GPH 204 Flashcards

(26 cards)

1
Q

Low Level Airways extend from _____ AGL up to, but not including _____ ASL

A

2200’
18000’

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2
Q

Standard control zone size for civilian towered aerodromes

A

7 NM
3000’ AAE

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3
Q

Standard control zone size for uncontrolled aerodromes

A

5 NM
3000’ AAE

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4
Q

Standard military control zone

A

10 NM
6000’ AAE

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5
Q

True/False
Intermediate stops may be included in a single IFR flight plan

A

False

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6
Q

VFR flight plans with 1 or more intermediate stops may be filed provided:

A

1) the stop is of short duration (EET includes stops)
2) the stop is included in the route section (format CYXU 0045 CYXU)

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7
Q

RVSM is all airspace within Canadian Domestic Airspace from FL _____ to FL _____ inclusive

A

290
410

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8
Q

High Level Airspace (Class A) begins at:
southern control area - _____ ASL
northern control area - FL _____
arctic control area - FL _____

A

18000’
230
270

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9
Q

GNSS substitution may not be used in lieu of ground based aids for

A

VOR and NDB final approach segment guidance on VOR- or NDB- instrument approach procedures

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10
Q

RVOP (Reduced Visibility Operations) means operations from RVR _____ down to and including RVR _____

A

2600 (1/2 sm)
1200 (1/4 sm)

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11
Q

LVOP (Low Visibility Operations) means operations below RVR _____

A

1200 (1/4 sm)

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12
Q

When holding short, if hold short lines are not visible, or not established, aircraft must hold _____ ft from the edge of the runway in use.

A

200

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13
Q

Common frequency for the broadcast of aircraft
position and pilot’s intentions flying in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome if no MF or ATF is published

A

123.2 MHz

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14
Q

At an uncontrolled aerodrome where no MF is in effect, traffic may join the circuit via
1) the _____ side and crossing overhead the aerodrome at circuit altitude or 1000’ AAE
2) if no conflict exists, via the _____ leg

A

upwind
downwind

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15
Q

If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross overhead an uncontrolled aerodrome before joining the circuit, it is recommended that
the crossover be accomplished at least _____ ft above the circuit altitude.
Descents should be made on the ____ side or well clear of the traffic pattern.

A

500
upwind

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16
Q

Below 10 000’ ASL, no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada at an indicated airspeed of more than _____ kts.

17
Q

No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada below 3,000 feet AGL within _____ NM of a controlled airport at an indicated airspeed of more than _____ kts unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

18
Q

An ATC revision to any item of a SID (DOES/DOES NOT) cancel the rest of the SID.

19
Q

If a departure is rated 1/2, it implies an aircraft can, in IMC, safely depart in any direction based on these 3 premises.

A

Cross the departure end of the runway at 35’ AGL
Maintain a minimum climb gradient of 200’/NM
Climb on runway heading to 400’ AAE

20
Q

Departure procedures which require a climb gradient in excess of 200’/NM shall also publish a _____ departure.

21
Q

SPEC VIS departure for a Cat A aircraft (up to 90 knots in the climb) requires _____ statute mile(s) of visibility.

22
Q

In IMC (with exceptions) aircraft shall be operated at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft.

23
Q

True/False
QNE is Standard Pressure (29.92)

24
Q

True/False
QNH is always Standard Pressure (29.92)

25
True/False IFR assigned altitudes can be refused based on pilot assessment of temperature effect on obstacle clearance.
True
26
To ensure obstacle and terrain clearance the pilot is to carry out a published missed approach until at _____ prior to complying with further instructions or clearances issued by ATC.
an appropriate minimum IFR altitude (usually the altitude referenced in the MAP)