GP On Call Flashcards

1
Q

Initial Rx of DKA

A
  • isotonic 0.9% saline 1-1.5l/hr for the first hour
  • then fluid status reassessed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Biguanides

  • example
  • MoA
A

Biguanides

  • Example: Metformin
  • MoA: Biguanides prevent the liver from converting fats and amino-acids into glucose. They also activate an enzyme (AMPK) which helps cells to respond more effectively to insulin and take in glucose from the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sulfonylureas

  • example
  • MoA
A

Sulfonylureas

Example: Gliclazide

MoA: Sulphonylureas are insulin secretagogues – they bind to ATP-sensitive potassium channels in the pancreas and lead to increased insulin secretion by beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Features of moderate asthma exacerbation

A

Moderate asthma exacerbation:

  • Increasing symptoms
  • PEFR >50-75% best or predicted
  • No features of acute severe asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Features of severe asthma exacerbation

A

Acute severe asthma - any one of:

  • PEFR 33-50% best or predicted
  • Respiratory rate ≥25 breaths/minute
  • Heart rate ≥110 beats/minute
  • Inability to complete sentences in one breath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Features of life-threatening asthma exacerbation

A

Life-threatening asthma - any one of the following:

  • altered conscious level
  • exhaustion
  • arrhythmia
  • hypotension
  • cyanosis
  • silent chest
  • poor respiratory effort
  • PEFR <33% best or predicted
  • SpO2 <92%
  • PaO2 <8 kPa, ‘normal’ PaCO2 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mechanism of action of furosemide in left ventricular failure

A

Furosemide → venous dilation and facilitating diuresis → reduced afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Indications for coronary angioplasty in acute STEMI

A

In acute STEMI offer coronary angiography with follow-on primary PCI if:

  • presentation is within 12 hours of onset of symptoms

AND

  • primary PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes

*If primary PCI cannot be delivered within the next 120 minutes, use immediate fibrinolysis instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What to do at GP surgery (A&E) a patient has suspected MI?

A
  • attach the patient to a cardiac monitor
  • ensure a defibrillator is available
  • administer high-flow oxygen
  • 300 mg chewable aspirin
  • gain IV access to permit administration of 5-10 mg diamorphine IV, 10 mg metoclopramide IV
  • The patient should be transferred as quickly as possible to a coronary care unit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Indications for secondary care admission in a patient known to have angina experiencing anginal pain

A

Immediate referral to secondary care in anginal pain if:

  • Pain >20 mins at rest → unstable angina (should be managed as per ACS)
  • new-onset angina with limitation of daily activities
  • recent destabilisation of previously stable angina (with moderate or severe limitation of daily activities)
  • post-MI angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Doses of adrenaline in anaphylaxis (for different ages)

A

IM doses of 1:1000 adrenaline:

  • Adult 500 micrograms IM (0.5 ml)
  • Child more than 12 years: 500 micrograms IM (0.5 ml)
  • Child 6 -12 years: 300 micrograms IM (0.3 ml)
  • Child less than 6 years: 150 micrograms IM (0.15 ml)

Administer a second dose after 5 minutes if no improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When to administer the second dose of adrenaline in the Rx of anaphylaxis

A

Administer a second dose after 5 minutes if no improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Initial treatment of status epilepticus

A
  • Rectal diazepam – 10mg diazepam via a rectal application tube containing 2.5ml of 4 mg/ml of diazepam
  • Buccal midazolam – 10mg midazolam via a 2ml pre-filled syringe of 5 mg/ml oromucosal solution of midazolam
  • IV lorazepam – 4mg of lorazepam in a 4 mg/ml vial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition of status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus

  • > 5mins of convulsive seizure

OR

  • seizures which occur one after another without recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A

Risk factors: PID, previous ectopic, previous gynaecology surgery, IUCDs, fertility treatment, smoking, increasing age and appendicitis (causing tubal damage)

*ectopic pregnancy can present atypically so consider this diagnosis in a female patient with abdominal/pelvic pain, amenorrhoea/known pregnancy (4-12/40) or vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Presentation of a patient with hypothermia

A
  • core body temperature <35°C
  • bradycardia
  • shivering
  • cold/pale/dry skin
  • lethargy
  • irrational behaviour
  • slow/shallow breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When thrombolysis is indicated if a patient presents with acute symptoms of CVA?

+ other management

A
  • thrombolysis is recommended up to 4.5 hours since the onset of symptoms
  • admit urgently
  • give TPA (alteplase) for reperfusion unless contraindications
  • repeat CT scan 24 hours post thrombolysis
  • stat dose 300mg aspirin ASAP, continued for 2 weeks, followed by dipyridamole/clopidogrel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What to do if we suspect temporal arteritis?

A

In suspected temporal arteritis:

  • take ESR blood test
  • treat immediately with prednisolone 60mg once daily
  • refer same day to Ophthalmology
  • if no visual symptoms, assess response to steroid at 48 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ECG changes in a patient with PE

A
  • SI, QIII TIII is the “classic” finding but is neither sensitive nor specific for PE
  • sinus tachycardia
  • RBBB
  • right ventricular strain pattern
  • right axis deviation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What section 2, 4 and 3 and allow to do? (psychiatry)

A
  • Section 2 → admission for assessment and treatment for 28 days
  • Section 4 → emergency detention for up to 72 hours and is usually converted to a Section 2 on admission to hospital
  • Section 3 → admission for treatment of a mental disorder for up to 6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Management of suspected bacterial meningitis in a child in GP surgery

A
  • Benzylpenicillin infant 300mg IV/IM as proximally as possible to part of limb that is still warm
  • Alternative is cefotaxime
  • Child 1-9 years 600mg
  • Child 10 or older 1200 mg
  • Transfer to hospital via 999 ambulance
  • Could consider giving fluids but not if this delays transport
  • Current guidelines suggest not to give antibiotics in the absence of a non-blanching rash but to wait until transfer hospital so CSF sample can be taken
  • After child has left you have a legal duty to notify Consultant in Communicable disease control (CCDC)
  • CCDC ensures close contacts get prophylaxis ciprofloxacin/alternatively rifampicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Antibiotics and doses (different ages) for a child with suspected bacterial meningitis in GP surgery

A
  • Benzylpenicillin infant 300mg IV/IM as proximally as possible to part of limb that is still warm
  • Alternative is cefotaxime
  • Child 1-9 years 600mg
  • Child 10 or older 1200 mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Obs ranges for a child up to 12 y old

(HR, BP, RR)

A
25
Q
A
26
Q

What to do at GP practice if there is a patient with suspected ACS (cardiac chest pain)?

A
  • Admit to hospital by 999 blue light ambulance
  • Aspirin 300mg stat
  • GTN if available
  • Morphine if available
  • Oxygen if available
  • ECG not obligatory but can be done if it won’t slow transfer
  • Stay with patient until ambulance arrives
27
Q

Traffic light system for the colour of skin, lips, tongue

A
28
Q

Traffic light system for activity levels

A
29
Q

Traffic light system for respiratory signs

A
30
Q

Traffic light system for circulation and hydration

A
31
Q

Traffic light system for ‘other’ signs

A
32
Q

Clinical features indicating severe exacerbation of asthma

A
  • Inability to complete sentences in one breath
  • RR_>_ 25/min
  • Pulse _>_110/min
  • PFR= 33-50% best or predicted
33
Q

Management of severe acute exacerbation of asthma in GP surgery

A
  • Call for help – emergency drugs and equipment
  • O2 (maintain SpO2=94-98%)
  • Admit to secondary care
  • Salbutamol 5mg Neb
  • Prednisolone 40-50mg
  • Ipratropium 0.5mg + Salbutamol 5mg Neb
34
Q

Clinical signs of life-threatening asthma

A
  • PEF <33% best or predicted
  • SpO2 <92%
  • PaO2 <8 kPa
  • normal PaCO2 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
  • silent chest
  • cyanosis
  • poor respiratory effort
  • arrhythmia
  • exhaustion
  • altered conscious level
  • hypotension
35
Q

A 56 year old man comes into your surgery complaining of palpitations, breathlessness and a discomfort in his chest.

  • O/E Pulse irregularly, irregular 130 beats per min
  • RR of 24/min and he has bibasal crepitations

What is your differential diagnosis?

A
  • Fast AF
  • acute LVF
  • need to exclude angina/ ACS
  • PE
36
Q

A 56 year old man comes into your surgery complaining of palpitations, breathlessness and a discomfort in his chest.

  • O/E Pulse irregularly, irregular 130 beats per min
  • RR of 24/min and he has bibasal crepitations

What other signs may he have on examination?

A
  • Hypertension or hypotension if heart failure
  • Low SpO2 if PE
  • If severe heart failure plural signs pleural effusions
  • Pleural rub
  • Signs related to cause AF e.g. hyperthyroidism- tremor eye signs, mitral valve disease - murmur
37
Q

A 56 year old man comes into your surgery complaining of palpitations, breathlessness and a discomfort in his chest.

  • O/E Pulse irregularly, irregular 130 beats per min
  • RR of 24/min and he has bibasal crepitations

What would you do (management)?

A
  • IV access
  • ECG if available
  • Call 999
  • GTN spray
  • Aspirin if suspect MI
  • IV furosemide 40mg
  • IV diamorphine + metoclopramide
38
Q

Mrs Smith rings the surgery urgently asking for visit as Tom, her 28 year old son has been acting strangely for the past few months. He is convinced people are talking about him and is refusing to leave the house or wash. Also he reports the voices are telling him he is useless and should kill himself. He is becoming increasing distressed and has now locked himself in the bathroom

What are your differential diagnoses?

A
  • Paranoid schizophrenia
  • Psychotic depression
  • Bipolar disease
  • Drug induced psychosis
39
Q

Mrs Smith rings the surgery urgently asking for visit as Tom, her 28 year old son has been acting strangely for the past few months. He is convinced people are talking about him and is refusing to leave the house or wash. Also he reports the voices are telling him he is useless and should kill himself. He is becoming increasing distressed and has now locked himself in the bathroom

What will you do next?

A
  • Needs urgent psychiatric assessment for consideration of section 2 of MHA
  • Contact on-call psychiatrist and psychiatric social worker
  • Coordinated response MDT – to meet at patient’s house
  • May need to contact Police if patient aggressive /danger to himself or others
  • Unlikely to agree to voluntary admission and even if does may change mind whilst awaiting / transport / on his way or on arrival at hospital
40
Q

Who is required to perform section 2?

A
  • Two separate doctors
  • One of these must have had specialist (psychiatric) training
41
Q

Name 2 drugs and their routes of administration that could be used to stop the seizure

A
  • Diazepam 10-20mg → PR
  • Midazolam 10mg → buccal
42
Q

Possible causes of seizures

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Meningitis
  • Encephalitis
  • Cerebral abscess
  • stroke
  • SAH
  • Alcohol withdrawal
  • hypoglycaemia
  • hyponatraemia
  • hypocalcaemia
  • amphetamines
  • cocaine
43
Q

What bloods need to be monitored while a patient is on sodium valproate?

A
  • LFTs and FBC after 6 months

(No further routine monitoring required if 6mth bloods okay)

44
Q

Define febrile convulsion

A
  • seizure occurring in children aged 6 months - 5 years
  • associated with fever (Axillary T>37.8C), without other underlying cause such as CNS infection or electrolyte imbalance
  • There are uncommon atypical occurrences outside this age range which nonetheless otherwise fit the definition of a febrile convulsion
45
Q

Differential diagnosis for a febrile seizure in a child

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Meningitis
  • Encephalitis
  • hypoglycaemia
  • Rigors
  • Syncope
  • Breath-holding spells
  • Reflex anoxic seizures -a precipitant (eg, a minor bump) causes vagally mediated cardiac asystole lasting many seconds - the child may be pale, floppy, and lose consciousness, followed by tonic and clonic movements
46
Q

Management of a febrile convulsion at GP surgery

A

If the child is still convulsing or not fully alert:

  • Recovery position, check and maintain ABC
  • Check blood glucose
  • If still seizing >5 minutes, give rectal diazepam (this may be repeated after five minutes if the seizure has not stopped) OR a single dose of buccal midazolam (off-licence use).
  • Benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime if meningococcal disease is suspected: Suspect meningitis in any child who is systemically unwell, irritable, or was drowsy before the seizure.
  • Call 999 ambulance +/- senior help if: the seizure lasts >10 minutes after giving the first dose of anticonvulsant medication (this includes ongoing twitching even if large jerking movements have stopped, OR a further seizure before the child recovers consciousness); OR serious illness is suspected
47
Q

Drugs used to treat anaphylaxis

A
  • High flow Oxygen – 15L/min
  • Adrenaline 500mcg IM
  • then antihistamine, steroids
48
Q

Female, 20 y old

collapse

O/E pulse 132 reg, BP 84/42, tense abdomen v tender RIF, reports slight PV blood loss

Differentials

A
  • Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
  • Appendicitis
  • Ruptured ovarian cyst
  • Ovarian torsion
  • Implantation of intrauterine pregnancy
  • Miscarriage
49
Q

Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A
50
Q

What’s Westley scoring system used for?

A

Clinical scoring systems for croup

Westley clinical scoring system classifies cases into mild, moderate or severe

51
Q

Components of Westley scoring system

A

The modified Westley clinical scoring system for croup

  • Inspiratory stridor:
    • Not present - 0 points.
    • When agitated/active - 1 point.
    • At rest - 2 points.
  • Intercostal recession:
    • Not present - 0 points.
    • Mild - 1 point.
    • Moderate - 2 points
    • Severe - 3 points.
  • Air entry:
    • Normal - 0 points.
    • Mildly decreased - 1 point.
    • Severely decreased - 2 points.
  • Cyanosis:
    • None - 0 points.
    • With agitation/activity - 4 points.
    • At rest - 5 points.
  • Level of consciousness:
    • Normal - 0 points.
    • Altered - 5 points.

Possible score 0-17: 0-3 = mild croup, 4-6 = moderate croup, >6 =severe croup.

52
Q

Management of hematemesis

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. IV fluids
  3. Blood Transfusion
  4. IV PPI
  5. OGD/adrenaline injection
53
Q

Management of vaso-vagal syncope

A
  • Positioning e.g. lie flat/raise feet/recovery position
  • Avoid crowding/loosen clothes
54
Q

Management of Acute LVF

A
  1. Sit up
  2. Oxygen
  3. Frusemide IV
  4. Nitrate
  5. Morphine/ Diamorphine
  6. Antiemetic
  7. Inotrope e.g. digoxin, dobutamine, dopamine
  8. CPAP
55
Q

Management of febrile convulsion

A
  1. Safety/free from danger
  2. protect airway
  3. Oxygen
  4. Cool down: Remove warm clothes, tepid sponging
  5. Paracetamol
  6. Ibuprofen
  7. Diazepam/lorazepam PR/IV
56
Q

Management of DKA

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. IV fluids
  3. Insulin infusion
  4. Monitor/replace potassium
  5. Treat any infection
57
Q

Management of meningococcal septicemia

A
  1. Benzyl penicillin IV
  2. Oxygen
  3. IV fluids
  4. Cefotaxime IV
58
Q

What drug (and its side effects) are given for the contacts for prophylaxis of meningococcal disease?

A

Rifampicin

SE: orange body fluids, secretions