Gouge Black Magic Flashcards
Don't suck at PIQ (133 cards)
1
Q
SMOKE/FUMES IN THE AIRCRAFT
A
OXYGEN - “ON, 100%” (ALL)
2
Q
LOSS OF PRESSURIZATION
A
OXYGEN - “ON, 100%” (ALL)
3
Q
ENGINE FIRE/EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN
A
THROTTLE - “IDLE” (PF)
FIRE HANDLE - “PULL” (PM)
AGENT - “DISCHARGE” (As Required) (PM)
4
Q
FOUR ENGINE FLAMEOUT
A
ENGINE IGNITION - “ORIDE” (PM)
RAT - “EXT” (PM)
ENG SHUTOFF Switches - “ALL OFF, THEN ALL ON” (PM)
5
Q
Normal oxygen Px range __________ psi.
A
285 - 430
6
Q
Flotation Equipment Deployment System (FEDS)
- ) How many FEDS hatch openings do we have?
- ) How many initiators?
- ) Where are the initiators located?
- ) How many electric arming switches? Where? Why?
A
- ) 4 hatch openings
- ) 7 initiators
- ) Below each FEDS hatch ( 4 ). FWD LM station ( 1 ). MX ditching hatch ( 1 ). Exterior left leading-edge wing root ( 1 ).
- ) 2 electric arming switches at the PILOT OVHD and FWD LM station. For safety at air shows.
7
Q
How many escape ropes and their location?
A
10 ropes total.
Pilot's windows: 2 MX ditching hatch: 1 Forward escape hatch: 1 Overhead escape hatches: 4 Troop doors: 2
8
Q
How many fire extinguishers and their location?
A
9 extinguishers total
Cockpit: 2
Crew-rest: 1
Cargo compartment: 6
9
Q
How many crash axes and their location?
How many chop-out areas and their location?
A
2 total axes
Crew-rest bulkhead: 1
Cargo compartment mid right side: 1
Chop-out areas: 4; 2 per side of the cargo comp.
10
Q
How many O2 walk around bottles and their location?
A
10 bottles total
Cockpit: 2 Crew-rest: 1 Lavatory: 1 FWD LM: 1 Cargo Compartment: 5
NOTE 7/10 have masks associated with them. All the non-crew position bottles.
11
Q
How many first aid kits and their location?
A
6 total kits (normally) with space for 20 more
Crew-res: 2
Cargo Compartment: 4
12
Q
How many smoke detectors and their location?
A
22 total detectors
Avionics cooling: 2 Crew rest: 1 Lavatory: 1 IRUs: 4 Cargo Compartment: 14
13
Q
Emergency Escape Breathing Devices (EEBDs) and their location?
A
6 total EEBDs
Crew rest: 2
FWD LM: 1
Crew entrance: 1
Cargo compartment: 2
14
Q
How many emergency exits and their location?
A
16 total emergency exits
Cockpit clearview windows: 2 MX ditching hatch: 1 FWD escape hatch: 1 Crew entrance door: 1 Troop doors: 2 Cargo Ramp: 1
Chop-out areas: 4
FEDS: 4
15
Q
Where is the crew oxygen converter and associated equipment located?
A
The converter and equipment are located in the unpressurized compartment along the right side nose gear well. The pressure stays around 300 psi and a heat exchanger warms the cold air to a comfortable “breathable” temperature… cockpit can borrow passenger air [manual x-feed valve on the co-pilot side] but not the other way around.
16
Q
What is the volume / pressure of the crew liquid oxygen system and when will you see “CREW OXY LOW’ on the WAP?
A
Volume: 25 Liters / 285-430 psi at the receptacles
WAP: When pressure falls below 60+/- 5 psi or quantity falls below 5 Liters.
17
Q
Where is the passenger oxygen converter and associated equipment located?
A
The passenger converter and equipment is located in the left nose compartment, outboard of the nose landing gear. Px range is 285-430 psi
18
Q
What is the volume / pressure of the passenger liquid oxygen system and when will you see “OXY QTY LOW’ on the WAP?
A
Volume: 75 Liters / 285-430 psi
WAP: “OXY QTY LOW” shows up when pressure falls below 60+/- 5 psi or quantity falls below 7.5 Liters.
19
Q
Where is the auxiliary oxygen converter located and what is the associated volume / pressure?
A
Located in the same spot as the crew oxygen converter along the right side of the nose gear well, and the volume / pressure is 75 Liters / 285-430 psi respectively.
20
Q
4 things the PF sees regarding windshear?
H
U
E
E
A
- ) Hesitant or excessive airspeed buildup on T/O or chnages of +/-10 KCAS on approach
- ) Uncommanded FPV changes of +/-2° or 500fpm VVI
- ) Excessive sink rates
- ) Excessive nose high/low attitudes
21
Q
7 things the PNF sees regarding windshear?
H
U
E
S
S
W
P
A
- ) Hesitant or excessive airspeed buildup on T/O or chnages of +/-10 KCAS on approach
- ) Uncommanded FPV changes of +/-2° or 500fpm VVI
- ) Excessive sink rates
- ) Sudden groundspeed changes of 15 knots or more
- ) Sudden change in wind direction or velocity
- ) Weather radar areas of red or heavy precip
- ) Predictive Wind Shear (PWS) red/black arcs
22
Q
Define an “INCREASING performance windshear” condition.
A
An increasing HEADwind or decreasing TAILwind, which improves your performance because its increasing lift and airflow over the leading edge of your wings. The word “WINDSHEAR” will be at the bottom of the HUD.
23
Q
Define a “DECREASING performance windshear” condition.
A
An increasing TAILwind or decreasing HEADwind which completely fucks your performance due to the loss of airflow over the wing leading edge etc. You will get a FLASHING “WINDSHEAR” in the center of the HUD and an CAWS alert “WINDSHEAR”.
24
Q
Windshear recovery PRIOR to GO speed?
A
Reject that betch, ain’t nobody trying to eat windshear if they don’t have to.
25
Windshear recovery AFTER to GO speed?
- MAX thrust
- Consider delaying rotation to pick up speed but in no case rotate later than 1,000 remaining.
- At liftoff, pitch for a 1°-2° positive FPV, but don't exceed 15° nose high. HOWEVER, if below 200 AGL and still sinking, raise to the stick shaker and ride that bitch until clear of the shear.
- May have to use the cage function if the FPV goes off scale
- PM will assist the PF in determining the jet's flight path using the MFD PFD if necessary.
- Disregard F/D guidance
- Raise the gear only after a long period of positive climb and ground contact isn't a concern. No less than 1,000 AGL
- Maintain 1/2 flaps until clear of shear at at/above Vmfr
26
If the windshear occurs on approach, what procedures are different than shear on T/O?
Really, the only additional steps are to hit TOGA, disengage AP / ATS. Still disregard F/D guidance and perform all previous steps as if you had just rotated.
27
What is the purpose of the windshear procedure?
To accelerate the aircraft through the windshear while minimizing altitude loss.
28
Recommended supply pressure for APU, Crossbleed and External air starts? (ACE check)
After the start button is pressed, you need ________ PSI minimum, otherwise you stop the start.
APU: 20 psi
Crossbleed: 25 psi
External Air: 30 psi
15 psi minimum after starter engagement
29
What switches are you looking at / pushing for the "J" technique prior to starting each engine?
Generator on/selected
Bleed air source selected with proper PSI
Hydraulic aux pump selected
FWD / AFT fuel boost pumps selected
30
When selecting an ignition source, when do we choose source "A" vs "B"? How about source "A and B"?
Which electrical bus powers source A? Source B?
Even days: B
Odd days: A
Icing present / anti-ice / turbulence: A and B
31
N2 indication within _______ seconds of starter engagement / button press.
Minimum oil Px and N2% before fuel can be introduced?
20 seconds
>5 psi for oil Px and 18% N2 rotation before fuel, but waiting till 20% N2 will give a faster and cooler start.
32
How many seconds do you have to get a rise in EGT once the fuel is introduced?
Normal range for fuel flow after fuel has been introduced into the start sequence?
20 seconds
400-500 pph [approaching or greater than 700 pph right off the bat = stop start]
33
At what percent N2 should you begin seeing N1 rotation?
At what percent N2 should the starter automatically disengage and button pop out / light goes out?
No later than 40% on normal days or by 30% on cold days <0° C.
"Should" disengage by 51% N2 but you manually disengage it by 55% if it doesn't. *could take up to 30 sec for the light to turn off once the starter buttone pops out*
34
When does a Hung Start occur during engine start? Ie: big picture what even is a Hung Start?
A hung start occurs when an engine is not able to reach idle. No perceptible N2 movement towards idle [55-65%] or N2 begins rolling back while EGT continues to rise above normal start values. Big picture, the high speed and low speed compressor sections are supposed to be moving air through the engine which should keep temperatures within normal ranges, but without that normal airflow, a hot start could occur quickly. Important to note that throttle movement will not fix a hung start, and the sequence should be stopped. Perform the engine clearing procedure.
35
Sub-idle Hung Start. How is it different than a regular hung start?
It typically occurs after starter disengagement when OAT is at or above 20°C, instead of in the first moment of the start sequence... N2 acceleration is suuuper slow and can be mistaken for an "idle" condition. BUT, it will be somewhere between 56-60% N2. The best way to determine if the engine is in a sub-idle hung start scenario is to compare it to other engines at THEIR idle state, and/or evaluate the N2 achieved against where it SHOULD be based on OAT and environmental conditions. If the engine rotation does not respond to throttle inputs, its a sub-idle hang.
* in the 781's a low-margin EGT engine is most susceptible to this malfunction*
36
What is the EEC with regards to engine start?
Electronic Engine Control, and it is activated automatically at approximately 10% N2 during the start sequence.
37
If an engine start on the ground results in that engine operating in N2 mode as identified by an "N2 MODE X" WAP message, check the position of what?
Check the position of the PROBE heat switchlights, as having one or more of them on could cause ALL the engines to start in the N2 mode... Turn off the switchlight, continue with the start, let it idle for 1 minute, then shut down the engine and restart.
38
Describe the minimum N2 idle value percentages table....
-40° C 54%
-20° C 56%
0° C 58%
15° C 60%
30° C 62%
45° C 64%
basically the % values increase by 2% for every significant change in OAT. Table can be found in Section II of the Dash-1
39
You've pushed the starter button in, but it doesn't stay in... what do you do?
First action should be to verify/change the ignition source. If after doing that it still won't remain engaged, you CAN just hold it in for the start sequence.
40
A/C pack disagree during engine start... what do you do?
A momentary PACK DISAG or ENV cue may illuminate momentarily, which is not a big deal... BUT if you get a continuous PACK DISAG, it means the pack has not shut down... If you can catch it before 18% N2, manually shut if off, but if you're past 18%, stop the start and deselect that pack prior to another start attempt.
41
Starter button pops out at 51% N2 normal-normal but the light stays on! How long can it stay on? What do you do?
It can stay on for up to 30 seconds after the button pops out, but after that you need to announce "stop start" and isolate [considering context, I believe the term isolate means to turn off] all air sources to that engine, followed by the engine clearing procedure.
42
What is the number of starter attempts per hour? Cooling periods?
You're allowed 2 consecutive starts with no cooling period. Then 15 minutes between the 2nd and 3rd attempt. Followed by 10 minutes between the 4th and 5th attempts.
Maximum number of 5 attempts per hour with a 1 hour cooling period once you've exhausted all 5 attempts.
43
Engine Clearing Procedure (button still in)
- Announce stop start
- ENG SHUTOFF Switch -- OFF
- Motor for 30 seconds then pull it out manually
*If a simultaneous start is in progress, continue to motor the bad engine until the other start is complete. And make sure EGT is <190°C before attempting another start.
44
Engine Clearing Procedure (button popped out)
- Announce stop start
- ENG SHUTOFF Switch -- OFF
- In an emergency like a tail-pipe fire or fuel leak, you can manually reengage the starter below 20% N2 for 30 seconds.
45
Visual indication that the engine rotation has come to a full stop after stopping that start?
N2 RPM indication will disappear from the MFD
46
In a NON-emergency, wait until __________ before reengaging the starter?
Wait until 40 seconds after the engine rotation has come to a COMPLETE stop before reengaging the starter.
47
MAX EGT for engine start?
495° C
48
Engine may be motored for a maximum of _______ minutes?
15 minutes
49
What is the engine starter limitation?
------------------------ standing by for clarification
50
Engine Minimums:
- Min oil temperature for T/O
- Mon oil pressure
- Min oil quantity
- AC pack DISAG off by _______N2
- Donor engine N2 for crossbleed
- Normal fuel flow after engine started / stable
- 50° C
- 70 psi
- 4 quarts
- off by 20% N2
- 70-75% N2 for donor engine
- 800-1200 pph after engine is started / stable
51
Engine Minimums:
- Min oil temperature for T/O
- Mon oil pressure
- Min oil quantity
- AC pack DISAG off by _______N2
- Donor engine N2 for crossbleed
- Normal fuel flow after engine started / stable
- 50° C
- 70 psi
- 4 quarts
- off by 20% N2
- 70-75% N2 for donor engine
- 800-1200 pph after engine is started / stable
52
APU starter limitation.
Maximum of 3 start attempts per rolling hour, with a minimum of 5 minutes cooling in between starts.
53
What does APU override not actually "override"?
Fire and overspeed protection
54
Why do we have an APU?
To provide electrical power, air conditioning and air pressure for engine start.
55
Which CB do you always have to check prior to APU start and why?
OVHD E13: which is the FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB.
we have to check that it is NOT popped, because the APU fire agent DISCH switch will be inoperative if it is popped. Do NOT reset if its popped, call Mx.
56
What needs to be retracted prior to / immediately after APU start?
Slats, to prevent damage to slat seals
57
After turning off APU bleed air, how long do you wait before turning off the APU itself?
A minimum of 2 minutes
58
Describe the fuel system operation...
```
Inboard tank w/o ER?
Inboard tank w/ ER?
Outboard tank quantity?
Total with ER?
Total without ER?
```
Inboard, outboard, even off B-52, F-84, T-38
```
Inboard w/o: 52,000
Inboard w/: 84,000
Outboard: 38,000
Total w/ ER: 180,000
Total w/o ER: 245,000
```
59
Describe the fuel management system
Basically the system keeps the outboard tanks full at 38,000 pounds until the inboard tanks reach that same quantity, at which point both tanks will burn down evenly. It moves fuel from #2 --> #1 and #3 --> #4 to maintain balance.
60
Describe fuel scheduling
The internal process within the tanks to move fuel either from the aft inboard tank to the forward inboard tank or from the left outboard to the right outboard.
61
At what fuel quantity will you get the LOW light on the total fuel indicator and LOW FUEL on the WAP
16,000 lbs
62
FUEL QTY X appears on the WAP if an individual tank reaches what quantity?
4,000 lbs
63
INboard tank transfer pumps become uncovered (not usable for transfer purposes) at ________ lbs.
OUTboard tank transfer pumps become uncovered (not usable for transfer purposes) at ________ lbs.
28,000 lbs
12,000 lbs
64
Fuel dump should automatically stop at ________ lbs.
20,000 lbs
65
Dumping at altitudes of ________ feet could cause engine flameout.
20,000 feet
66
How does fuel feed from the ER tanks to inboard tanks?
Forward ER to Forward inboard
Aft ER to Forward inboard
Aft inboard to Forward inboard
67
All things hydraulics:
- Which pumps are engine driven vs. electric?
- What are the fluid quantities for each engine?
- Normal operating psi?
- When will the secondary pump take over? kick off?
- Output of the Aux pump?
- What should the transfer pump show at engine start?
- Primary and secondary are engine driven, Aux is AC
- 7, 11, 7, 7
- 4,000 psi
- When primary < 3,400 psi. When primary gets to 3,850
- 3,850 psi for the AC powered electric
- Transfer pump should show at least 3,400 psi
68
Why do we leave an engines Aux pump running even if that engine is turned off?
To continue to pressurize the respective hydraulic system
69
Primary items on each hydraulic system?
- Landing Gear:
- Cargo door and ramp:
- Brakes:
- Flaps/trim:
- Slats:
- Landing Gear: 3
- Cargo door and ramp: 2
- Brakes: 2
- Flaps/trim: 1 and 4
- Slats: 2 and 3
70
What is the purpose of the hydraulic transfer pump?
The primary purpose is to assist in landing gear retraction if the No. 3 engine fails or assist in cargo door/ramp closing if the No. 2 engine fails.
71
Can the hydraulics be refilled?
Yes
72
What is the alternate source of hydraulic power if all engines out?
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) which powers system No. 4 flight controls... However when the RAT is the primary source for hydraulic pressure, do not slow below 130 KCAS and maintain current flap/slat configuration.
73
Normal operation mode of the electrical system?
Split-parallel
74
What other modes of operation are there?
Parallel: all integrated drive generators (IDGs) are connected with the AC and DC cross ties TIED.
Isolated: You can open up the bus ties on each half and each IDG will be "isolated".
75
What are the 6 emergency buses?
AC/DC emergency
AC/DC transfer
Battery direct
Battery
76
What will power the emergency AC bus?
Gen bus 2 (normally) and gen bus 3 (back-up), if neither of those can, then the aircraft batteries can through the static inverter.
77
How long are the aircraft batteries good for?
30 minutes
78
Solely on battery power, what items will you still have?
I have no fucking clue, but I would look in section 3 under the Loss of All Generators section and evaluate the table.
79
What is the purpose of the XFER Bus?
The transfer buses allow the maintaining of minimum essential loads, while shedding loads of other buses which are not essential for safety of flight during Electrical Smoke and Fire procedures. Basically the transfer bus helps "trim the electrical fat" during the above emergency scenario and power the essential stuff that you need.
80
What is the priority of the Gen Buses if only one engine generator is working?
For any given generator operating, it will power its own Gen bus as well as Gen Bus #2 (because normally #2 powers the emergency buses). After that, the priority is 2,3,1,4.
81
If you lose a single Transformer Rectifier, would you know it?
No. I don't know why, but the answer is apparently "no".
82
Is the normal configuration of the DC system "split-parallel" like its sister AC system?
Yes, normally the DC x Tie is in the OPEN position and the L and R DC x Ties are CLOSED.
83
So there you are [in the shit] checking the WAP during the ISI, and the aircraft is only powered by emergency power, which buses should you verify that you do NOT see on the WAP and why?
You DO NOT want to see 4/6
AC/DC Emergency Buss off
AC XFER Bus
Battery Direct Bus
The other two, Battery Bus and DC XER Bus have their own OFF lights above their respective switches on the electrical ovhd panel.
84
When do you get Avionics Overheat?
When the temperature in the avionics rack exceeds 90° F for 5 minutes.
85
What happens when you press the AVIONICS COOL ORIDE on the environmental control panel?
P
E
A
L
(P) both packs are commanded to the high-flow position
(E) the Environmental System Controller is bypassed
(A) augmentation and avionics outflow valves fully opened
(L) left pack is controlled to 40°F +/- 5°
86
What happens when you get an avionics overheat?
If it happens on the ground, and you're using external power or the APU for electrical power, everything NOT powered by the battery or emergency buses are de-energized to prevent excessively high avionics temperatures. Horns sound in the cargo compartment and right wheel well.
87
Describe the avionics overheat checklist.... BIG picture...
Trying to get as much cool air to the avionics compartment as possible... AC packs on, AVIONICS COOL ORIDE, COMPT AIRFLOW switch etc.
88
What does "open loop" mean? regarding the environmental system....
Both A/C packs are off, and weight on wheels is on, cooling air is drawn through the nose wheel by the avionics cooling fan.
89
What does "closed loop" mean? regarding the environmental system....
If either A/C pack is on, cooling system operated as described in section 1 of the Dash-1. We should use the closed loop when OAT > 90° F or more.
90
What are the differences between the modes of cabin pressurization on the jet?
AUTO: all things outflow are controlled automatically in climb, cruise and descent for the altitude auto schedule. Rate of depressurization is computed to 20 sec after touchdown...
SEMI: adjusts outflow valve to set cabin Px to the LDG ALT - FT on the pressurization panel. Outflow valve is driven fully open on landing.
MANUAL: crew directs controls of the outflow valve.
91
Where are the 3 POSITIVE relief pressure valves and how do they work?
There are 3 of them, and they are located on the aft right side of the fuselage... They open if the Delta-P exceeds 8.2. They can also be opened by the emergency depressurization switch.
92
Where are the 3 NEGATIVE relief pressure valves and how do they work?
There are 3 of them total, 2 on the aft left fuselage and 1 on the aft right fuselage. They prevent the cabin differential from being lower on the inside than the outside. Operation is automatic with no indication to the crew.
93
How would you set and maintain a "sea level" pressure in flight if you needed to? For example the flight surgeon is on board and working on someone in the back.... he needs sea-level... how can we do that and how high can we go at "simulated sea-level"?
You would set SEMI on the pressurization panel, then set the cruise altitude in the window.... The highest we can go is 19,800 feet.
94
What does the HI-FLOW switch do?
Commands both A/C flow valves to operate on the high flow schedule.
95
How much extra fuel will you burn per hour with HI-FLOW switch selected?
100 lbs / hour extra
96
What does the CMPT AIRFLOW switch do?
When pressed, a number of non essential flow valves close and the L pack is commanded to low flow schedule for avionics cooling. The purpose is to re-direct clean air flow to the avionics rack for if outside air is contaminated or for direct cooling, like closing a few vents in your vehicle to make one vent get more air etc...
97
When the actual fuck do we use the CMPT AIRFLOW switch?
When we encounter or anticipate environmental air contaminated by chemicals, bio agents or radiation.. Also it is selected when an air conditioning ground unit is used.
98
What does the REMOTE TEMP CONTROL switch do?
Transfers temperature control of the cargo compartment FROM the FWD LM station to the flight deck. Sucks to suck LM.
99
Do you still have avionics overheat protection with ground A/C and AVIONICS COOL ORIDE on?
Yes, with an external power cart or APU furnishing electrical power.
100
What does the Trim Air switch do?
Controls the trim air pressure regulators.... When you press it OFF, packs will supply air as directed by the ESC to keep the warmest area controlled.
101
So there you are, in the shit, on the ground, attempting to use an air conditioner ground unit.... what button needs to be pressed to make the magic happen?
AVIONICS COOL ORIDE
102
What does a MANIFOLD FAIL light on the environmental panel tell us?
Essentially tells us that there has been an overheat along the associated manifold system, allowing hot bleed air to escape the ducting.... It remains illuminated for a minimum of 15 seconds and extinguishes when the sensing elements have dropped below "trigger temperature"
103
What 2 conditions allow the Ram Air to operate?
The aircraft must be fully depressurized with both AC packs shut down.
104
What area do the Air Conditioning packs supply air to?
Normally, the L Pack supplies air to the flight compartment, crew rest and avionics cooling... The R Pack supplies the cargo compartment.
105
How is the cargo compartment floor heated?
Heat strips installed under the floor surface. System is activated when the jet is electrically powered, all Aux hydraulic pumps are OFF and the cargo compartment floor temperature is less than 65° F.
106
When do you need a departure alternate?
If ceiling or visibility are below landing minimums for the lowest compatible approach minimums. DO NOT use CAT II minimums when evaluating the need for a departure alternate.
107
When a departure alternate is required, what must the jet be capable of doing, all the way to the alternate?
Must be capable of maintaining the MEA or MOCA, whichever is higher to the alternate using OEI performance criteria.
108
For an alternate within 30 minutes flying time, what must the weather remain at until at least 1 hour AFTER takeoff??
The existing weather must be equal to or better than the published approach minimums and forecast to remain so through 1 hour AFTER takeoff, but in no case lower than 200-1/2 (RVR 2400)
109
For an alternate within 2 hours flying time, what must the weather remain at until at least 1 hour AFTER ETA at the alternate?
At least 500-1 above the lowest compatible published approach minimums, but not less than 600-2 for a precision approach or 800-2 for a non-precision approach... Needs to stay like that for at least 1 hour AFTER projected ETA at the alternate.
110
What are the authorized means of departing IFR with all engines operating?
```
VCOA
ODP
Majcom Certification
ATC vectors
Diverse departures
SIDs
```
111
What is the only climbout profile that validates TOLD?
The Alternate Dep Profile- because it uses actual MC calculations to to validate whether or not the flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.
112
Who can authorize the 48ft/NM subtraction from projected climb performance OEI?
Specific MAJCOM/A3
113
What are the weather minimums for a C-17 to circle?
Weather must be at or above published circling minimums.... For approaches without a published ceiling, find the published HAA, round it UP to the nearest 100' and add an ADDITIONAL 100'. That's your ceiling minimum. When mins are published but not by category, they will be AS PUBLISHED but no lower than 600-2.
114
How long do WE time for a 45/180 on a procedure turn?
Begin reversal as required to remain within published distance(s) and time for 1:15 as soon as you crack your wings for that first outbound turn.
115
Holding air-speeds based on altitude?
Max Air Force holding speed?
Max NAVY holding speed?
0 - 6,000' = 200 KIAS
6,000' - 14,000 = 230 KIAS
14,000' + = 265
```
USAF = 310
USN = 230
```
116
CAT II airfield requirements?
runway center line lighting and dual RVR readouts
117
CAT II minimum equipment?
- 2 Precision Landing System Receivers (PLSRs) tuned to the ILS frequency and inbound course
- PFD and NAV display in compass / MAP mode at each station
- An operative Radar Altimeter on the pilot side HUD
- no "NO CAT II" messages
118
X-wind limits
Max crosswind landing = 30 kts
Max crosswind T n Go = 25 kts
119
Tolerances at 100' above DH
+/- 5 kts from approach speed
+/- 1/2 dot deflection LOC and G/S
120
Established "on course"
VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS
NDB
Localizer
VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS: within half full-scale deflection
NDB: within +/- 5° of the required bearing
Localizer: within full-scale deflection (the 2nd dot)
121
Can you file to a destination where the reported ceiling and visibility is less than published-required for a precision approach?
Yes, but you require two separate alternates. For approaches with no published ceiling requirement, you will round up the HAA or HAT to the nearest 100'. Also need two alternates if x-winds will be out of limits corrected for RCR.
122
Minimum RVR Operational?
Minimum RVR Training?
Minimum RVR CAT II?
Minimum ceiling / vis w/o full flight instruments?
1,000
1,600
1,200
300-3/4 / 40
123
ALL things PAR/ASR
How often on downwind for PAR or ASR?
How often on final PAR or ASR?
When do you slow to approach speed / final flaps?
How to calculate VVI during descent?
What to put in the altitude window for DH?
PAR / ASR = every 1 minute while being vectored to final
PAR on final = every 5 seconds
ASR on final = every 15 seconds
slow down and select final flaps approaching G/S intcpt
VVI calculation = Groundspeed x 10 / 2
Set 100' below DH altitude so you won't level off
124
Landing Distance
Landing Ground Roll
Landing Air Distance + Assumptions
Landing Distance: the total amount of runway distance consumed from the 50' HAT point until the point where the jet can be brought to a complete stop. The sum of Ground Roll + Air Distance
Landing Ground Roll: The distance covered from touchdown until the jet can be brought to a complete stop.
Landing Air Distance: The distance covered from the 50' point until touchdown.
3/4 = 1,280' Full = 770'
125
What if spoilers don't retract on a T n Go?
PM resets spoilers switch and PF goes to MAX or rejects if there is runway available.
126
What if spoilers don't extend on landing?
PM calls out DLC and resets spoilers switch. DLC will provide 25% spoiler effectiveness.
127
What is our Tire Limit Speed
182.5 (adjusted for PA, temp and wind on a chart in the Dash-1)
128
To preclude damage to the landing gear, how many consecutive landings can we accomplish? What is the cooling period?
- Max of 4 consecutive landings without a cooling period
- Gear retracted cooling (20 minutes)
- Gear extended cooling (10 minutes)
*you can reset the count once any 2 landings are separated by one of these cooling periods*
129
Stabilized approach criteria?
Airspeed = +10/-5 kts from target
Bank angle = +/- 15 degrees from target
Rate of Descent = +/-300 fpm from target
130
Per the Dash-1 on visual approaches, what must be done prior to 300' AGL otherwise go-around?
- Decrab, unless still IMC
- Stabilized on approach speed considering deviation tolerances with the thing ON the thing IN the thing
- PACAH set
131
PM altitude calls for precision vs. non-precision approaches?
Precision: 1,000 (deviation) 500 (stable) or G/A
Non-Precision: 500 (deviation) 300 (stable) or G/A
132
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D
O
V
S
P
F
E
S
T
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Disintegration or sparking
Overspeed
Vibration (severe)
Seizure (N1, N2 etc)
Pylon/engine fuel leak
Fire
EGT overtemp
Severe compressor stall
Thrust reverser core stuck out
```
133
The " 5 " that we WILL pull the handle for
```
Sparking
Seizure
Leaking
Fire
Disintegration
```
