Ground School Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

Dimensions of the Challenger 650

A

64’ 4” wingspan

68’ 5” nose to tail

21’ tall with elevator UP
23’ tall with hump

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2
Q

When will the B pumps run in AUTO?

A

1B and 2B - Cross-side GEN and Flaps out of 0 deg. (> 4 deg)

3B - Either GEN and Flaps out of 0 deg. (> 4 deg)

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3
Q

How many feet do you need to make a 180 deg. turn?

A

61’

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4
Q

Main BATT needs to be ____v before starting the APU.

A

22V

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5
Q

Main Battery: __v __a

APU Battery: __v __a

A

Main 24v / 17a (nose)

APU 24v / 43a (aft equip. bay)

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6
Q

Do the Battery Chargers operate on AC or DC?

A

AC Power…

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7
Q

Does the a/c need power to PUT OUT a fire?

A

No, SQUIBS will still pierce bottles to discharge Halon without electrical power

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8
Q

Does the a/c need power to DETECT a fire?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Power supply logic of the CL-650

A

On-side
Inside
Cross-side
Outside

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9
Q

What is the difference between WARN and FAIL tests?

A

WARN tests check circuitry and status of system components (will show RED Warnings)

FAIL tests verify the systems ability to discriminated real vs false alarms (will show AMBER Cautions)

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10
Q

Pressing PWR FUEL: (5)

A
  1. APU Fuel pump energizes
  2. FUEL SOV OPENS
  3. Negative G SOV (Left Motive Flow line) OPENS
  4. APU RPM / EGT on EICAS
  5. ECU energizes
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11
Q

Pressing START/STOP: (1)

A

Engages the starter, cutout occurs between 35-45%.

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12
Q

What conditions would cause a GEN to take itself offline? (3)
__________
What kVA are the Engine GENs rated for?

A
  1. GEN and BUS overcurrent (Amps)
  2. over/under voltage (Volts)
  3. over/under frequency (Hz)
    __________
    30 kVA to FL350

25 kVA to FL410

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13
Q

What is 10th stage bleed air used for? (4)

A

AC (PACKs)

Pressurization

Engine Starting

Water Pressure (potable water)

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14
Q

What is 14th stage bleed air used for? (3)

A

Thrust Reversers

Wing Anti-Ice

Cowl Anti-Ice

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15
Q

When using APU bleed air, what is the sequence for 10th stage switchlights?

A

Out
In
In
Out

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16
Q

When using Engine bleed air, what is the sequence for 10th stage switchlights?

A

In (open)
Out (clsd)
Out (clsd)
In (open)

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17
Q

What area is Zone A

A

Combustion Chamber, provides detection and protection

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18
Q

What area is Zone B

A

Jet Pipe and Pylon, provides detection only

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19
Q

When AC Panel CABIN / CKPT Knobs are selected to MAN, what happens? (2)

A

Fan and Duct Sensors are REMOVED

Gives wider range of temperature selection

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the ADG?

A

Provide AC power and hydraulics through 3B pump.

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21
Q

What are the EICAS indications of a successful bleed leak test? (9)

A

Master Warning
3 chimes
“Bleed Air Duct”

ANTI ICE DUCT
DUCT TEST OK
R/L 14TH DUCT
R/L 10TH DUCT

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22
Q

How are FLIGHT spoilers operated and controlled?

A

Hydraulically operated

Mechanically controlled

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23
Q

What are the Main and APU BATTs rated to?

A

Main = 17 A/hr / 24V
APU = 43 A/hr / 24V

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24
What are the GENs rated to?
30 kVa 115V 400 A/hr
25
What are the limitations on use of APU Bleed Air in-flight? (Alt and airspeeds)
Airspeed: 141-290 knots Altitude: 15,000'
26
When must you use CONT IGN? (5)
VCTS TO with high Xwind (10 kts+) TOLD with contaminated runway MOD+ TURB MOD+ Rain
27
What does the DUCT MON TEST accomplish?
TEST - checks 10th/14th stage elements for CONTINUITY LOOP A/B - checks respective 10th stage LOOPS FOR SHORTS conditions
28
When will the APU LCV automatically close? (2)
1. Excessive APU EGT 2. APU LCV interlock protection (prevent manifold pressure from entering the APU by way of switch logic)
29
When will the 10th Stage Valves automatically close? (2)
1. PACK overpressure 2. Engine Start ???
30
When will PACK(s) go into HIGH mode? (2)
1. In flight during single PACK ops 2. On the ground with the APU
31
What does the RAM air switch/light do?
Opens RAM AIR valve in the event of a dual PACK failure for ventilation. (250 knots recommended)
32
An AC cart will run the _____. A DC cart will ___________.
GENs Start the APU
33
How will you know if a BATT Charger is OFFLINE? (2)
1. DC schematics page will have "CHGR OFF" 2. Main AC buses are UN-powered (when Main AC buses are powered, the MAIN and APU battery chargers are in a charging configuration at all times.)
34
What happens if you remove power from the a/c with EMER LTS in ARM?
The EMER LTS remain ON and will deplete the Battery. You must re-establish AC power to get the EMER LTS to turn off again.
35
Which HYD accumulator will hold pressure and allow 6 brake applications after HYD failure?
System 3 - INBD Brakes
36
WSHLD has _____ capabilities WIND has _____ capabilities
WSHLD de-ice. WIND de-fog.
37
How many fire bottles does the 650 have?
3
38
What lights do NOT illuminate during the LAMP tests? (4)
Cabin Pressurization FAULT light ATS ADG light CVR light
39
With MAN RATE to FULL DEC position, what cabin depress rate will you achieve?
about 300 fpm
40
A/I: What do the COWLs sense to illuminate the L and R ON switch/lights?
Sufficient Pressure.
41
A/I: What do WINGs sense to illuminate the L/R HEAT LIGHT?
Sufficient HEAT.
42
Why does WSHLD Heat have to be HIGH for the test?
Full power is needed to be sufficient for the test.
43
On the ground, limit Probe Heat ON to 2 mins or less when TAT is _____
15 deg C or greater
44
Green light on CVR test indicates:
CVR will record for 10 mins after loss of power
45
Do not use the KA Band: (2)
during de-ice within 100' of anything
46
How can you set the MFD/PFDs for flight?
EICAS can be pushed to PF MFD only. (panel under TUNE INHIBIT switch/lights) PM select charts on MFD.
47
Ignition system A and B have _____ and ______
Exciters and Igniters
48
Limitation regarding RECOG TAXI lights?
DO NOT illuminate while a/c is NOT moving
49
Max differential pressure for taxi and TOLD?
0.2 psi 9.2 is max dif press
50
Limitation regarding LANDING LIGHTS on the ground?
DO NOT illuminate except for TOLD
51
Temp limit range for operations?
-40 deg C to ISA +35 deg C
52
What is SUPP GND WING Anti-Ice?
Designed to heat WINGs a little bit while on the ground at IDLE thrust.
53
GROUND Spoilers are powered each by a ______________
single hydraulic actuator
54
Below 60 knots, max N1 for reverse thrust is ____
60%
55
What kind of engines does the 650 have?
CF34-3B Low pressure N1 High pressure N2 AGB houses: HYD pump Electric GEN Fuel pump Air Turbine StarterE
56
ENG SPEED - ON means what?
N1 < 79% = N2 is used for engine sync/speed control
57
Do you need both STALL PROT selected to ON for it to work?
Yes
58
What does APR do? (2)
Monitors your Takeoff Power setting. If power loss is sensed APR increases thrust on operative engine
59
What color will an unpowered system be on the HYD synoptic page?
Amber
60
How are the FLAPS driven? What if there is a flap fail?
By 2 electric motors. If one fails, the motor(s) work at 1/2 speed.
61
What is the 650s MAX fuel quantity?
20,000 lbs
62
Where does ISI get it's NAV data?
VHF NAV 1
63
How many TRUs does the 650 have and what load can they handle?
4 x 100 A/hrs
64
What do TRUs do?
Convert AC to DC...most things on the a/c run on DC
65
If you lose an engine on Takeoff, what have you lost?
nothing
66
If you lose an engine in Cruise, what do you have to do?
Turn HYD B pumps ON to get HYD PRESS back. (No flaps 4 / cross-side GEN logic)
67
What is on the DIR/HOT BUS? (3)
FIRE BOTTLES Service LTGS Fuel Panel _______________ MAIN BATT DIR BUS APU BATT DIR BUS DC EMER BUS
68
How does fuel flow through the systems to the engines?
Tail -> Electric Transfer pumps Aux -> Ejector Transfer pumps Wings -> SCAV ejectors Collectors -> MAIN ejectors **Electric BOOST PUMPS** Engines & Engine Driven Pumps
69
What engages the GROUND spoiler deploy logic when the switch is in AUTO (usual position)
TLs to TO power & Wheel above 16 knots Then: TLs to IDLE & WOW sensed.
70
What is the purpose of FMS 3?
A backup NAV source. No perf or tuning
71
Ignition system A is on _____ BUS and Ignition system B is on _____ BUS
A is on AC Bus B is on BATT BUS
72
If you have a huffer cart hooked up to the plane, how will you start the engines? (Which ignition & how much psi)
Must use B Ignition and have a min psi of 45
73
Can QRH data be used for performance?
No
74
What is Vfto?
Final TO segment climb speed
75
What does AC/DC UTILITY switch/light illumination mean?
AUTO illumination: both AC UTILITY Buses shed (and maybe DC UTILITY BUSES) If manually pressed: ALL UTILITY Buses are shed
76
What does a TRU1 Failure shed?
DC UTIL BUS 1
77
What does DC POWER MAIN BUS TIE switch/light illumination mean?
Must press manually to TIE TRU1 and TRU2 together, meaning DC UTIL 1 and 2 are shed
78
When AUTOXFER [FAIL] illuminates, what does it mean? When would [FAIL] illuminate?
Indicates you only have 1 bus because BUS TIE has failed FAIL illuminates when Pilot Manually disables the AUTOXFER
79
Why don't Ground Spoilers deploy during taxi when in AUTO?
You have not advanced TLs to MIN Takeoff Setting, which is needed to arm the DEPLOY logic.
80
What is Ground Spoiler deploy logic?
L and R TLs at IDLE -and- Main Landing Gear WOW -or- Wheel Speed > 16
81
After takeoff, what do the PSEUs disable? (2)
Anti-skid Nosewheel Steering (Air Mode)
82
When does Anti-Skid become operational again after landing? At what speed does it disarm?
35 knot wheel speed -or- 1 WOW signal present after a 5 second delay (disarms at 10 knots)
83
If 1 PACK fails, how do you get the other functional PACK to operate in HIGH mode?
You must DE-Select the FAILED PACK
84
Operations over 40,000 require:
1 PACK or 1 Cowl A/I ON to prevent core-lock
85
How can you disconnect the AP? (6)
STAB trim YD DISC AP DISC button APDISC bar TOGA Switching the AFCS SEL [1/2]
86
When would you push "PWR TXFR OVERRIDE" on the ADG control panel?
To restore power back to another source from the ADG.
87
Pressurization Modes?
Ground Takeoff Takeoff Abort
88
What does APU LCV interlock protection do? (What is "interlocked"?)
Backs up the check valve and prevents manifold press from entering the APU compressor. Interlocks APU LCV with the 10th stage bleed air switches.
89
Why is the APU commonly used as a bleed air source for takeoff?
Bleed air 10th stage valves must be CLOSED (OUT) for TOLD if cowl/wing A/I is ON. APU bleed air is used for pressurization in this instance during takeoff at no performance penalty.
90
After takeoff, when can 10th stage bleed source be switched back to the engines?
After obstacle clearance has been achieved, but prior to 15,000' MSL
91
ADG LAMP/UNIT - UNIT is testing: (3)
ADG's uplock circuity Contactor that will tie the ADG to the electrical system Auto-Deploy Logic
92
What does the APR system do?
Monitors N1 and if significant loss is sensed on 1 engine, APR increases thrust on the remaining engine.
93
Activation of PROBES will heat several elements based on: (3)
Probe switch position Engine GEN operation PAX Door Status
94
R/L ENG FIRE PUSH does what? (6)
1. ARMS SQUIB 2. FUEL SOV Shutoff 3. HYD SOV Shutoff 4. 10th/14th BLEED AIR SOV Shutoff 5. Disables IGN 6. Takes GEN offline