SMM Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

List the checks in the 24 hour checks - 7(+1 as per SMM) items

A

Power Lever Test light
Beta Back-up system
Auto Feather system
Propeller Governor
Electrical System Check
Ancillary Electrics
Pneumatics check
ADF test

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2
Q

Takeoff brief contents
_____ of takeoff
_____ and _____ speeds
_____ in the event of an airborne _____
_____ procedures
Questions

A

Type
Decision, Safety
Intentions, emergency
Departure

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3
Q

Call for takeoff power should not be done prior to _____

A

gaining rudder authority.

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4
Q

Demonstrated max crosswind

A

27 kts

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5
Q

STOL Takeoff Restrictions
Shall not be flown from _____
Are not permitted when the _____ is unserviceable
Do not use _____ to arrest wheel vibration after takeoff
Should not be performed at _____ or in _____ conditions
Ensure that _____ and _____ are adequate to permit visual obstacle avoidance in the event of an engine failure
An _____ must be selected

A

the right seat (except by IPs)
auto feather
brakes
night, whiteout/greyout
ceiling, visibility
abort point

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6
Q

Initial 90 KIAS climb attitude

A

8°-12° nose up

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7
Q

Approximate power setting calculations
2 PSI Tq (both engines) = x fpm
or x KIAS

A

100 fpm
2 KIAS

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8
Q

Cruise descent is not to exceed _____ fpm

A

1000

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9
Q

Deleting a fix in an approach procedure in the active flight plan will

A

delete the entire approach.

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10
Q

Recommended holding airspeed and fuel flow (for planning purposes)

A

100 KIAS
400 lbs/hr

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11
Q

The Pre-Landing Check should be completed ____ the inbound track.

A

before intercepting

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12
Q

Flaps should be selected to 10° and an airspeed of 90 KIAS achieved _____ final descent.

A

prior to commencing

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13
Q

When should the aircraft be configured (10° flap 90 KIAS) when conducting an approach with a procedure turn?

A

On descent to a procedure turn altitude

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14
Q

Stabilized approach corridor begins at _____ AGL in IMC and _____ AGL in VMC

A

1000’
300’

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15
Q

Stabilized approach criteria - 8 items
(3 for different nav types, 1 for circling)

A

Descent rate no greater than 1000 fpm unless required and briefed
Approach and pre-landing checklists complete
The aircraft is in the landing configuration unless a delay in final flap setting is required and briefed
Non-precision ± 1 dot of course or 5° NDB
ILS localizer and glideslope ± 1 dot
PAR - no “well left/right/above/below” call
Circling - wings shall be level on final at 300’ AAE
Within -5/+10 KIAS approach speed

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16
Q

Circuit speed and approximate power settings

A

100 KIAS
18-20 psi Tq

17
Q

Normal point in the circuit to call for 10° flap

A

Abeam the button of the runway

18
Q

When planning a 0° flap landing, maintain _____ until rolled out on final.

19
Q

Starter Limitations
Normal and
Dry Motoring (eg No Light Start)

A

40 seconds
25 seconds

20
Q

Practice stalls must be recovered by _____ AGL

21
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO converting from Magnetic to True

A

1) Estimate compass change (CADET)
2) Select EFIS switch M -> T
3) Select AHRS mode MAG -> DG

22
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO and True arriving at the destination in NDA

A

1) Estimate compass change
2) DG -> MAG -> DG

23
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO and NDA and entering SDA

A

1) Estimate compass change (reverse of CADET)
2) Select EFIS T-> M
3) Select AHRS mode DG -> MAG

24
Q

The PF shall ensure at least _____ feet of runway length is remaining when conducting a stop-and-go

25
The PF shall ensure at least _____ feet of runway length is remaining when conducting a touch-and-go
1500
26
SAR door airspeed limitations Door opening/closing: _____ Door open: _____
115 KIAS 140 KIAS
27
SAR door OAT minimum for training is _____ °C
-18
28
Approximate torque required to maintain airspeed with the SAR door open
5-10 psi
29
It is permissible to takeoff with tundra tires in snow accumulations up to _____ tire diameter.
1/3
30
Max takeoff weight reduced to _____ lbs (skis up, prepared surface)
13 300
31
The wing tank fuel must be _____ before landing on rough snow or icy surfaces
less than half full
32
Austere landings (wheel and ski) SOP will imply the rad alt will be set to _____ ft and the FE will make _____ and _____ ft calls
20 5
33
The recommended crosswind limit on the skiplane is _____ kts
10
34
During the takeoff roll, the PM will visually ensure the _____ annunciator illuminates and visually confirms that both _____ are operating.
AUTOFEATHER ARM airspeed indicators
35
AOI requires that the _____ lights be turned on for all starts, taxiing, and shutdowns conducted at night.
wing inspection
36
Single engine TAS used for ETP calculations is
120 kts
37
Altitude error due to temperature 4 x degrees below _____ x (_____/1000)
ISA altitude above station
38
Decreasing the propeller RPM will _____ the torque
increase
39
Cruise TAS for flight planning: Streets/Intermediates Tundra Wheel-ski plane
155 150 145