GOM Flashcards
(273 cards)
1
Q
Define operational control
A
Ability to initiate, conduct, and terminate a flight
2
Q
Who has ultimate responsibility for operational control?
A
Director of operations
3
Q
Operational control is delegated into 4 levels. Name them and explain who can approve release.
A
Level 1 - crew self release with pax
Level 2 - crew self release w/o pax (call SOC)
Level 3 - Crew self release or ODO release
Level 4 - DO/CPO/ODO
4
Q
Immediately notify CPO of any of the following:
A
1 - Aborted Takeoff
2 - Deviation from normal procedures
3 - Pilot unable to perform duties
4 - Safety violations (perceived or real)
5 - Unscheduled landings (including return to the field)
5
Q
Immediately notify SOC of any of the following
A
1 - Accident or Incident
2 - Delay greater than 15 minutes
3 - Significant deviation from planned route
4 - Unforecast or Significant weather encounters
5 - Other info related to safety of flight
6
Q
Deviation from GOM is not authorized unless approved by
A
Director of Operations
7
Q
Who is authorized to exercise operational control?
A
1 - Director of Operations 2 - Director of Maintenance 3 - Chief Pilot 4 - Assistant Chief Pilot 5 - ODO (limited) 6 - Captain (limited)
8
Q
Level 3 release may be required:
A
1 - International (outside lower 48) 2 - Class II NAV 3 - Contaminated Runways 4 - Special Airport Operations 5 - NCPT (first 150hrs) or RCPT 6 - No suitable IAP
9
Q
Level 4 release required:
A
1 - DAAP
2 - Supplemental O2 Required
3 - Maintenance Flights
4 - Part 91 Ops (not training/checking) (CPO)
5 - Ferry Flight
6 - CSE Red (CPO)
7 - Braking Action (2 / Medium to Poor) (CPO)
10
Q
Possible self release at special or mountainous airport:
A
- Self release allowed by dep/arr and SAG
- No severe weather
- PIC ops last 12 months
- Daylight ops
- Night arrival authorized and IAP available
- Night departure with APG DP and Company Authorized
11
Q
Severe weather for Mountainous and Special Airports is defined as:
A
- Potential Severe Icing
- Potential Severe Turbulence
- Potential Freezing Rain
- Wind >25kts incl gusts (Mountainous only)
12
Q
Potential Dep/Arr Runway Self Release:
A
- CSE not RED
- Not NCPT/RCPT
Departure Runway - Runway Dry
- Runway Wet/Contaminated TOFL >1000’ >actual
- Runway Wet <1000’ >actual required (left seat TO)
- DEP CLIMB APG DP or 1.6VMC
Arrival Runway - 1.67 Dry with suitable IAP
- 1.92 Wet with suitable IAP and Not Contaminated
- 1.92 Contaminated RCAM >2/>Med to Poor w/ no tailwind and 2 TRs
13
Q
Contaminated runway dispatch requirements
A
- Level 3 Release required if TOFL <1000’ >actual for Takeoff, No tailwind, Both TRs operational
- Level 4 Release required if RCAM 2 / Med to Poor
- For landing: No tailwind, Both TRs operational
14
Q
Potential Class II Self Release:
A
- Qualified for Route
- Supplemental O2 not required (Level 4)
- Destination Fuel >2000# (Level 3)
- ETP airports above WX mins (ODO/SOC)
- ETP fuel >30min (Level 3)
15
Q
Potential International Self Release:
A
Level 3 unless:
- Crew familiar with BOE Procedures (if eligible)
- Crew familiar with international proc and customs loc and proc
16
Q
Border Overflight Eligible Checklist
A
- Aircraft listed
- Crew members listed
- Customs overflight noted on flight plan remarks
17
Q
Immediate notification to the NTSB is required when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur:
A
a) Flight control system malfunction or failure;
b) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
c) Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes;
d) In-flight fire;
e) Aircraft collide in flight.
f) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less.
g) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments;
h) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces;
i) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines.
j) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized.
k) An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
18
Q
The Captain of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident will, to the extent possible:
A
- Communicate 1st to emergency services, then to SOC.
- Preserve any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail
- Preserve all aircraft operating records
- Not stand relieved unless for medical reasons until the NTSB or FAA takes custody.
- Submit a report as soon as physically able (ASAP)
19
Q
Pilots who anticipate any portion of their flight to be operated under VFR will file a _____________ by phone to the Operation Analyst. The Captain will ___________ to close the VFR flight plan once the VFR portion is completed.
A
Company flight plan
call or email SOC
20
Q
Overdue aircraft by 30 minutes (company flight plan):
A
Operations Analyst will:
- Attempt to contact crew
- Notify ODO, DO and CP
- Contact FBO
- Contact FSS
- Contact ATC to pass message
21
Q
Overdue aircraft by 45 minutes (company flight plan):
A
DO or CP will:
- Initiate ERP
- Notify FSDO
- Reference NTSB pt 830
22
Q
Contents of the Aircraft Binder:
A
- Form 106: VOR Check
- Form 108: Aircraft Status Sheet
- Form 125: Airworthiness Release
- Form 130: Discrepancy Log and Instructions
- Form 140: Condition Log and Instructions
- Form 503: Airworthiness Release
- Empty weight and center of gravity determination
- Radio Station Authorization
- MEL/NEF/CDL Placards
- Customs Receipt
- Insurance forms
- Credit cards
23
Q
How long must the completed 130 forms remain on the aircraft?
A
30 days from the last discrepancy and then mailed to MX control.
24
Q
A signed off discrepancy will have what information?
A
- Aircraft TT
- Corrective action
- Date
- Signature
- Certificate Number
25
VOR check required how often?
30 days (Form 106)
26
Non-compliant RVSM aircraft requirements
- "NO RVSM" flight plan remark
- Operate in accordance to MEL
- Advise FAA through DO within 72hrs if necessary
27
Discrepancy categorizations:
- Un-airworthy Item
- MEL Item
- NEF Item
- CDL Item
- Carry-Over Item
- Information Only Item
28
Define and describe Carry Over Item
Covers items not listed in MEL/NEF/CDL
- Dents/cracks within limits
- Removal of optional equipment
- Removal of equipment not required by Type Cert and Op Rules
- Fuel leaks within limits
- Interim repairs approved by manufacturer or DER
29
Define Info Only Items
Item is written for information purposes and does not indicate an un-airworthy condition
30
Persons authorized to complete corrective action portion of discrepancy log:
- Company Maintenance Personnel
- FAA Certificated Technicians and FAA Certified Repair Stations
- XOJET Flight Crew may clear deferrals for expired NAV databases
31
Items to be entered into and deferred in the Discrepancy Log (Form 130):
- MEL
| - CDL
32
Items to be entered into and deferred in the Condition Log (Form 140):
- NEF
| - Carry-Over
33
The assigned Captain may defer a _________ or complete an _________ Item.
Discrepancy
| INFO ONLY
34
When shall the white copy of the discrepancy or condition log be removed?
When all items on the page are completed.
35
What is the duration of an airworthiness release and how many shall be retained?
- Until superseded by next maintenance event
- Retain two most current airworthiness releases
- Mail remaining expired airworthiness releases to maintenance
36
What MEL categories can be extended by the DOM?
MEL category B and C
| NEF category D and R
37
Length of discrepancy MEL categories?
A - MEL specified
B - 3 days (midnight day recorded +72 hours) day recorded doesn't apply
C - 10 days (midnight day recorded +240 hours) day recorded doesn't apply
D - 120 days (midnight day recorded)
R - refurb
38
Where can the flight crew find deferral placarding instructions?
Placard instructions can be found in the MEL/NEF/CDL.
39
What is contained within the CDL?
Citation X - Specific Bonding Jumpers and Fuel Cover/Lanyard
Configuration Deviation List (CDL) are those items installed on the aircraft listed as secondary airframe parts. The CDL identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction (e.g., speed penalty, increased fuel burn, altitude limitations). If inoperative, damaged, or missing, these items have no effect on the aircraft's ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
40
What items are typically in the NEF?
Items that if inoperative, damaged or missing have no effect on the aircraft's ability to be operated safely under all operational conditions.
41
What two levels of maintenance flight will the company conduct?
Check Flight and Confidence Flight
42
Who holds responsibility for issuance of a special flight permit?
Director of Maintenance
43
Maintenance Check Flight is required after what maintenance:
- Engine Change
- Primary Flight Control Surface Installation, Rigging, Cable Changes, Actuator Replacement
- Major structural repair or alterations that may affect flight characteristics
- As required by DOM
44
Maintenance Check Flight Conditions:
- Minimum Required Crew
- VMC
- Daylight
45
Maintenance Confidence Flight is required when:
An operational or functional check of non-critical systems following maintenance to determine if repairs have corrected the discrepancy prior to re-entry into revenue service.
46
Maintenance Confidence Flight Conditions:
- Minimum Required Crew
47
Discrepancies under which Special Flight Permits Issued
- Aircraft damage
- Landing gear down operations
- Landing gear door removed
- System(s) inoperative beyond the limits of the MEL, but otherwise capable of safe flight
- Aircraft operation with flaps in full up position
- Compliance with an airworthiness directive unless the airworthiness directive states otherwise or it is determined that the aircraft cannot be moved safely
48
Hazardous Materials COMAT will not be transported on our aircraft. The ONLY exception is:
A tire assembly with serviceable tire not over inflated and it is protected from damage.
49
HAZMAT exceptions, carried by Passengers or Crewmembers. Personal use items allowed under following conditions:
- Non-radioactive medicinal or toiletry articles in checked or carry-on
- Aerosol with no risk and protective cap
50
Aggregate quantity of all HM items carried by each person allowed may not exceed:
70oz. (2kg) by mass or 68fl. oz. (2L) by volume
51
Individual containers of HM cannot exceed:
18oz. (0.5kg) by mass or 17 fl.oz. (500ml) by volume
52
What self-defense HAZMAT item may a person carry on the aircraft?
One self-defense spray not exceeding 4 fl. oz. that incorporates a positive means of prevent accidental discharge (checked baggage only)
53
When will Wheelchairs/mobility aids not be transported?
If the device shows signs of damage or leakage.
54
Wheelchair batteries are either ____ or _____
Spillable or non-spillable
55
Wheelchairs must be loaded/stored _____
Upright. If they cannot then it is recommended that non-spillable batteries are removed and mandatory that the spillable batteries are removed.
56
How are wheelchair batteries to be prepared for travel?
Battery must be disconnected and terminal and end cables are insulated to prevent short circuits.
57
If a wheelchair battery is to be removed:
- Removal accomplished by properly trained airline personnel
- Transported in strong, rigid packaging that is impervious to battery fluid.
- Packaging marked as CORROSIVE label with "Battery, Wet, With Wheelchair"
58
A HAZMAT incident shall be reported as soon as practical but no later than
12 hours after the occurence of the incident.
59
Hidden shipment indicators could indicate:
that HAZMAT is present.
60
Examples of hidden shipment indicators:
- Aircraft Parts/COMAT
- Automobile Parts
- SCUBA gear
- Camping Equipment
- Electrical Equipment
- Frozen Fruits / Veggies
- Household Goods
- Instruments
- Machinery Parts
- Medical Supplies / Equipment
- Pharmaceuticals
- Photo Supplies
- Refrigerators
- Swimming Pool Supplies
- Tool Boxes
61
Hazardous Material Onboard Citation X
- Aircraft Batteries (3)
- Engine Oil
- Life Rafts
- Fire Bottles (APU, Engines)
- Fire Extinguishers (CP, Closet)
- Fuel
- Hydraulic Fluid
- Oxygen Bottles
62
For taxi the PF's EFB will be set to ____ and the PM's EFB will be set to ____
Departure Procedure (if assigned), Taxi Diagram
63
All mechanical discrepancies noted by the flight crew will be recorded on FORM 130/140 with what information:
• The control number.
• The date that the discrepancy is initiated.
• Description
• All permanent aircraft record entries will be legible and accurate.
64
A description of the mechanical discrepancy will be as clear and descriptive as possible. Use as much space as necessary to give a complete description of the discrepancy. If more space is needed
put an “X” through the next control number then use the next discrepancy block for additional space. The next Discrepancy Log page will be used for continuation of mechanical discrepancies.
65
What is required to be reviewed on the XO Format Flight Plan prior to signing it?
- Routing
- Fuel Requirements
- Flight Times
66
When shall the company NOT conduct simulated abnormals or emergencies?
- Passenger/Cargo Flights
| - Reposition Flights unless IAW training manual
67
RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:
- Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database
68
Night Ops Require
- runway lights
| - lighted wind direction indicator (may be substituted with ground personnel)
69
RNAV Instrument Approaches must be accomplished only in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are:
- Contained in a CURRENT FMS Database
| - Pilot must verify approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs
70
RNAV Approach - Pilot must verify
approach waypoints for accuracy to current pubs
71
Use of FMS IAP is prohibited unless:
APPR or APP is annunciated on the PFD
72
Minimum Altitude Rules -
| No turns prior to
400ft AGL unless required by ATC and is safe.
73
Minimum Altitude Rules -
| The initial climb to
1500ft AGL must be completed as rapidly as practicable.
74
Minimum Safe and Enroute Altitudes: The terrain clearance requirements are
1,000ft, or 2,000ft in mountainous terrain, above the highest obstacle and within 5nm of the course to be flown. Note an MSA allows 4nm of the course to be flown.
75
Aircraft landing on a runway served by a VASI, PAPI, or other visual light system or an ILS shall
- fly at or above the visual glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
- fly at or above the electronic glideslope between the OM and MM.
76
Aircraft landing on a runway without a visual or instrument system shall
use a computed 3 degree slope (300ft/1mile) until 1/2mile final approach.
77
Speed Limitations-
(Class C/D)
(Class B)
(Holding)
a) 200kts: In Class C and D within 4NM up to 2,500ftAGL
b) 200 kts: Under Class B
c) 250 kts: <10,000 MSL
d) 200 kts: Holding from 6,000 ft and below
e) 230 kts: Holding from 6001 ft to 14,000 ft
f) 265 kts: Holding from 14,001 ft and above
78
Operations shall be suspended:
a) Braking Action Reports of Nil or Poor (<2RCAM)
b) Freezing rain or drizzle
c) Severe turbulence
d) Severe icing
e) Winds 50 kts or greater
f) Crosswinds beyond the manufacturer's demonstrated component
g) Greater than 10kt tailwind
h) Deemed unsafe
79
Procedures Not Authorized @ XOJET:
```
1- Special VFR Clearances
2- Contact Approaches
3- VFR or IFR On Top Clearances
4- VFR Over-the-Top
5- RNP Approaches
6- Use of Standard Weights
7- Carriage of HAZMAT
8- Powerplant Reversing for Rearward Taxi
```
80
Pilots who anticipate any portion of their flight to be operated under VFR will:
File a company flight plan by phone with Operation Analyst
81
Define VFR Only Airport:
Airport without a published or usable DP or Approach
82
All VFR operations will have what weather conditions minimum?
Visibility Day - 3SM
Visibility Night - 5SM
Visibility Above 10kMSL - 5SM
Cloud clearance requirements - 152 (1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal)
Above 10k - 111 (1000 above, 1000 below, 1SM horizontal)
Ceiling Reports >1000ft
83
Define VFR Only Airport:
Airport without a published DP or Approach
84
VFR Arrival Requirements:
- Company Flight Plan
- Visual Contact with destination and maintain VFR
- Operate within 10NM of airport
- IAP required @ night or reduced visibility
- Pilots familiar with airport and obstacles
- Remain in controlled airspace as long as feasible
- Published CTAF
- Required Facilities or Services
- Verified Ground Handling 1 hour prior to landing
- @Night - Arrivals require VASI/PAPI or GS system
- @Night - May not cancel IFR and land VFR at SAG airports
- @Night - Mountainous VFR only airports not authorized
85
Training, Checkrides, Maintenance and New Aircraft Acceptance Flights may be operated under VFR provided:
- Company flight plan
- Remain within 50NM of originating airport
- Meet weather and obstacle requirements
- Select altitude as high as practical
86
IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Takeoff Mins
1SM or 5000RVR
87
A TERPs minimum for takeoffs or landings is
limiting
88
IFR Takeoff Minimums - 2 Engine Standard Visibility
1SM or 5000RVR
89
IFR Takeoff Minimums - Standard Takeoff Mins may be reduced to:
lowest straight in approach visibility for departure airport's most suitable runway
90
IFR Takeoff Minimums - Crew Requirements
Captain - 100hrs PIC and PF unless CoPilot 100hrs PIC in type. May waive if Check Airman.
91
IFR Takeoff Minimums - RVR1600 or 1/4sm
One visual aid: HIRL, CL, RCLM or adequate visual reference
92
>1600RVR - Controlling RVR for landing
Touchdown Zone RVR, Mid RVR may be substituted if TDRVR is unavailable
93
TDZ RVR 1200, Mid RVR 1200, Rollout RVR 1000 (one may be inoperative)
Daylight - HIRL or CL or servicable RCLM
| Night - HIRL or CL
94
TDZ RVR 1000, mid-RVR 1000 (if installed), and rollout RVR
| 1000, (one may be inoperative)
CL or HIRL and serviceable RCLM
95
TDZ RVR 500, mid-RVR 500 (if installed), and rollout RVR 500, (one may be inoperative)
HIRL and Operative runway CL lights
96
For operations below RVR 1600 - A minimum of how may RVR systems are required?
Two operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVR reports are controlling. Far-end RVR on long runways is not controlling and not to be used as one of two required RVR systems
97
If ATC does not specifically assign a SID or radar vector:
must comply with the ODP
98
ODP exception - VFR conditions and
request 'visual climb on course' which will not be assigned by ATC
99
Define a diverse airport
IFR airport without ODP are considered diverse
| - turn in any direction with 3.3% climb gradient to reach min IFR altitude
100
Uncontrolled airspace or untowered airport operations require:
- Instrument Approach Procedure
- CTAF
- IFR facilities and services
- Approved weather sources
101
Uncontrolled airport departure/arrival weather sources
Departures
Arrivals
Departures
- without approved weather, depart VMC (Captain determines) with takeoff alternate
Arrivals
- Approved Alternate Airport
- Local Altimeter or altimeter on approach chart
102
An instrument approach will not begin unless
latest visibility is at or above the landing minimums
103
Effective runway length will be at least 115% of runway required (1.92) for what approach visibility:
Weather forecasts or reports indicate @ ETA or upon arrival
| - visibility will be (or is) less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR
104
When approach visibility will be less than 3/4SM or 4000RVR what runway lights and markings must be operational?
Precision instrument Runway Centerline Marking or Centerline Lights
105
What is the point that, after which, an approach may be continued if the weather drops below landing visibility
FAF
106
What RVR is controlling for landing?
TDZ RVR reports are controlling. Mid and Rollout RVR are advisory.
107
An aircraft may operate below DA or MDA assuming:
- continually in safe position to land normally in the TDZ
- Visibility equal to or greater than required for approach
- maintain runway visual reference
108
Visual Reference Requirements for Landing (airport environment)
- Approach Lights (may continue to 100ft above TDZ elevation)
- REILs, VASIs, Red Sidebars/Terminating Lights
- Threshold, Threshold Markings, Threshold Lights
- Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Zone Markings, Touchdown Zone Lights
- Runway, Runway Marking, Runway Lights
109
Requirements Visual Approach:
- Inside B, C, D airspace, within 35sm from the destination in class E airspace, or airspace beneath the designated transition area.
- IFR airport
- Flight is under the control of an ATC facility.
- Maintains VFR arrival requirements
- Both the Captain and Co-Pilot must be familiar with the airport and the surrounding obstacles to identify, avoid and maneuver safely.
Non-Charted
• Maintains visual contact with the airport or traffic following assigned by ATC.
Charted
• Comply with its limitations and maintain visual contact with the charted landmark(s).
- IAP is required when the crew does not have absolute assurance of obstacle clearance at night and/or when the weather conditions might not allow excellent visual conditions.
- Night Visual Approaches require a VASI/PAPI or glideslope system to be operative and used.
110
Visual approaches into special airports at night are not authorized unless:
it is a charted visual approach
111
Night visual approaches require what guidance:
- VASI/PAPI or glideslope system
112
Missed approach must be initiated if:
- Runway environment not in sight at or below/past DA/MDA or MAP.
- Not in a position to make a safe landing in the TDZ
- Aircraft not stabilized
113
If destination change en-route is required who should be contacted? If unable what happens?
- SOC, ODO, CP, ACP, DO
| - Captain may utilized emergency authority for unscheduled landing
114
Does customer service have authority to issue a destination change?
NO
115
Regulatory fuel requirements:
Fly to first intended destination, to alternate (if required) and an additional 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
116
What is required minimum fuel reserve (lbs)?
45 minutes which is 1700lbs
117
Define Tankering
- Fuel load not allowing wet (1.92) numbers
- Fuel load greater than required (burn+reserve+alternate+required holding) plus 2000lbs
Whichever more restrictive
118
May not tanker into or out of:
- Mountainous Airports
- Wet or Contaminated Runways
- Short Field Runway
- Anytime DAAP is used
119
Fuel must be checked how often on domestic flights?
every 2 hours
120
Declare minimum fuel:
Declare emergency fuel:
=<1700lbs remaining at destination or, if required, most distant alternate
=<1200lbs remaining onboard
121
Approved weather data and notams
Honeywell GDC, ASOS/AWOS, FSS, Universal Weather, Air Routing, ARINC, Jeppesen, WSI, DUATS, National Weather Service,
122
When is a takeoff alternate required? How close to departure?
Visibility below lowest suitable CAT1 landing minimum
| Alternate must be within 1 hour flying time at normal cruise
123
What weather minimums at destination trigger the requirement for alternate?
- Forecast ETA +/- 1hr
- Ceilings (highest of +1500ft lowest circling MDA / straight in (if no circle authorized) or +2000AGL)
- Visibility (highest of +2sm lowest visibility mins or 3sm)
124
Alternate Airport with GPS ONLY approaches require:
- RAIM check during preflight
| - destination airport does not require GPS approach
125
To utilize an airport as an alternate:
- Airport is eligible
- 1.67 dry / 1.92 wet landing performance
- Approved weather reporting
- At ETA, weather at or above landing minimums
126
Once a flight is AIRBORNE, the flight may continue towards the destination even if weather goes below landing minimums as long as:
The weather at an alternate airport listed on the flight plan is at or above alternate derived minimums.
127
Alternate Derived Minimums - (one navigational facility)
- ETA
- One Navigational Facility
- Straight In Precision / Non-Precision (or circle)
- Ceiling DH/MDH +400
- Visibility CAT1 +1SM
128
Alternate Derived Minimums - (two navigational facilities)
What about extended over-water operations?
- ETA
- Two Navigational Facilities
- Straight In Precision or Non-Precision to different suitable runways
- Separate pieces of pavement (extended over-water)
- Ceiling highest DH/MDH +200
- Visibility highest CAT1 +1/2SM
(visibility and ceiling are separate items)
129
Crew Oxygen Use Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft
- Cabin Altitude above 10000MSL, Crew shall use O2 continuously
- Above FL250, if pilot leaves cockpit, other shall use O2
- Above FL350, one pilot shall use O2 continuously
130
Passenger Oxygen Requirements - Pressurized Aircraft
- At or above FL250, each occupant requires a ten minute supply
- Between 10,000 and 15,000 MSL, 02 for 10% of the occupants for a time period that exceeds 30 minutes
- Above 15000MSL continuous O2 for each occupant
131
Carriage of extra oxygen bottles requires what release?
Level 4
132
Each extra oxygen bottle holds 680L, each pax requires:
____ per minute at 15,000
____ per minute at 20,000
____ per minute at 25,000
1. 5 liters
2. 0 liters
2. 5 liters
133
Oxygen bottles must be secured and W&B must reflect extra equipment. How much does a large bottle and small bottle weigh?
13lbs
| 6lbs
134
If extra oxygen is to be carried what is considered a full set?
two large (2x13lbs) and one small (1x6lbs) for a total of 32lbs
135
Is passenger carriage of any compressed gas allowed?
prohibited
136
A passenger oxygen concentrator (POC) is allowed if
It is listed in the GOM or has the appropriate "FAA Approved" Label. Call CPO if POC is not listed in GOM or there is NO label.
137
A passenger using a POC may not occupy what seat(s)?
Exit Row Seat
138
Company primary departure takeoff field length performance calculator is
APG
139
Accelerate stop distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of any _____
Stop-Way
140
For takeoff, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____
Wet or Contaminated
141
For landing, the Thrust Reversers are only used in calculations when the field is _____
Contaminated
142
Calculated takeoff distance must not exceed the length of the runway plus any _____
Clearway
143
Length of any clearway used for takeoff distance calculations may not exceed _____
greater than one half the runway length
144
The company does not used any clearway except as associated with a _______
Stopway
145
Calculated takeoff run may not be greater than ____
length of the runway
146
Calculated takeoff distance ends at _____ on a dry runway and ______ on a wet runway
35 feet above the runway, 15 feet above the runway
147
A VMC Daylight Climb may be used if:
APG restricted and weather is VMC up to MEA
148
VMC Daylight Climb Restrictions
- TO Field Length
- Second Segment 1.6% gradient
- Must be able to clear obstacles vertically and/or horizontally
- Climb Limited Weight (Part 25)
- Aircraft must be able to outclimb rising terrain or TO path
149
VMC Daylight Climb obstacle clearance requirements
Net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles either by a height of at least 35 feet vertically, or by at least 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and by at least 300 feet horizontally after passing the boundaries
150
VMC Daylight Climb - If a more restrictive TERPS weather minimum applies it _____
must be complied with.
151
VFR Departure Requirements
- Company Flight Plan
- Maintain VFR until point of initial clearance
- Obtain clearance within 50NM
- Crew familiar with airport and surrounding obstacles
- @Night or poor visibility must have Runway Analysis or an ODP
- CTAF
- Facilities and services for VFR flight
152
VMC Daylight Climb requirements
- Daylight Only
- SAG/FOS checked with no limits
- Complies with terrain and obstacle clearance (135.379)
- Rising terrain and obstacles noted
- Escape path briefed
153
Enroute engine out climb rate at MEA
Maintain 50 FPM climb at MEA with critical engine inop
154
Aircraft with FMS computed altitude limits will not fly ____
above this limit and will use extreme caution when operating within 3000ft of the computed altitude limit.
155
Define Class I Navigation
Navigation conducted entirely within the designated Operational Service Volumes which includes MEA Gap, off airways, and ATC radar vector routing.
156
B-RNAV or RNAV5 (RNP5) requires
+/- 5NM for 95% of time
157
P-RNAV or RNAV1 (RNP1) requires
+/- 1NM for 95% of time
158
Define Class II Navigation
Navigation conducted outside and behond the designated Operational Service Volumes
159
RVSM airspace begins at ____ and ends at _____ inclusive
FL290, FL410
160
What is required prior to entering RVSM airspace?
- Crew Training
- Proper Operational Equipment
- Maintenance Program
161
RVSM Required Equipment List
- Two independent altitude measurement systems (ADC)
- Auto Pilot
- Alt Alerting System
- Alt Reporting Transponder
162
RVSM Tolerance
- Total Vertical Error +/- 300ft
- Altimetry System Error +/- 245ft
- Assigned Alt Deviation +/- 300ft
163
During before start for a flight into RVSM the primary altimeters must be within ____ of ______
75ft of airport field elevation
164
Prior to entering RVSM the two primary altimeters must be within
200ft of each other
165
For all RVSM flights the two primary altitmeters must be checked every
hour, for overwater flights a log must be kept
166
If RVSM equipment fails the crew must advise ATC
"negative RVSM due to equipment"
167
When will the runway length required be 115% of required?
When weather forecasts or reports indicate the runways may be wet or slippery at ETA or the visibility will be less than 3/4SM (4000RVR)
168
What is the difference between most suitable runway and favorable runway?
Favorable is the Longest Runway, in still air.
| Suitable is Best Choice at Time of Landing, with respect to winds, approaches and length.
169
In the case of an emergency, crews may use actual unfactored ____
landing distance calculations
170
If the runway is not completely dry, it should be considered
wet
171
A runway is considered dry when
- No precipitation reported or forecast (ETA -4/+1)
| - Fog or mist may prevent moisture evaporating
172
To help determining if runway is dry, flight crew may utilize
ground personnel
173
Runway is considered contaminated when:
- Heavy precipitation (ETA -1/+1)
- Freezing rain (any intensity)
- Snow, Snow Grains/Pellets, Ice Pellets or Hail of any intensity other than 'light' with surface temp below -2C
174
Regarding runway coverage, a runway is considered contaminated when:
- >25% of the runway is covered by standing water, snow, or slush more than 1/8" or 3mm , or any ice accumulation
- <25% of runway is covered, if contaminate is prior to midpoint of runway
175
Patchy contamination indicates
<25% of surface covered, absence of described surface indicates entire landing area
176
Mandatory ATC Reports
- Vacating assigned altitude
- Leveling assigned altitude (ICAO)
- Missed Approach
- Variations in average TAS of 5% or 10 knots from filed FPL
- Entering holding
- Approaching clearance limit
- Leaving assigned holding fix
- Unable to climb/descend at least 500fpm
- Any loss of navigation or communication capability
- Deviation from ATC clearance
- Safety of flight issues
- Unforecasted weather
177
What additional ATC reports are required when not in radar contact?
- Leaving final approach fix inbound
| - Corrected estimate when estimate is in error by greater than 3 minutes
178
Failed communications under IFR, fly what route:
- Last assigned route
- Vectored, by a direct route to the fix being vectored to
- Expected route
- Filed route
179
Failed communications under IFR, fly altitude:
highest of:
- minimum altitude as appropriate phase of flight
- expected altitude
- assigned altitude
180
Failed communications leaving a clearance limit:
- Leave the holding fix at EFC time
- Descent for approach begin from enroute altitude upon reaching the fix from which the approach begins but not before
- EFC time
- at ETA of FPL
181
Pilot qualifications for DAAP
- Captain (2000 total / 100 PIC in type)
- Co-Pilot (1000 total / 100 PIC in type)
If Co-Pilot does not meet requirements, and Captain is not Check Airman, PIC shall make all DAAP landings
182
DAAP landings will be made with what flap setting?
Full
183
DAAP limitations
- Level 4
- Full Flaps Only
- No Single Engine / Emergency Procedures
- Dry Only
184
DAAP runway length factors
- actual x 1.25 (dry)
| - actual x 1.44 (visibility <3/4sm / 4000RVR)
185
LAHSO - Captain may
decline a LAHSO clearance at anytime
186
LAHSO restrictions
- Dry Runway
- 135 landing distance
- VMC
- No Tailwind
- Other aircraft operated by air carrier
- PF briefed with contingency plans
- Not accepted below 2000ft AGL
- Visual / electronic glidepath available
- No windshear w/n 20 minutes
- Runway LAHSO markings and lights (night)
- Touchdown first 1/3 or 3000ft whichever is less
187
A LAHSO clearance may not be accepted below
2000ft AGL
188
What LAHSO group is the X in?
Group 9
189
Group 9 LAHSO Sea Level to 999MSL
8000 (increases 100' every 1000ft)
190
If a crew member is more than _____ late the other crew member will call _____
5 minutes, scheduling
191
Once a rest period is started the company may not _____ and can only _________
Shorten the rest period, lengthen the period once.
192
To lengthen a rest period Scheduling will _________
Notify the crew member at least one hour prior to the start of the next duty period.
193
Red Zone Operations are operations that occur during what time period?
0201LR and 0559LR
194
Early Start RZO occurs when duty on is between:
0400LR and 0559LR
195
End of day RZO is duty on before, during and/or operations through what time period?
0201LR and 0359LR
196
What operations are restricted (except for CPO approval) during end of day RZO?
DAAP and Contaminated Runway operations
197
Max regulatory flight crew hours per:
- Calendar Quarter
- Two consecutive Quarters
- Calendar year
- 500
- 800
- 1400
198
Define Pre-Block Out Delay
Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of prior to closing the cabin door prior to taxi.
199
Define Post-Block Out Delay
Any delaying event that the crew becomes aware of after closing the cabin door prior to taxi.
200
In the case of a post block out delay, if the operation was legal when the _____
block began, the flight is legal to continue.
201
During any 24 consecutive hours the total flight (block) time of the assigned flight may not exceed______
10 hours flight (block) time.
202
Flight (block) times may exceed flight time limits if:
- Normally Terminate would be legal
- Duty period does not exceed 14 hours
- Next rest period complies with Compensated Rest
- Captain approves
203
Compensated Rest Rules:
30 minutes - 11hrs rest
30-60minutes - 12hrs rest
>60minutes - 16hrs rest
204
10 hours of rest is required in the past
24 hours prior to the planned completion time of duty
205
Flight Crews must have in their physical possession when on duty:
- Pilot Certificate
- 1st Class Medical
- Company Badge
- Passport
- Driver's License
- Aircraft Key
- Drug&Alcohol Test Packet
- Restricted Radio Op Permit
206
If an airman certificate is lost, what should be done?
Contact FAA Airman Certification Branch to request temporary authority to exercise privileges.
207
Replacement Airman Certificate length of validity and restrictions:
- 60 days
- Printed and copy emailed to training
- May be restricted to domestic ops
208
Change of address:
Notify training and FAA within 30 days
209
FAA letter of investigation
notify CPO within 3 days
210
Considered high minimums Captain when
under 100 hours PIC in type
211
High minimums Captain restrictions
- No less than standard takeoff minimums
- Add 100ft to DA/MDA on IAPs
- Add 1/2 mile to required minimum visibility
- Published RVR1800-2000 = RVR4500
- Published RVR2400-3000 = RVR4500
- Published RVR4000-5000 = RVR6000
212
Co-Pilot Limitations (less 100hrs PIC)
- No less than standard takeoff minimums
- No less than 1sm or 5000RVR for landings
- No standing water, snow, slush or similar conditions
- Braking action good
- 15kts max crosswind
- Windshear reported
- Level 3 Special Airports
- Any condition determined by Captain
213
To prevent food poisoning, crews will
not eat or share the same meal.
214
Blood donation restrictions
Pilots will not be assigned duty within 72 hours of donating blood or experiencing loss of blood.
215
Scuba Diving restrictions
Pilots will not be assigned duty within 24 hours of scuba diving.
216
Passengers under 2 years (seatbelt rule)
may be held by a properly seatbelted adult passenger
217
What must an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector, NTSB or DOT air carrier evaluator provide to gain access to the cockpit? What must the Captain do?
- Properly completed FAA Form 8430-13
| - Captain will inspect FAA form 110A or S&A form 110B
218
```
(CE750)
Minimum Altitudes for Autopilot Use
Other than instrument approaches....
Other:
Cruise:
Instrument Approaches:
- ILS
- Non-Precision
```
- Other - 500ft AGL
- Cruise - 1000ft AGL
- ILS - 170ft AGL (CAT I)
- MDA - 400ft AGL (CAT I)
219
During aircraft fueling what should not be activated or deactivated?
Batteries or Starters
220
With an active thunderstorm within ____ the aircraft will not be refueled.
10 mile radius
221
Passengers _____ or older must show a current government issued personal photo ID prior to boarding.
18 years or older
222
Unaccompanied minors
| - Travel inside the US
- approved without any form of ID
223
The _______ is the Ground Security Coordinator (GSC) until ________, at which time ________ then becomes the In-Flight Security Coordinator (ISC).
Captain, the aircraft door is closed, the Captain
224
________ is responsible for verifying each adult passenger's _________ against the manifest.
The captain, valid ID
225
Valid Identification (ID)
Option 1 -
Option 2 -
Option 3 -
- Current government-issued photo ID
- Current government-issued ID without photo and a second current photo ID non-government
- A current Company (XOJET only) photo ID
226
If a passenger does not meet ID requirements contact _____
CPO/AOSC
227
If an additional pax shows up...
- What sort of delay?
- What must be done?
- Pre-Block Out
- Update W&B in FOS
- Call Customer Service (#1) and provide full name and DOB
- PAX will be added to trip manifest and new briefs issued after No Fly List is checked
- Must receive updated brief, unless verbal given by AOSC
228
If a passenger is a no show...
| - What sort of delay?
- Pre-Block Out
- Update W&B in FOS
- Call Customer Service (#1) verify not travelling
229
Crew must confirm what items prior to safety briefing:
- Destination Airport and FBO
- Arrival Transportation
- Brief ETE
- Brief local arrival time
- (optional) enroute weather and destination weather
230
Safety briefing shall include:
- Comply with all placards
- No smoking flight
- Safety belt instructions
- Seat backs upright
- Aircraft exits, location and operation
- Survival equipment location
- Flotation Location
- Normal and emer O2 use
- Fire Extinguisher location and instruction
- Taxi, Takeoff, Landing large devices powered off and stowed
- Briefing card location
231
How many pax briefing cards are required?
Each passenger seat location is to be provided with a passenger-briefing card
232
Child safety seat requirements:
- passenger provided
- Placed in a forward facing seat
- Child is proper weight
- Seat must be labeled to meet all "federal motor vehicle safety standards" and (in red lettering) "THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES and AIRCRAFT"
233
Whose responsibility is it to ensure a child safety seat is appropriate and installed correctly?
The parent/guardian
234
On overwater flights, how many infant life vests must be onboard?
one for each child under 35lbs
235
Animals used by handicapped passengers may be carried if:
- short, quick disconnect chain
- not allowed in exit row or cockpit
- flight conducted below 10,000ft cabin altitude
236
Large animals are not allowed:
in the exit row or to lie in any aisle and must occupy a seat and be restrained
237
Higher risk dogs will not be carried unless
- specific approval is given by brief/email
| - carried in kennel at all times
238
What animals will be kenneled at all times?
Certain large breed dogs, Cats, other non-service animals
239
PEDs that must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing
- personal computers
- DVD player
- Cameras and portable camcorders
240
PEDs not allowed for use during flight
- Televisions
- Radios
- Remote control toys
- Pagers
- Wireless Modems
- Anything with Bluetooth
- Cellular functions enabled
241
For CREW, when must PED and EFBs be in airplane mode?
prior to takeoff, below 10k AGL and landing
242
Once aware of a possible violation, how long does crew have to file an ASAP?
24hrs or 72hrs with extension from ASAP manager
243
What is required for a LEO to carry a weapon onboard?
- Documents provided to customer service and CPO
- CPO issues approval
- Identify self with official badge AND official photo ID
- Captain will be notified by Customer Service or CPO
- Briefing shall include LEO employing agency, "Armed LEO/ Escort Approved by CPO"
- Captain remind LEO of prohibition of using alcohol
244
Carriage of firearm rules:
- Unloaded and kept in locked container (baggage compartment is considered locked container in X)
- Firearm must be transported in baggage compartment in Citation X as it is inaccessible to passengers
- Proper customs forms if international
245
Transport of Ammunition rules
- Personal use small arms ammunition if securely packaged in proper containers in checked baggage
246
What service equipment must be stowed for taxi, takeoff and landing?
Tables, Food, Beverage and Setups
247
May passengers bring their own alcohol?
Alcohol must be served by operator
248
An intoxicated passenger:
- May not be served alcohol
| - Will be denyed boarding
249
Blood alcohol limit for flight crew:
0.04
250
FAR alcohol use time period -
| Company recommendation -
- 8hrs
| - 24hrs
251
Manuals may be in digital format, what manual must be in original factory format?
Aircraft AFM
252
If FOS is down, ________
Complete Load Manifest (pre-flight) and Master Document (Post-Flight) will be photographed and send to SOC
253
If FOS and email are down, ________
Complete Load Manifest and leave copy at FBO with instructions to hold for 24 hours. Master Document will be returned to SOC by mail or fax and held for 30 days
254
Crews will never reset ______
any fuel system circuit breaker that has tripped
255
Other than fuel system CBs, crews may reset CBs how many times?
once, contact maintenance control, follow manufacturer guidance
256
How long shall W&B records be maintained for flights?
30 days for cargo and pax flights
257
How often must company aircraft be weighed?
36 months
258
No flight will depart in IMC conditions or at night unless
the weather radar is functioning
259
If 1 EFB is inoperative:
- Help Desk must have open ticket
| - Crew has second set of current terminal charts for each airport of intended landing and alternates
260
If 2 EFB are inoperative:
- Help Desk must have open ticket
- One portable computer with PDF reader
- Crew receives all required documents
- Crew has one set of current printed terminal charts for each airport of intended landing and alternates. Enroute chart may be printed
261
Pilots shall update their terminal charts within:
7 days of issuance
262
What three dispatches specifically require CPO release?
- medium to poor braking action
- part 91 ops
- CSE red
263
Air Carrier Certificate #
AWKA298C
264
SOC Phone #
916-285-4888
265
Aborted Takeoff (GOM definition)
A/C is positioned onto runway with intent to T/O but instead vacates runway or stops on the runway for any reason other than controller cancelling T/O
266
When shall crewmember order a new passport?
Within 9 months of expiration date or when additional pages are needed.
267
Categories of Mandatory Reporting Events (Captain’s Report)
```
General
Equipment
Operational
Environmental
Personnel/Security
Hazmat
```
268
Captain’s Report Items - General
- Emergency Declared/PIC emergency authority exercised
- Emergency evacuation
- Any known or suspected damage to aircraft
- Diversion (except to planned alternate for wx or at direction of scheduling)
- Conflict or incident with ATC, FAA or other agency personnel (includes ramp check)
- Hazardous conditions or safety issues (may use ASAP)
- Deviations from normal procedures
- PED interference
269
Captain’s Report Items - Equipment
- In flight engine shutdown, flameout, or loss of thrust
- Engine or APU fire
- Any smoke, vapor, or noxious fumes in cockpit or cabin
- In flight failure of hydraulic system
- Use if emergency braking system or alternate gear extension
- Brake system or component failure
- Flight control system failure or malfunction
- In flight failure of electrical system resulting in use of an alternate source
- Pressurization, configuration, or system failures resulting in loss of cabin pressure
- Stall warning indication
- Loss of 50% of aircraft EFIS display
270
Captain’s Report Items - Operational
- Rejected/aborted takeoff
- Runway incursion by an aircraft
- Aircraft excursion from a prepared surface
- Intentional or unintentional deviation from ATC clearance (ASAP may be used)
- TCAS RA or near mid-air
- Drone sighting or near miss
- GPWS terrain warning or near collision with terrain
- Aircraft unusual attitude or upset
- RVSM height keeping errors, altimetry system errors or altitude deviation
- Hard landing or tail strikes
- Overweight landing
- Aircraft ground collision with aircraft, vehicle or object
- Company communication failure affecting safety of flight
- Landing with less than company required fuel reserves
- Declaring minimum fuel alert with ATC
- Landing or departing on taxiway or incorrect runway
271
Captain’s Report Items - Environmental
- Bird or wildlife strike
- Lightning strike
- Hail encounter or damage
- Severe turbulence encounter
- Wind shear that requires a go-around
- Laser strike
272
Captain’s Report Items - Personnel/Security
- Crew or passenger injury, accident or illness while on board, boarding, or exiting aircraft
- Any passenger denied boarding to an aircraft
- Unruly or confrontational passengers
- Any suspected illegal activity by passengers
- Any suspicion of tampering or unauthorized entry to an aircraft
273
Captain’s Report Items - Hazmat
- Discovery or release of any hazardous material onboard an aircraft
- Fluid spill of a corrosive nature from an aircraft or during aircraft servicing
- Any fuel spills
