GP - Cardio Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Describe chronic coronary syndrome

A

Stable angina - relieved by rest/GTN spray

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2
Q

Describe acute coronary syndrome

A

Unstable angina

Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction = elevated troponin, CK, myoglobin

ST-elevation myocardial infarction = elevated troponin, CK, myoglobin + ST elevations on ECG

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3
Q

What is the management for stable angina?

A
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Medication (aspirin + statin + BB/CCB)
  • Percutaneous coronary intervention
  • Surgery
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4
Q

What is the immediate management for acute coronary syndrome?

A
  • ECG
  • Aspirin 300mg
  • O2 if sats <94%
  • Morphine (pain)
  • Nitrate (pain/HTN)
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5
Q

What is the management for a STEMI?

A
  • Aspirin 300mg
  • P2Y12 receptor antagonist = ticagrelor/prasugrel
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • PCI within 2 hours of onset of sx
  • Fibrinolysis (if delay in PCI) - ECG 60-90 minutes after
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6
Q

What is the management for a NSTEMI?

A
  • Aspirin 300mg
  • Fondaparinux (if no immediate PCI planned)
  • Estimate 6 month mortality (GRACE)

Low risk = ticagrelor

Moderate/high risk = PCI, prasugrel/ticagrelor, unfractionated heparin, drug-eluting stents

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7
Q

What is the management for widespread coronary disease/recurrent MIs?

A

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

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8
Q

What is Dressler’s syndrome, what are the clinical features and what is the management?

A
  • 2-6 weeks post MI
  • Fever
  • Pleuritic pain
  • Pericardial effusion
  • Raised ESR
  • NSAIDs
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9
Q

What are the stages of HTN?

A

Stage 1 = 140/90
Stage 2 = 160/90
Stage 3 = 180/120 (malignant)

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10
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

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11
Q

What is the main cause of acute heart failure?

A

Dressler’s syndrome - swelling/inflammation of sac around heart post MI

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12
Q

What is the management for acute heart failure?

A

OMFG:
- Oxygen
- Morphine
- Furosemide
- GTN spray

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13
Q

What are the main causes of chronic heart failure (diastolic)?

A
  • Hypertrophic obstruction cardiomyopathy
  • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Constrictive pericarditis
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14
Q

What are the main causes of chronic heart failure (systolic)?

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Dilated cardiomyopathy
  • Myocarditis
  • Arrhythmias
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15
Q

What are the causes of left/right sided heart failure?

A

Left = hypertension/aortic stenosis/aortic regurgitation/etc.

Right = usually occurs after left-sided/pulmonary HTN/OSA

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16
Q

What are the features of left sided heart failure?

A
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Dyspnoea/orthopnoea/paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  • Bibasal fine crackles
  • Cyanosis
  • Reduced capillary refill
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17
Q

What are the features of right sided heart failure?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Raised JVP
  • Hepatomegaly
18
Q

What is the first investigation for heart failure?

A

NT-proBNP - released when cardiomyocytes are stretched

<400pg/ml = normal
400-2000pg/ml = moderate
>2000pg/ml = severe

19
Q

What are other investigations for heart failure?

A
  • Echo
  • CXR - ABCDEF
  • ECG
  • Bloods
20
Q

What features on a chest x-ray would indicate heart failure?

A

ABCDEF:
- Alveolar oedema (bat wings)
- Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema)
- Cardiomegaly
- Dilated upper lobe vessels of lung
- Effusion (pleural)
- Fluid in horizontal fissure

21
Q

What is the management for chronic heart failure?

A
  • FIRST LINE = ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker
  • Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)
    ^ ACEis and spironolactone can both cause hyperkalaemia
  • Hydralazine
  • Digoxin
  • Furosemide
22
Q

How can AF be classified?

A
  • First detected episode
  • Paroxysmal = terminate spontaneously
  • Persistent = not self-terminating
  • Permanent = continuous AF which cannot be cardioverted
23
Q

What are the aims of AF management?

A
  • Rate control = accept that the pulse will be irregular but slow the rate down to avoid negative effects on cardiac function
  • Rhythm control = get the patient back into, and maintain, normal sinus rhythm (cardioversion)
24
Q

What is the management for AF?

A

Rate control = BB or rate-limiting CCB e.g. diltiazem or digoxin

Rhythm control = electrical (DC) cardioversion or amiodarone (if structural heart disease) or flecainide

25
What scoring system is used in patients with AF?
CHA2DS2VASc - CHF - HTN - Age >75 or 65-74 - Diabetes - Stroke/TIA previously - Vascular disease - Sex female
26
What anticoagulants are given to patients with AF?
DOACs - apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, rivaroxavan Second line = warfarin (where DOACs contraindicated or not tolerated)
27
What are the clinical features of pericarditis?
- Pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forwards - Non-productive cough - Dyspnoea - Flu-like symptoms - JVP increases on inspiration (Kussmaul's sign)
28
What are the ECG changes in pericarditis?
- Saddle-shaped ST elevation - PR depression
29
What is the management for pericarditis?
NSAID + colchicine +/- PPI
30
What is the first line management for HTN?
<55 or diabetic = ACEi e.g. ramipril >55 or Afro-Caribbean = CCB e.g. amlodipine
31
How does the presentation of MI differ from aortic dissection?
MI = intensity builds Aortic dissection = maximal pain at onset. Migration of pain caudally and weak left-sided pulse due to subclavian artery involvement
32
What is required for a diagnosis of orthostatic/postural hypotension?
Systolic drop >20mmHg at 1 or 3 minutes after lying/sitting for 5 minutes
33
When are pacemakers indicated?
- Symptomatic bradycardia - Type 2 heart block - Third degree heart block - Atrioventricular node ablation for AF - Severe HF
34
Describe single-chamber pacemakers
- Lead in either RA or RV - RA = issue with SAN and conduction through AVN is normal = stimulate depolarisation in RA which passes to LA and ventricles - RV = conduction through AVN is abnormal = stimulate ventricles directly
35
Describe dual-chamber pacemakers
- Leads in RA and RV - Pacemakers coordinates contractions of atria and ventricles
36
Describe biventricular (triple-chamber) pacemakers
- Leads in RA, RV and LV - Usually in patients with severe HF - Coordinate contraction of chambers to optimise heart function = cardiac resynchronisation therapy (CRT)
37
Describe implantable cardioverter defibrillators
- Continually monitor heart and apply defibrillator shock if ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation is identified Used in: - Previous cardiac arrest - Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy - Long QT syndrome
38
How are pacemakers identified on ECGs?
Sharp vertical line - Before P wave = atria - Before QRS complex = ventricles
39
What is the management for bradycardia?
500mcg IV atropine
40
What is the management for supraventricular tachycardia?
- Vagal manoeuvres - IV adenosine 6mg/12mg/18mg (verapamil if asthmatic) - Electrical cardioversion Prophylaxis = beta blockers/radiofrequency ablation
41
Give 4 examples of calcium channel blockers
- Amlodipine - Lercanidipine - Diltiazem - Verapamil