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Year 4 Finals > Obs & Gynae > Flashcards

Obs & Gynae Flashcards

(85 cards)

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1
Q

What is the first line medication in pregnancy induced HTN?

A

Oral labetolol

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2
Q

Which medications may be used in a patient with pregnancy induced HTN who also has asthma?

A

Oral nifedipine/methyldopa/hydralazine

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3
Q

Those at risk of gestational diabetes should have what test conducted at what gestation?

A

OGTT at 24-28 weeks

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4
Q

What is the drug of choice for reversing magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression?

A

Calcium gluconate

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5
Q

In an ongoing eclamptic seizure, what medication should be given, how much and over how long?

A

IV bolus magnesium sulphate over 10-15 minutes

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6
Q

What is the main risk factor for developing hyperemesis gravidarium?

A

Increased beta-hCG levels

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7
Q

Which type of pregnancy may increase the risk of developing hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Molar or multiple

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8
Q

What immediate medication should be administered in cases of eclampsia?

A

Magnesium sulphate

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9
Q

When is the first dose of prophylactic anti-D given in rhesus negative pregnant women?

A

28 weeks

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10
Q

What is the standard dose of folic acid for pregnancy? How long should this be taken for?

A

400mcg daily, taken ideally before conception up until 12 weeks gestation

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11
Q

What is the dose of folic acid utilised in high risk pregnancies?

A

5mg per day, ideally from before conception up until 12 weeks gestation

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12
Q

What mode of labour should be offered to women with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and why?

A

Induction at 37-38 weeks, increased risk of stillbirth

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13
Q

Which LFT can be normally raised in pregnancy?

A

ALP

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14
Q

Which antibiotic should be given during labour for group B streptococcus?

A

Benzylpenicillin

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15
Q

At what gestation should external cephalic version be offered if baby is in breech presentation to
1. Primiparous women
2. Multiparous women

A
  1. 36 weeks
  2. 37 weeks
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16
Q

What is the most common risk factor for development of placenta accreta?

A

Previous C section

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17
Q

How long after a decision has been made to perform a:
1. Category 1 C section
2. Category 2 C section
Should they be carried out?

A
  1. 30 minutes
  2. 75 minutes
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18
Q

McRoberts manoeuvre is often used to treat what?

A

Shoulder dystocia

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19
Q

The Zavanelli manoeuvre involves what?

A

Replacement of head into canal and delivery via emergency C section, in cases of shoulder dystocia

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20
Q

Shoulder dystocia is associated with with maternal complication?

A

Gestational diabetes

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21
Q

A pregnant women significant risk factors for venous thromboembolism should have what treatment initiated, until when?

A

LMWH immediately until 6 weeks post natal

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22
Q

Give 2 examples of LMWH

A

Dalteparin, enoxaparin

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23
Q

PPH is defined as blood loss over what?

A

500ml

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24
Q

Which PPH medication should be avoided in cases complicated by hypertension?

A

Ergometrine

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25
Which PPH medication should be avoided in cases complicated by asthma?
Carboprost
26
What is first line treatment in PPH?
Oxytocin
27
Misoprostol is given for PPH via which route?
Sublingual
28
What is the most common cause of PPH?
Uterine atony
29
Terbutaline has what effect on the uterus?
Reduce contractions
30
Placental abruption is associated with use of which recreational drug?
Cocaine
31
Which form of intrauterine device may cause dysmenorrhoea?
Copper
32
What is the only effective treatment for fibroids causing problems in fertility?
Myomectomy
33
Goserelin (Zoladex) is an example of what type of drug?
GnRH analogues
34
What is first line for infertility in PCOS?
Clomiphene
35
At what stage of life is adenomyosis most common?
When approaching menopause
36
What is the first line medical treatment for PMS?
COCP +/- sertraline
37
Raised LH/FSH in cases of primary amenorrhoea is suggestive of what as underlying cause?
Gonadal dysgenesis
38
In secondary amenorrhoea, low levels of gonadotrophins are suggestive of what cause of the amenorrhoea?
Hypothalamic
39
Primary amenorrhoea with features of cyclical pelvic pain and bloating is suggestive of what as the diagnosis?
Imperforate hymen
40
Which ratio may be elevated in PCOS patients?
LH:FSH
41
How do GnRH analogues reduce fibroid size?
By decreasing oestrogen exposure
42
What is considered first line contraceptive treatment for menorrhagia?
Mirena coil
43
What is first line contraceptive treatment for endometriosis patients?
COCP
44
Fill in the blank: Bishop score of under __ indicates labour unlikely to start without induction
6
45
Stage 1 of labour is divided into latent and active phase, determined by dilatation of how many cm? 1. Latent 2. Active
1. 0-3cm 2. 3-10cm
46
Stage 3 of labour describes what?
From delivery of foetus to complete delivery of placenta and membranes
47
Bleeding is classed as antepartum haemorrhage from how many weeks gestation?
24
48
Surgical intervention for ectopic pregnancy is required in sizes over what?
35mm
49
What age range is offered cervical screening in the UK?
25-64
50
Beta hCG levels of over what indicate the need for surgical management of an ectopic?
5000IU/L
51
Medical management of ectopic pregnancy is achieved via what?
Methotrexate
52
What is the upper limit for termination of pregnancy gestation?
24 weeks
53
We should give anti-D in patients having an abortion over how many weeks?
10
54
Which agents are used for medical management of termination of pregnancy?
Mifepristone followed by misoprostol 48 hours later
55
What is the first line treatment for BV?
Metronidazole
56
Clue cells on microscopy suggest what?
BV
57
Bacterial vaginosis presents with what kind of pH?
Raised
58
What treatment should be given to pregnant women who develop: 1. BV 2. Thrush
1. Oral metronidazole 2. Topical clotrimazole
59
What is the definitive treatment for ovarian torsion?
Laparoscopy
60
What is the most common causative organism in BV?
Gardnerella
61
What is the first line treatment in PID?
IM ceftriaxone + 14 days oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole
62
Right upper quadrant pain in a patient with a history of PID suggests what complication has occurred?
Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome
63
Fill in the blank: All women over the age of __ with post menopausal bleeding should be urgently referred for ultrasound to investigate for __
55 Endometrial cancer
64
Cervical ectropion is most common in women taking what medication?
COCP
65
Which rheumatological disorder can lead to recurrent miscarriages?
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)
66
Which medication can help prevent formation of new ovarian cysts?
COCP
67
Premature ovarian insufficiency occurs in women under what age?
40
68
Which hormones are raised in premature ovarian failure?
FSH and LH
69
Fill in the blank: To diagnose premature ovarian failure, FSH levels must be above __ on 2 blood samples taken __ apart
30IU/L 4-6 weeks
70
Which medication can be used for vasomotor symptoms in menopause?
Clonidine
71
The combined oral contraceptive pill has a protective effect against which 2 reproductive cancers?
Endometrial and ovarian
72
Normal endometrial thickness is defined as under how many mm?
4
73
Which 2 types of HPV are the biggest risk for developing cervical cancer?
16, 18
74
Which 2 HPV subtypes are not associated with cancer? What are they associated with instead?
6 and 11, genital warts
75
CA 19-9 is associated with what?
Pancreatic cancer
76
What is the most common identifiable cause of postcoital bleeding?
Cervical ectropion
77
PID most commonly increases the risk of what pregnancy complication?
Ectopic
78
Anastrozole is an example of what type of medication?
Aromatase inhibitor
79
Aromatase inhibitors decrease levels of what hormone?
Oestrogen
80
Aromatase inhibitors are associated with what side effect?
Osteoporosis
81
What is first line for prevention of pre eclampsia?
Low dose aspirin
82
A patient with PET and a past medical history of asthma should receive what treatment?
Nifedipine
83
What is the most common liver disease of pregnancy?
Intrahepatic cholestasis
84
Elevated ALT levels plus jaundice in pregnancy is suggestive of what?
Acute fatty liver
85
How is acute fatty liver of pregnancy managed?
Supportive management

Year 4 Finals (15 decks)

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