrival at the duty station.

Question 36

The preflight will be in accordance with, but not limited to, a) The aircraft flight manual or accepted abbreviated checklist. b) The accepted abbreviated checklist only. c) The rotorcraft flight manual or by memory.

Answer 36

A) The aircraft flight manual or accepted abbreviated checklist.

Question 37

Properly trained medical personnel may operate a heliporter anytime an aircraft is involved. a) True. b) False.

Answer 37

A) True.

Question 38

If a tie down is being utilized, what must be placed over the collective as an indication that the tie- down system must be removed prior to engine start? a) Pilot’s helmet. b) Yellow sock. c) Red storage bag.

Answer 38

C) Red storage bag.

Question 39

The helicopter must not go through the hangar door opening until the bottom of the hangar door is raised to the height of the a) Yellow stripes. b) Red stripes. c) White and black cross-hatched stripes.

Answer 39

B) Red stripes.

Question 40

No aircraft shall be flown unless that aircraft has been loaded in accordance with the approved a) AFM weight and balance section. b) Company weight and balance excel spreadsheet. c) EFB app for the appropriate BH206L model.

Answer 40

A) AFM weight and balance section.

Question 41

The aircraft weight and balance computation will be accomplished utilizing the a) EFB app for the appropriate BH206L model. b) Company approved electronic weight and balance program located on the intranet. c) Weight and balance loading and computation chart found in the limitations section of the AFM.

Answer 41

B) Company approved electronic weight and balance program located on the intranet.

Question 42

Weight computations and CG ranges are required to be onboard the aircraft during flight. a) True. b) False.

Answer 42

B) False.

Question 43

For weight and balance computations, what is the weight of Jet A? a) 7.0 pounds per gallon. b) 6.8 pounds per gallon. c) 6.5 pounds per gallon.

Answer 43

B) 6.8 pounds per gallon.

Question 44

Who is responsible for assuring the aircraft load is properly distributed in accordance with the computed loaded conditions? a) PIC and medical personnel. b) PIC. c) Medical personnel.

Answer 44

B) PIC.

Question 45

Who is responsible to ensure that all passengers, including the patient, are properly restrained and secured? a) PIC and medical personnel. b) PIC. c) Medical personnel.

Answer 45

B) PIC.

Question 46

No passenger, except those authorized to carry weapons per FAR 135.119, may carry a deadly or dangerous weapon aboard company aircraft without written approval from the a) Vice President of Operations. b) Chief Pilot. c) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Answer 46

C) Senior Director of Flight Operations.

Question 47

Before each takeoff the PIC or qualified medical personnel will orally brief all passengers in accordance with FAR 135.117 on the following: a) Smoking, use of seat belts, and location of fire extinguishers. b) Placement of seat backs in the upright position for takeoff and landing, location of survival equipment, and emergency egress. c) All are correct.

Answer 47

C) All are correct.

Question 48

Family members are highly encouraged to ride along on patient flights and Air Evac EMS, Inc. will make every effort to return them back home. a) True. b) False.

Answer 48

B) False

Question 49

How many copies of the challenge/response checklist are required to be onboard company aircraft? a) One. b) Two. c) Three.

Answer 49

b) Two.

Question 50

When must the challenge/response checklist be utilized? a) Pre-flight and post-landing. b) Cruise and pre-landing/ c) Pre-takeoff and pre-landing.

Answer 50

C) Pre-takeoff and pre-landing.

Question 51

If the pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, must he/she still perform the challenge/response checklist? a) Yes; but only the challenge portion. b) Yes; both the challenge and response portions. c) No; not required if the pilot is the sole occupant.

Answer 51

B) Yes; both the challenge and response portions.

Question 52

Except for takeoff and landing, pilots will maintain a minimum altitude of: a) 300 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations. b) 300 feet MSL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet MSL or higher for night VFR operations. c) 500 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 300 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations.

Answer 52

a) 300 feet AGL or higher for day VFR operations, 500 feet AGL or higher for night VFR operations.

Question 53

While en route, a minimum of __________ feet AGL altitude is recommended at all times as long as legal cloud separation can be maintained. a) 800 b) 1000 c) 1200

Answer 53

B) 1000

Question 54

What power setting is encouraged en route to a patient pickup or anytime a patient is onboard as long as airspeed or other limitations are not exceeded? a) Max continuous torque. b) Best fuel range torque. c) Max takeoff torque.

Answer 54

A) Max continuous torque.

Question 55

Landing/departing from dollies is authorized. a) True. b) False.

Answer 55

B) False.

Question 56

According to Air Evac EMS, Inc.’s GOM, __________ minutes of fuel is viewed as “Critically Low Fuel.” a) 15 b) 20 c) 30

Answer 56

C) 30

Question 57

Any pilot deviating from the fuel reserve guidance found in the GOM, Chapter 5, will submit a written statement as to the events surrounding the occurrence to a) The Chief Pilot within 24 hours but preferably at the completion of the flight. b) The Chief Pilot within 5 days. c) Tier 1 OCC at the completion of the flight.

Answer 57

A) The Chief Pilot within 24 hours but preferably at the completion of the flight.

Question 58

Regarding fueling; if the quality of fuel is in question, or the fuel vendor is patronized by Air Evac EMS, Inc. four times or less per month, and/or no fuel vendor audit has been conducted, the __________ will perform a clear and bright test on a fuel sample before refueling. a) pilot b) mechanic c) fuel vendor

Answer 58

A) pilot

Question 59

Prior to fueling, the nozzle will be checked for contamination. a) True. b) False.

Answer 59

A) True.

Question 60

No smoking is allowed onboard the aircraft at any time or within __________ feet of the aircraft during fueling operations. a) 30 b) 50 c) 100

Answer 60

B) 50

Question 61

No aircraft refueling or de-fueling may be conducted with thunderstorms within a __________ mile radius. a) 10 b) 5 c) 2

Answer 61

B) 5

Question 62

The PIC is authorized to hot refuel the helicopter alone and may leave the flight controls of the aircraft unattended to do so. a) True. b) False.

Answer 62

B) False.

Question 63

May the pilot in command get out of an aircraft with the rotors turning/engine running? a) No; never authorized. b) Yes; however, the pilot will be out of the cockpit for the least amount of time possible, and will remain within close proximity of the aircraft. c) Yes; the pilot may get out of the cockpit as long as desired.

Answer 63

B) Yes; however, the pilot will be out of the cockpit for the least amount of time possible, and will remain within close proximity of the aircraft.

Question 64

When can the pilot in command leave the aircraft while the rotor is turning? a) A PIC is not authorized to leave the aircraft while the rotor is turning. b) To determine all lights are working properly for night operations. c) The PIC determines there is a hazard to safe operations.

Answer 64

c) The PIC determines there is a hazard to safe operations.

Question 65

Pilots may disengage the SAS to practice approaches or other types of approved training (no patient on board). a) True. b) False.

Answer 65

A) True.

Question 66

What is the minimum clearance for all helicopters? a) At least 1/4 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas. b) At least 1/2 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas. c) At least 1/3 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

Answer 66

C) At least 1/3 of the rotor diameter between the rotor blade tips on rotor discs of operating aircraft, between the outboard tip of the rotor disc and any obstruction, and at a distance great enough not to create a hazard to persons or property on the ground in non-secured areas.

Question 67

Per the GOM, what is the definition of “Other Commercial flying”? a) Any nonmilitary flying as a required crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated. b) Any flight time accumulated outside of Air Evac EMS, Inc. c) Any flying as a crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated.

Answer 67

A) Any nonmilitary flying as a required crewmember for which the crewmember is compensated.

Question 68

A pilot’s total flight time in all commercial flying (Air Evac EMS, Inc. plus all other commercial flying) may not exceed __________ hours in any calendar quarter; __________ hours in any two consecutive calendar quarters; or __________ hours in any calendar year; or ________ hours within any 24 hour window. a) 400; 800; 1,200; 6 b) 500; 1,000; 1,500; 8 c) 500; 800; 1,400; 8

Answer 68

C) 500; 800; 1,400; 8

Question 69

A pilot’s duty period is defined as starting when the on-coming pilot a) Leaves home. b) Reports to work. c) Completes the aircraft preflight.

Answer 69

B) Reports to work.

Question 70

No pilot will report to conduct a Part 135.267 duty period following a normal break period without at least __________ consecutive hours of rest or conducting any other duties assigned by the certificate holder in the previous __________ hours. a) 10;8 b) 10; 10 c) 10; 12

Answer 70

B) 10; 10

Question 71

Pilots will accept a transport request (with respect to duty time) based on preflight planning that the flight will terminate at the receiving facility prior to the pilot exceeding __________ hours on duty. a) 10 b) 12 c) 14

Answer 71

C) 14

Question 72

The FAA approves Air Evac EMS, Inc. to use the following sources of weather information a) Aviation Digital Data Service. b) Weather Tap. c) All are correct.

Answer 72

C) All are correct.

Question 73

Acceptance of a flight is prohibited when liquid moisture in the form of mist, drizzle, or rain is observed or forecast and a temperature of _______ or less is observed or forecast at the altitudes of operation and along the route of flight. a) +3°C / +37° F b) 0°C/ +32°F c) +8°C / +46°F

Answer 73

A) +3°C / +37° F

Question 74

Company primary weather minimums are __________ for daytime operations, and _________ for nighttime operations. a) 1000/3; 1500/5 b) 800/2; 1000/3 c) 1200/3; 1500/5

Answer 74

A) 1000/3; 1500/5

Question 75

Company alternate weather minimums are __________ for daytime operations, and _________ for nighttime operations. a) 1000/3; 1500/5 b) 800/2; 1000/3 c) 800/3; 1000/3

Answer 75

C) 800/3; 1000/3

Question 76

Whenever a pilot encounters a potentially hazardous meteorological condition, the knowledge of which the pilot considers essential to the safety of other flights, the pilot, or medical personnel if requested by the pilot, shall a) Notify the nearest FSS as soon as possible. b) Notify CENCOM as soon as possible. c) Notify Tier I OCC as soon as practicable.

Answer 76

B) Notify CENCOM as soon as possible.

Question 77

Required weather minimums must exist at the departure point for the type of flight being conducted. There must be reasonable expectation that these minimums, or better conditions, will a) Exist en route and at the destination at the ETA. b) Exist at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination. c) Exist at least 30 minutes before and 30 minutes after the ETA at the destination.

Answer 77

B) Exist at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination.

Question 78

Helicopter flights into known icing conditions are authorized through OCC approval. a) True. b) False.

Answer 78

B) False.

Question 79

Helicopter flights into know icing conditions are __________ per FAR 135.227(d). a) authorized b) prohibited c) restricted

Answer 79

B) prohibited

Question 80

Maximum surface winds for startup and shutdown are __________ knots and/or a __________ knot gust spread. This limitation is for startup and shutdown only. a) 40; 15 b) 40; 20 c) 30; 15

Answer 80

A) 40; 15

Question 81

For Air Evac EMS, Inc. purposes, “cold weather” is anytime ambient temperature is __________ or less. a) 30°C b) 40°C c) 40°F

Answer 81

C) 40°F

Question 82

The pilot and/or mechanic is authorized to use any de-icing or anti-icing fluids on the aircraft. a) True. b) False.

Answer 82

B) False.

Question 83

All departures will be made from a hover, and not directly from the ground. Exceptions for possible brown-out or white-out should be considered. a) True. b) False.

Answer 83

A) True.

Question 84

During takeoff, except to avoid obstacles, no turns will be made below __________ knots and __________ feet AGL. a) 10; 500 b) 50; 30 c) 60; 300

Answer 84

C) 60; 300

Question 85

Unless established on final approach, except to avoid obstacles, no turns will be made below __________ feet AGL and __________ knots. a) 500; 10 b) 300; 50 c) 300; 60

Answer 85

C) 300; 60

Question 86

Minimum altitude above ground level at which a company helicopter shall be in a stabilized approach condition is __________ feet. a) 50 b) 100 c) 200

Answer 86

B) 100

Question 87

If at any time during the final approach, at or below __________ feet AGL, the aircraft is not in a stabilized approach condition, the pilot will execute a go-around maneuver. a) 50 b) 100 c) 200

Answer 87

b) 100

Question 88

Which parameters constitute a stabilized approach? a) Bank angle less than 20°, airspeed within ± 15 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt. b) Bank angle less than 30°, airspeed within ± 20 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt. c) Bank angle less than 5°, airspeed within ± 5 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

Answer 88

A) Bank angle less than 20°, airspeed within ± 15 knots of the recommended approach speed with an apparent rate of closure which will allow an approach to the touchdown area with little or no flare, no roll rate below ETL is allowed, and a safe landing is never in doubt.

Question 89

Which of the following events would require a pilot to complete a written event/incident report to the Chief Pilot within 24 hours (preferable immediately after the flight). a) The pilot has flown past the 14 hour duty day Part 135. b) The pilot has flown with less than 20 minutes of fuel. c) All are correct.

Answer 89

C) All are correct.

Question 90

In accordance with aircraft torque exceedance procedures for the Bell 206, if a torque exceedance occurred while in flight and the maximum torque exceedance is unknown, the pilot is authorized to pull the Diamond J torque gauge circuit breaker in flight to determine the maximum value. a) True. b) False.

Answer 90

B) False

Question 91

A pilot may request a return flight to base beyond the 14th hour. This will require consultation and approval from the a) Tier I OCC or higher. b) Chief Pilot. c) RDFO or Chief Pilot.

Answer 91

A) Tier I OCC or higher.

Question 92

Pilots will announce their intentions as follows when no established communications procedure exists. a) Five miles from landing, one mile from landing, and landing. b) Liftoff, one mile from departure site, and five miles from departure site. c) All are correct.

Answer 92

C) All are correct.

Question 93

A previous transport decline for weather or other considerations does not in itself automatically preclude a base from considering or accepting the transport. a) True. b) False.

Answer 93

A) True.

Question 94

Any flight request for a transport with on-way patient loaded miles of __________ NM, or more, will require approval from the CenCom communication’s supervisor with the assistance of MedLink or Tier I OCC prior to acceptance. a) 100 b) 150 c) 200

Answer 94

B) 150

Question 95

Hot loading/unloading will be acceptable under the following circumstances: a) Patient condition requires immediate departure/arrival and/or Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation is in progress. b) The surface of the landing area is unstable and/or there is impending bad weather. c) All are correct.

Answer 95

C) All are correct.

Question 96

Upon arriving at a scene during the day, the PIC a) May proceed directly onto final approach without conducting a high recon. b) Shall make a high recon to determine wind direction, forced landing areas, and obstacles for entry and egress from the area. c) May conduct a high recon if he/she determines it’s necessary.

Answer 96

B) Shall make a high recon to determine wind direction, forced landing areas, and obstacles for entry and egress from the area.

Question 97

A recon performed during landing does not suffice as to ensuring that your departure path is safe and clear of obstacles. It must be verified prior to departure. a) True. b) False.

Answer 97

A) True.

Question 98

The risk analysis is required to be completed a) Prior to the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation. b) As soon as the PIC reports for duty. c) As soon as practicable after departure on the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation.

Answer 98

A) Prior to the first leg of a helicopter air ambulance operation.

Question 99

Only one Risk Analysis is required per duty day per PIC (not required for each HAA operation). a) True. b) False.

Answer 99

B) False.

Question 100

When must a paper copy of the risk analysis be completed and signed? a) Anytime that a new risk analysis is completed when away from home base and a computer or EFB is not available. b) Anytime the PIC deems it necessary. c) When a risk analysis is performed by the medical personal for the PIC

Answer 100

A) Anytime that a new risk analysis is completed when away from home base and a computer or EFB is not available.

Question 101

The pilot may not lift the aircraft until he/she receives notification from Tier I or Tier II OCC that their Preflight Risk Analysis Form has been “Acknowledged.” a) True. b) False.

Answer 101

A) True

Question 102

The pilot may lift the aircraft without receiving notification from Tier I or Tier II OCC that their Preflight Risk Analysis Form has been “Acknowledged.” a) True. b) False.

Answer 102

B) False.

Question 103

If the total risk value is in the __________, the pilot accepted and submitted RA form must be reviewed and acknowledged by either Tier I or Tier II OCC. a) Green b) Green or Yellow c) Yellow

Answer 103

B) Green or Yellow

Question 104

If the total risk value is in the __________, the pilot is required to consult with Tier I OCC prior to acceptance of the flight. a) Green b) Yellow c) Orange

Answer 104

C) Orange

Question 105

For a total risk value in the red, the flight is a no-go and will not be accepted unless consultation between the pilot, Tier I OCC, and an RDFO can reduce the risk into the orange range. a) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by the pilot. b) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by Tier I OCC. c) False.

Answer 105

A) True; this risk mitigation option must be initiated by the pilot.

Question 106

For night operations, the search light may be inoperative provided a) The flights are inter-facility or landing at an airport. b) All fixed lights are operational. c) All are correct.

Answer 106

C) All are correct.

Question 107

No scene flights are allowed without an operative search light. a) True. b) False.

Answer 107

A) True.

Question 108

If the searchlight becomes inoperative at any time before landing at a scene at night, the transport will be aborted. a) True. b) False.

Answer 108

A) True.

Question 109

The radio altimeter is required for NVG operations. a) True. b) False.

Answer 109

A) True.

Question 110

Base pilots may conduct the following emergency procedures with medical personnel on board. a) Autorotations from altitude and tail rotor failures. b) Stuck pedals and hydraulic failures. c) None are correct.

Answer 110

C) None are correct.

Question 111

EFB supplemental information can be found in a) Appendix A of the GOM. b) Appendix D of the GOM. c) Appendix D of the Training Manual.

Answer 111

B) Appendix D of the GOM.

Question 112

Which app on the EFB will contain reference material such as the rotorcraft flight manual, general operations manual, minimum equipment list, and emergency response guide? a) PDF To Go. b) Garmin Pilot. c) Airwatch/Secure Content Locker (SCL).

Answer 112

C) Airwatch/Secure Content Locker (SCL).

Question 113

In flight, the EFB must be stowed or in __________ for all critical phases of flight. a) An approved portable mounting device b) An approved fixed mounting device c) All are correct.

Answer 113

A) An approved portable mounting device

Question 114

The EFB may be utilized in cruise flight. Ownship display must be turned ON in flight. a) True. b) False.

Answer 114

B) False.

Question 115

The EFB may be utilized in cruise flight. Ownship display must be turned OFF in flight. a) True. b) False.

Answer 115

A) True.

Question 116

If either (primary or backup) EFB fails, the aircraft __________ until a replacement EFB is received, pre-flight performed, and confirmed to be loaded with appropriate information or current copies of required documents can be substituted. a) May continue operations. b) Will remain on the ground c) May continue operations after approval from OCC Tier II

Answer 116

B) Will remain on the ground

Question 117

EFB battery life is defined as a) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged. b) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced. c) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it reaches the low battery life warning (10%).

Answer 117

A) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged.

Question 118

EFB battery lifespan is defined as a) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it must be recharged. b) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced. c) The time the iPad mini EFB will run before it reaches the low battery life warning (10%).

Answer 118

B) The total amount of time the battery will last before it needs to be replaced.

Question 119

When a pilot determines that the EFB does not meet the battery lifespan standards through the battery testing procedure, the pilot will contact __________ for an iPad mini EFB replacement. a) The Chief Pilot b) Maintenance Control c) OCC

Answer 119

C) OCC

Question 120

All EFB devices will be tested __________ of every year to determine if the EFB has sufficient battery lifespan. a) Every third month b) Every June and December c) Every January and July

Answer 120

C) Every January and July

Question 121

If an EFB is tested and will not continue to operate for at least __________ hours on battery power, the pilot will contact OCC to arrange for a replacement EFB. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4

Answer 121

B) 3

Question 122

When there’s an aircraft equipment change that would affect the flight manual or supplements, __________ will update the aircraft specific EFB file to reflect the changes appropriately. a) MXC b) OCC c) CenCom

Answer 122

B) OCC

Question 123

If the EFB user has reason to question the EFB configuration, they will contact __________, or their designee, for resolution. a) Chief Pilot b) On duty Maintenance Control specialist. c) OCC

Answer 123

C) OCC

Question 124

Any EFB anomalies or malfunctions that would be considered a nuisance, intermittent, or unusual will be reported through __________. a) 135 Quality Control Manager. b) Chief Pilot. c) EFB anomaly report.

Answer 124

C) EFB anomaly report.

Question 125

The EFB anomaly report can be found in a) The GOM, Appendix B. b) The GOM, Appendix C. c) The GOM, Appendix D.

Answer 125

C) The GOM, Appendix D.

Question 126

The EFB operator procedure checklist can be found in a) The GOM, Appendix D b) The GOM, Chapter 5 c) The GOM, Chapter 4

Answer 126

A) The GOM, Appendix D

Question 127

The EFB battery lifespan test form can be found in a) The GOM, Appendix A b) The GOM, Appendix D, Page 10. c) The GOM, Chapter 5

Answer 127

B) The GOM, Appendix D, Page 10.