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Year 4 Finals > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

1
Q

Measuring eGFR can under estimate renal function in which patient population?

A

Afro-Caribbean’s

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2
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing hypertension?

A

ABPM

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of carbocisteine?

A

Reduces sputum viscosity
Note - must be avoided in patients with past or active peptic ulceration

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4
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for a COPD flare?

A

Amoxicillin

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5
Q

What percentage of parotid swellings are benign?

A

80%

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6
Q

What is the first line antibiotic in parotid gland stones?

A

Amoxicillin

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7
Q

What is the management for cervical spondylosis?

A

Pain relief, physio, exercise

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8
Q

Steroid injections increase the risk of what bony side effect?

A

Osteomyelitis or bone thinning
Note we should not give more than 2 steroid injections to a patient due to this risk, consider PRP injection

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9
Q

Tennis elbow involves which part of the elbow?

A

Lateral epicondyle
Note - golfers elbow involves the medial epicondyle

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10
Q

How long should a patient not be taking:
1. Antibiotics
2. PPIs
3. H2 receptor antagonists
Before being checked for H.pylori infection?

A
  1. Antibiotics - 6 weeks
  2. PPIs - 2 weeks
  3. H2 receptor antagonists - 24 hours
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11
Q

Which angina medication can also help with oesophageal spasms?

A

GTN spray

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12
Q

Which finding on ECG is indicative of a previous MI?

A

Q waves
Note that a single Q wave can be normal, and to be considered pathological must be present in an entire territory (anterior/inferior)

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13
Q

Which blood test should be utilised for monitoring ramipril?

A

U&E 1-2 weeks after starting medication, and 1-2 weeks after changing dose

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14
Q

Which 2 blood tests should be used to monitor statins?

A

LFTs & lipid profile

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15
Q

Ramipril can lead to which 2 side effects? Which class of medication would we switch patients experiencing these onto?

A

Cough & sinusitis; change onto ARB’s e.g. candesartan

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16
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for whooping cough?

A

Clarithromycin
(Macrolides - azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin)

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17
Q

What will we hear on auscultation of the chest in a patient with whooping cough?

A

Nothing

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18
Q

Which antibiotic should be given for a UTI in eGFR under 45ml/min/1.73m^2?

A

Trimethoprim

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19
Q

Which method of emergency contraception is C/I in women with asthma?

A

Ullipristal acetate

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20
Q

Methotrexate has a severe haematological drug interaction with which common UTI antibiotic?

A

Trimethoprim

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21
Q

Which drug should be used for migraine prophylaxis where propranolol is contraindicated?

A

Topiramate

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22
Q

A lump in which quadrant of the breast is most likely to be cancerous?

A

Upper lateral

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23
Q

A new breast lump over the age of what should be referred onwards?

A

30

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24
Q

If MSSU shows pus cells but no bacteria growth which further test should be carried out?

A

STI test

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25
What class of drugs can be used in urge incontinence?
Anticholinergics - oxybutynin, solifenacin, mirabegron
26
In patients with urge incontinence what 2 substances are important to cut out?
Caffeine, tobacco
27
Which combination of antibiotics should be used for dental infections?
Amoxicillin + metronidazole (7 days)
28
A viral or bacterial cough can last up to how many weeks?
3 weeks - advise patients to come back if cough has not subsided after 3 weeks, referral for CXR
29
Mycophenolate can be used for what?
Immunosuppression, typically for renal/heart/liver transplant, or vasculitis
30
How long can a rib fracture take to heal?
6-8 weeks
31
Which common painkiller should be avoided in patients taking long term prednisolone?
Ibuprofen - increases risk of GI bleeding
32
Oxygen desaturating on speaking or walking can be a sign of what?
Infection
33
Osteoarthritis in which joint is most common in older women?
Base of thumb
34
Back pain in which section of the spine is a red flag?
Thoracic
35
PMR is initially managed with what medication?
3-4 weeks 15mg prednisolone daily
36
Long term oral corticosteroids are associated with what?
Osteoporosis
37
PMR patients should be queried about symptoms of what?
GCA
38
Name 3 symptoms of GCA
Temporal artery tenderness, headache, jaw claudication
39
Osteomalacia is most commonly due to deficiency in what?
Vitamin D
40
Osteomalacia leads to high or low levels of: Calcium, phosphate, vitamin D, PTH, ALP
C - low P - low Vit D - low PTH - high ALP - high
41
Isolated elevated white cell count can be a sign of what malignancy?
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
42
Blue sclera is a sign of which metabolic bone disease?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
43
Irregular bleeding on Nexplanon can be managed with what?
A 3 month course of the COCP
44
How long postpartum should we wait before giving the COCP in: - Non breastfeeding women - Breastfeeding women
Non - 3 weeks Breastfeeding - 6 weeks
45
Active pelvic inflammatory disease is a contraindication to which methods of contraception?
IUD, IUS
46
How long does the progesterone only pill take to become effective?
48 hours
47
Which method of contraception is associated with a delayed return to fertility?
Depo-provera injection
48
What advice should we give to patients who miss 2 or more contraceptive pills in: - week 1 of strip - week 3 of strip
Week 1 - take a pill asap, take next at scheduled time, give emergency contraception, use condoms/abstinence for 7 days Week 3 - take a pill asap, take next at scheduled time, omit pill free week
49
Ullipristal acetate is contraindicated in what?
Asthma
50
Levonorgestrel dose for emergency contraception should be doubled in patients with a: - BMI over? - Weight in kg over?
BMI over 26kg/m^2 Weight over 70kg
51
Which method of contraception is the only one proven to have a link with weight gain?
Depo provera
52
Menopausal patients must be amenorrhoeic for how long before not requiring contraception?
2 years
53
Which 2 antibiotics most commonly cause cholestasis?
Co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin
54
What medication can be given for pruritus in PBC and PSC?
Cholestyramine (No C/I)
55
Anti mitochondrial antibodies are likely to be positive in what gallbladder condition?
Primary biliary cholangitis
56
What is the definitive treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Liver transplant
57
Charcot’s triad encompasses what symptoms?
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice
58
Murphy’s sign can be seen in disorders of what organ?
Gallbladder
59
What is the gold standard investigation in ascending cholangitis and acute cholecystitis?
USS
60
Gallstone pain may be worse after eating a meal rich in what?
Fat
61
Asymptomatic gallstones require what treatment?
Reassurance and observation
62
Asymptomatic gallstones require what treatment?
Reassurance and observation
63
Which UTI antibiotic is unsafe in the third trimester of pregnancy and why?
Nitrofurantoin Can cause haemolytic anaemia of the newborn
64
Which 2 types of laxative should be used in conjunction for opioid induced constipation?
Stimulant + osmotic E.g. senna + macrogol
65
Which bacteria is most likely implicated in cases of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
E.coli
66
What is the most common lifestyle cause of macrocytosis?
Alcohol
67
What scoring system is used for scoring sleep apnoea?
Epworth sleepiness scale
68
Asymptomatic isolated raised bilirubin can be a sign of what?
Gilbert’s disease
69
What type of alimentary ulceration is most commonly associated with H.pylori?
Duodenal (90%) - gastric ulcers 70-80%
70
Which urge incontinence drug should be used in those with a history of dementia?
Mirabegron
71
Which urge incontinence drug should be used in those with a history of dementia?
Mirabegron

Year 4 Finals (15 decks)

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