Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

3a > GP > Flashcards

GP Flashcards

(91 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the main causes of acne vulgaris?

A

Increased sebum production
Bacterial colonisation (propionibacterium/cutibarium acnes)
Inflammatory mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 4 risk factors for acne vulgaris

A

Hormonal shifts-puberty/pcos
Meds-steroids, antiepileptics
High glycaemic index foods
Chemical exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is acne most common? + what is seen in girls?

A

Face, chest, upper back, gets worse cyclically in girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What kind of spots characterise acne?

A

Pustules, papules, comedones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 2 lifestyle changes for acne

A

Less sugary foods
Avoid cosmetics that clog pores - comedogenic e.g. cocoa butter, coconut oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name a differential of acne vulgaris

A

Acne rosacea (affects older women, general redness, occasional telangiectasias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 2 topical therapies for acne

A

Salicylic acid (keratolytic-unblocks pores)
Topical retinoids (inhibit sebum) - teratogenic
Benzoyl peroxide (antibac gel/wash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 2 system therapies for acne

A

Oral contraceptive pill
Spironolactone-women only, contraindicated in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can you give for moderate acne?

A

Abx e.g. doxycycline + erythromycin - used for anti-inflammatory properties, not anti-bac effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can you give for moderate-severe acne?

A

Isotretinoin-systemic retinoid-particularly indicated if acne is persistent, Tx-resistant/cystic/scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is acute bronchitis?

A

Short-term bronchial inflammation aka chest cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of acute bronchitis?

A

Cough +/- mucus
SOB
Fever
Sore throat
Runny nose
Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 causes of acute bronchitis

A

Viral
Bacterial
Dust/allergens/fumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tx for acute bronchitis?

A

Rest, fluids, OTC paracetamol/ibuprofen
Honey
Abx only if bacterial cause
Normally self-resolves within 3wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an acute stress reaction (ASR)?

A

Symptoms experienced after a stressful event e.g. accident, sudden bereavement, assault/violence
Usually resolves within 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 5 common symptoms of an acute stress reaction

A

Physcological e.g. anxiety, poor sleep, irritability
Recurrent dreams/flashbacks
Self destructive reckless/aggressive behaviour
Feeling numb
Palpitations, nausea, chest pain, SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes the symptoms in an ASR

A

Release of adrenaline/epinephrine into bloodstream + overactivity of nervous impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tx for ASR?

A

None, just general support-normally self-resolves but if 1mth + then becomes acute stress disorder (ASD) + may need counselling/CBT/beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an allergy?

A

An inappropriate immune response to harmless substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

Severe systemic hypersensitivity reaction, rapid onset, potentially fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do allergies cause symptoms?

A

IgE-mediated reaction-mast cells degranulation releases histamine = vasodilation, smooth muscle contraction + mucus secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 4 symptoms of a severe allergic reaction

A

Stridor/throat closing
Wheeze
Skin changes e.g. urticaria
Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you manage an anaphylactic reaction?

A

ABCDE
IM adrenaline 0.5ml
IV fluids
Remove trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 3 differentials for anaphylaxis

A

Foreign body aspiration
PE
Panic attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What lab investigation is recommended in all patients with suspected anaphylaxis where Dx is uncertain-i.e. to confirm anaphylaxis?
Serum mast cell tryptase
26
The presence of what 3 things makes anaphylaxis likely?
Sudden onset symptoms of... Life-threatening breathing/circulation changes and... Skin/mucosal changes
27
Name 5 allergy reaction symptoms
Nose inflammation (rhinitis) Eye inflammation (conjunctivitis) Skin rash e.g. hives Tissue swelling Breathing difficulties
28
Name 4 types of allergy testing
Skin prick test Serum-specific IgE test Oral food challenge (in clinic under supervision) Patch testing (for skin allergies)
29
What are some treatments for allergies?
Antihistamine tablets/sprays Desensitisation (immunotherapy)
30
What is a normal MCV?
80-100 femtolitres
31
What is anaemia?
Low conc of haemoglobin in blood -<115 in women -<130 in men
32
What is MCV?
Mean cell volume-size of RBC
33
Name 6 generic anaemia symptoms
-Fatigue -SOB -Dizziness -Palpitations -Headaches
34
How much iron do you need in a normal diet?
15mg/day
35
What should you assume about the cause of iron deficiency until proven otherwise?
Assume blood loss e.g. p/r, heavy periods, GI
36
What conditions impair iron absorption?
-Coeliac disease -Gastrectomy
37
What are some specific signs of iron deficiency anaemia?
-Koilonychia-spoon-shaped nails -Angular cheilitis-red, swollen corners of mouth -Atrophic glossitis-smooth tongue -Brittle hair + nails
38
How is anaemia managed?
-Treat any source of blood loss -Replace iron-ferrous sulphate 20mg 1-3 daily
39
What blood tests could you do for anaemia?
-FBC -Reticulocyte -Blood film -Ferritin -B12 + folate -LFTs
40
What are the main causes of folate deficiency?
-Poor nutrition -Coeliac -Crohns -Pregnancy -Haemolysis
41
Name some sources of B12
-Meat -Fish -Eggs -Dairy
42
Describe the absorption of B12
Absorbed in terminal ileum by binding to intrinsic factor
43
What are some causes of B12 deficiency?
-Pernicious anaemia -Gastrectomy -Vegan diet -Oral contraceptives -Nitric oxide
44
Name 4 types of anaemia
-Iron deficiency -Pernicious -Haemolytic -Sickle cell
45
What is pernicious anaemia?
Autoimmune gastric atrophy + loss of intrinsic factor production
46
What is an anal fissure?
Longitudinal tear in epithelium below dentate line
47
What is the dentate line?
Separates upper + lower anal canal, also an embryological landmark + diff blood supplies
48
Who are anal fissures most common in?
Pregnant women Elderly
49
Name 3 causes of anal fissures
Mechanical trauma (hard stool) Ischaemia Sphincter hypertonia (decreases blood supply)
50
Name 4 risk factors for anal fissures
Pregnancy Opioid use Low fibre diet/constipation IBD
51
What is a sentinel pile?
Small, normally harmless growth hanging from skin around anus aka anal skin tag
52
How long do most anal fissures take to heal?
Most within 1-2wks, 6wks+ = chronic, can keep coming back
53
Name 3 symptoms of an anal fissure
Pain around anus-worse with defection PR bleed Possible sentinel piles
54
What is the aim of a rectal exam with an anal fissure?
Rule out canal irregularities + masses
55
Name 5 common causes of constipation
Insufficient dietary fibre Dehydration-not drinking enough/losing more fluid Meds e.g. codeine Hypothyroidism
56
How common are anal fissures in childbirth?
1 in 10
57
Name 4 investigations for anal fissures
FBC + CRP for signs of inflammation Faecal calprotectin to rule out IBD TFTs for causes of chronic diarrhoea/constipation Stool sample Normally only need physical exam though
58
What are the 3 aims of anal fissure Tx?
Relieve symptoms Control promoting factor Fissure healing
59
Name 4 conservative Mx options for anal fissures
Warm baths Topical lidocaine for severe pain Lactulose/stool softeners High fibre diet, lots of water
60
Name 3 steps of additional Tx's for unresolved anal fissures
GTN ointment-vasodilation of anal sphincter blood vessels=helps healing Then botox injections to internal anal sphincter If reoccurring/not healing then surgery-sphincterotomy = cut in anal muscle to reduce pressure-minor day op
61
How are antiarrhythmic drugs classified?
Vaughan Wiliams classification: I-Na channel blockers II-beta blockers III-action potential prolongers IV-Ca channel blockers
62
What effects does Digoxin have?
-Bradycardia -Slowing of AV conduction -Increased force of contraction
63
What is Digoxin used for?
-AF to reduce ventricular rate response -Severe heart failure
64
What does amiodarone do?
Prolongs QT interval
65
What is AF?
Cardiac arrhythmia characterised by disorganised electrical activity within the atria resulting in ineffective atrial contraction and irregular ventricular contraction
66
What are the 3 types of AF?
-Paroxysmal -Persistent -Permanent
67
What are the main causes of AF?
-Hypertension -Obesity -Alcohol -Heart failure -Structural pathology -Acute infection -Electrolyte imbalance -PE -DM
68
Describe the symptoms of AF
-Breathlessness -Palpitations -Chest discomfort -Light-headedness -Syncope
69
What are the 3 principles of AF management?
-Rate control -Restore sinus rhythm -Maintain sinus rhythm
70
What meds are used in the management of AF?
-Rate control: BB, CCB, Digoxin -Restore sinus rhythm: Electrical/pharmacological cardioversion -Maintain sinus rhythm: Flecainide, Dronedarone, Sotalol
71
What is an arrhythmia?
Abnormal rate and/or rhythm of the heartbeat due to conduction problems
72
What is asthma?
A chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by intermittent airway obstruction and hyperreactivity
73
What are the risk factors for asthma?
History of atopy (allergies) Viral URTI Occupational exposure
74
Asthma signs + symptoms?
Episodic Diurnal variability- worse at night and in the morning Dry cough, wheeze, SOB Bilateral widespread “polyphonic” wheeze FHx of atopy
75
What are the primary asthma investigations?
Fractional exhaled nitric oxide a value of >40 ppb is positive SpirometryFVC/FEV1 ratio <70% but will improve by 12% when using a bronchodilator
76
How would you confirm an asthma diagnosis if unsure?
PEFR diary showing variability >20% Airway hyperreactivity testing
77
What are SABAs?
Short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists mimic action of noradrenaline by causing smooth muscle relaxation
78
What are ICS's?
Inhaled corticosteroids e.g. beclomethasone, they decrease reactivity + inflammation of airways
79
What are LKTRA's?
Leukotriene receptor antagonists cause bronchoconstriction + mucous production e.g. montelukast
80
What is the presentation for an asthma attack?
Fast respiratory rate Symmetrical wheeze Tight sounding chest with reduced air entry
81
Describe the NICE guideline steps for asthma (2024 update)
SABA (formoterol) as required a/o 2024 should be combined with a regular low dose ICS Can then: Add LTRA Add LABA Consider MART Increase steroid dose
82
A/o 2024 what are the 1st line tests for asthma
FeNO (fractional exhaled nitric oxide) >55 Eosinophils raised
83
What spirometry tests can you do for asthma?
1.Bronchodilator reversibility 2.Peak expiratory flow x2 daily for 2wks 3.Bronchial challenge
84
What reversibility results indicate asthma?
>12% / >200ml
85
What additional test could you do on children with suspected asthma not Dx with PEF, FeNO or reversibility?
Skin prick testing to house dust mite or eosinophils
86
Name 4 components of a severe asthma attack
PEFR 33-50% Resp rate >25 Heart rate above 110 unable to complete sentences
87
Name 4 features of a life-threatening asthma attack
PEFR <33% Sats <92% No wheeze Haemodynamically unstable e.g. shock
88
Name 4 Tx's for asthma attacks
High dose SABA Oral steroids Nebulised ipratropium bromide IV magnesium sulphate/aminophylline
89
Name 3 complications of asthma
Pneumonia Status asthmaticus (extreme exacerbation) Steroid s.e.
90
Name 5 differentials for asthma
COPD Bronchiectasis GO reflux Heart failure Chronic sinusitis
91

3a (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions