Ground School Review Flashcards
(231 cards)
1
Q
List all Flight Deck emergency Equipment Procedural
A
3553 Flashlight CP/FO Life Vest CP/FO/JS Circuit breakers Escape rope CP/FO Landing gear/RAT pins (4 total) FO PBE Fire Extinguisher Crash AXE Observer Seat/O2/headset
2
Q
After turning Batteries 1 and 2 to “ON” and “AUTO,” what three things are we looking for?
A
Displays 2 and 3 and IESS
3
Q
Under what voltage must a“battery recharge procedure”be accomplished? Under what voltage must maintenance be called?
A
Under 22.5v must be recharged.
Under 21.0v Mx must be called.
4
Q
Why is it important to wait approximately 30 seconds after energizing the batteries before running the fire extinguisher panel test?
A
To allow the EICAS to populate, to check for any fire faults.
5
Q
List all items that are part of the fire extinguisher panel test.
A
6- Handles and extinguishing buttons 5- EICAS messages 2- Aural/ Master warning triple chime 2- Master warning buttons 2- FIRE on ITT
6
Q
How do you know your DVDR test is a “good test?”
A
Green light on DVDR panel and No fail EICAS message.
7
Q
What test begins when AC power is applied to the aircraft?
A
E-PBIT
8
Q
How do you know the E-PBIT is running?
A
WHITE “ FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” EICAS
9
Q
How long is the E-PBIT?
A
3 minutes
10
Q
What does the E-PBIT check
A
All of the Electrical components of the FBW system, FCMs, P-ACE,s and SF-ACEs.
11
Q
What will interrupt the E-PBIT?
A
Any hydraulic system pressurized
Any Flight Control Mode Panel button cycled
AC power interrupted
12
Q
What test begins when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized in the order 3A, 1, 2?
A
H-PBIT
13
Q
When will the H-PBIT run automatically.
A
When both engines are started.
14
Q
How do you know the H-PBIT is running?
A
WHITE “ FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” EICAS
15
Q
How long does the H-PBIT take?
A
1 minute
16
Q
What does the H-PBIT check?
A
The hydraulic systems test, functional test of all FBW actuators.
17
Q
What interrupts the H-PBIT?
A
Any movement of the flight controls
18
Q
How many halon bottles serve engine fire suppression?
A
2 bottles
19
Q
What does pulling the fire handle do?
A
Commands the FUEL SOV, BLEED SOV, and HYD SOV closed.
Also closes the Xbleed valve
20
Q
What does rotating the fire handle do?
A
Discharges the respective bottle into the respective engine
21
Q
How many halon bottles serve APU fire protection?
A
1 bottle
22
Q
What does pressing the APU EMER STOP button do?
A
Stops the APU without a cool down period. Closes the fuel SOV.
23
Q
What button do I press to discharge halon to the APU?
A
EMER STOP and APU fire extinguisher
24
Q
When will the APU automatically shut down on the ground?
A
Underspeed FADEC fault Overspeed Sensor fail High Oil temp EGT overtemp Low oil pressure FIRE
25
When will the APU automatically shut down, in the air?
Underspeed
FADEC fault
Overspeed
26
Will the APU automatically shutdown for fire? If so, when?
Yes, 10 sec on the ground it will shutdown and 1 minute after the detection the APU fire extinguisher light will begin to flash.
27
How many fire detectors are in each cargo bin? Smoke detectors?
No fire detectors.
3 smoke detectors in FWD
2 smoke detectors in AFT
28
How many halon bottle(s) serve Cargo fire suppression?
2
29
Will any cargo bottle automatically discharge at any time?
No, it always requires at least one press.
30
How do I discharge the low-rate bottle for a non-annunciated forward cargo fire on the ground?
1 : arm system
2: discharge high rate
3: discharge low rate
31
Briefly explain how a LAV SMOKE EICAS message would appear.
Smoke detected in either LAV.
| Red LAV SMOKE EICAS and flashing amber light on FA panel.
32
Does LAV SMOKE mean the halon bottle has discharged?
No
33
What are two main components on the DC HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2 that we, as pilots, care about?
Pressure refueling panel
| Fire Extinguishing system
34
What type(s) of circuit breakers do(es) the E170 have? How do I access them?
Thermal and Electronic, Some thermals are in the cockpit and the remaining CB are remote and must be accessed on the MCDU.
35
What is the primary purpose of a TRU?
Convert AC to DC
36
In an electrical emergency, the batteries will provide at least ___ minutes of electrical power.
10 minutes
37
Briefly explain the purpose of the RAT
Powers aircraft essential systems in an electrical emergency, may or may not charge the batteries.
38
A DC GPU can replace battery ___ in the event it is inoperative for APU starts.
battery 2
39
What are our sources of AC power?
IDG
APU
AC GPU
RAT
40
What is AC “Electrical Power Priority?”
Onside
Inside
Outside
Crossside
41
After starting the left engine with the APU on, what generator will power AC BUS 2?
Onside? No
Inside? Yes, I’ll take it.
The APU
42
All primary flight controls except for ailerons are ____?
Fly-by-wire
43
Briefly explain the signal path for a pitch change from control column to elevator in normal mode? Direct mode?
Column to the ACE to FCM and back to ACE then to control surface
Column to the ACE to control surface
44
What is the purpose of the ACE?
Actuator Control Electronics- connect the control column electronically to the respective control surface.
45
What is the purpose of the FCM?
Flight Control Module- Augments pilot inputs in normal mode to provide higher level functions
46
Name a few important Higher level Functions
Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
Auto-thrust compensation with elevator
AOA limiting with elevator offset
Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
YD and Turn coordination via AFCS
Rudder flight authority
Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speed brake deployment
Configuration change compensation with horiz. Stab. due to speed brake actuation
47
Flaps are _________actuated through the SF-ACE?
Electrically
48
What is the difference between Flaps 4 and Flaps 5?
4 is used for T.O and 5 is used for LNG
49
What flap settings are used for takeoff? Landing? Go-around?
T.O: 1, 2, or 4
Landing: 5 or FULL
Go-around: 2 or 4
50
What are maximum flap speeds?
1: 230
2: 215
3: 200
4/5:180
FULL: 165
51
Speed brakes are _____ activated and _____ actuated.
Electrical activated and hydraulically actuated.
52
What is the difference between ground Spoilers and Multifunction spoilers?
Ground spoilers only deploy on the ground
| Multifunction deploy inflight and on the ground
53
Under what three scenarios will the speed brakes automatically retract in flight?
Below 180kts
Flaps > 1
TLA > 70°
54
What are the “functions” of multifunction spoilers?
Roll spoilers
Speed brakes
Ground spoilers
55
All pilot trim commands are limited to ____ seconds before the arm cuts out.
3 seconds
56
What does pressing SYS 1 CUTOUT and SYS 2 CUTOUT buttons do?
Disable the respective HS-ACE channel 1 or 2
57
What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 1?
Mechanical and electrical
58
When will EDP 1 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When the Engine is started, YES
59
When will ACMP 1 turn on automatically
Ground: flaps > 0° AND T.O. Thrust OR ground speed> 50kt
Engine 1, Single engine taxi
Flight: EDP failure or Engine failure or FLAPS > 0°
60
What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 2?
Mechanical and electrical
61
When will EDP 2 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When the Engine is started, YES
62
When will ACMP2 turn on automatically?
Ground: flaps > 0° AND T.O. Thrust OR ground speed> 50kt
Engine 1, Single engine taxi (Engine 1 running and parking brake released)
Flight: EDP failure or Engine failure or FLAPS > 0°
63
Which hydraulic system controls nose wheel steering? Landing gear?
System 2
64
What type hydraulic pumps are in system 3?
Electrical
65
When will ACMP 3A begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When in the ON position. NO.
66
When will ACMP 3B turn on automatically?
When 3A fails, in flight only.
67
What is the primary purpose of the PTU
To assist the landing gear in retraction and extension, should EDP 2 fail.
68
Will the PTU run on the ground in AUTO?
NO, will only run in flight
69
When will the PTU run in flight (knob in AUTO)?
Automatically if engine 2 or EDP 2 fails.
Flaps not 0° or landing gear not up and locked when weight NOT on wheels, EDP 1 not failed and Hydraulic reservoir 2 is above 12%
70
What functions are found in the NAV menu on the MCDU?
Function used to alter the FPL.
| DEP./ARR/HOLD etc.
71
What functions are found in the PERF menu on the MCDU?
| What is meant by “Bug It?”
CASSH, set the FGP, to set the FMA to any assigned heading/altitudes/speeds
72
Where do I find the ADSB Code to enter in FLT ID on RTE page 1?
PDC
73
What are the three ways to generate a manifest?
Dispatch/ ACARS/Flight view
74
What tolerance does the target N1 have to fall within compared to the Manifest Projected N1?
-.1 - +.5
75
How does the CA “Copy” the flight plan?
NAV > R3 > L4
76
When should the Before Start BTL flow begin?
When FA closes door and verifies cabin is ready.
77
According to the SOPM, when should the APU be turned on?
10 minutes prior to pushback
78
ECS ON, APU
OFF
79
ECS OFF, APU
ON
80
Recite APU Starter Duty Cycle Limits
1&2 - 60 Seconds OFF
| 3 - 5 minutes OFF
81
Where does the APU receive fuel from? Which pumps?
Right wing tank, AC or DC fuel pump
82
How do I shut the APU off? Is there a cooldown period? What happens during the cooldown period?
By switching to OFF. 1 minute cool down period. Pneumatic power is removed immediately and electrical power is maintained through the cool down period.
83
Can the cooldown period be canceled systematically? Operationally?
Yes, if turned back to ON it cancels the shutdown sequence, or will bypass it by pressing EMER STOP
84
Can I turn the APU back ON during the cooldown period? Spooldown period?
Yes.
85
What conditions must be met for a green light to illuminate on the nose wheel?
STEER OFF EICAS
Brakes OFF
AC Ground Power Panel switch in DISENGAGE
86
What would cause a BRK LH FAULT or BRK RH FAULT EICAS message?
Pushback greater than 5kts should extinguish automatically. RTO must be reset.
87
Where do I find the procedure for starting the engine with a Ground Pneumatic Cart?
QRH
88
Where do I find the procedure for starting the engines with no AC source (Battery Start)?
QRH
89
What is the process should you encounter an engine start malfunction?
START/STOP SELECTOR TO STOP
90
How do I cross-bleed start an engine?
```
BY USING THE CROSSBLEED VALVE
REAR OF AIRCRAFT -CLEAR
TL - ADVANCE
DUCT PRESSURE 40-45PSI
START/STOP - START THEN RUN
TL- IDLE
N1 TARGET - VERIFY
```
91
What type of engine does the ERJ have?
High bypass turbofans
92
When will TO switch to CLB thrust mode?
Landing gear retracted/ above 400AGL/Change in Vert. Mode
93
When will CLB switch to CRZ thrust mode?
Level of preselect alt. for 90 seconds and airspeed is within 5 kts of preselect
94
When will the CON thrust mode engage?
Engine failure at or above 3,000AGL OR Manually in MCDU TRS menu
95
When will CRZ switch to GA?
Flaps > 0 or when TOGA is pressed
96
Can you change the thrust mode manually?
Yes, on the TRS page of the MCDU
97
Name a few Thrust Modes the airplane has.
TO/CLB/CRZ/CON/GA
98
What is ATTCS?
AUTOMATIC TAKEOFF THRUST CONTOL SYSTEM
99
When will ATTCS provide reserve thrust automatically?
| IN TOGA AND:
Difference between N1s is greater than 15%
One engine failure during takeoff
Windshear warning
Windshear Caution when TO/GA is selected and MAX thrust is set
100
What is the difference between MAX and TOGA?
MAX is the highest thrust available.
| TOGA is normal operating maximum thrust
101
What type of brakes does the ERJ have?
Hydraulically actuated carbon brakes
102
How can you activate the brakes?
Hands/Feet/Automatic
103
What is the difference between HI and RTO?
HI is slowing 8kts/sec
| RTO is MAXIMUM braking
104
What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be ARMED to RTO?
- RTO
- W.O.W. in ground
- <60kts wheel speed
- Any brake pedal position
- TL IDLE or REV
105
What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be APPLIED in RTO?
- Armed in RTO
- on ground
- >60kts wheel speed
- No faults
- No brake pressure
- TL IDLE or REV
106
What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be DISARMED from RTO?
```
-Knob to OFF,MED,HI
in fight
- No faults
- <60kts wheel speed
- brakes applied during auto brake
- Above Idle with brakes
```
107
What areas on the 175 are protected with Anti-Ice?
Windshields, Wings, Nacelles, and Probes
108
When will the ADSP heat turn on automatically?
Whenever an engine is running or airborne.
109
When will the windshield heat turn on automatically?
When 2 separate AC power sources are available
110
When will the windshields run their PBIT?
when ever AC power is established for 120 seconds then turn off.
111
What happens when the windshield is single source AC power in flight?
R. windshield is shed in flight
112
When will ENG A/I turn on automatically?
MCDU TO Dataset OFF/ENG: Only the Engine will come on when Engine is running
In flight: Anytime ice detected,1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff
113
When will ALL A/I turn on automatically?
MCDU TO Dataset OFF/ALL: Engine while it is running, Wing > 40kts airspeed
In flight: Anytime ice detected, 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff
114
What is a green ROLL mode indicate?
The AP will hold the wings level/specified bank angle 6 to 35 degrees, if less than 6 the AP with level the wings. if greater than 35, it will hold 35.
115
What does a green TRACK indicate?
AP will Intercept and maintain IRS track (used for TO/GA).
116
What does green HDG indicate?
AP will follow the heading bug
117
What does magenta LNAV indicate?
Lateral navigation from the FMS
118
What does green LOC indicate?
Ground based navigation from ILS/VOR.
119
What does green FPA indicate?
The pilot selects the flight patch relative to the horizon
120
What does the green TO indicate?
Dual cue FD for takeoff
121
What is a green ASEL?
Altitude select with VNAV off
122
What does magenta ASEL indicate?
Altitude select with VNAV on
123
What does green FLCH indicate?
Flight level change with VNAV off
124
What does magenta FLCH indicate?
Flight level change with VNAV on, will acknowledge all programmed restrictions.
125
What does green ALT indicate?
Altitude capture VNAV off.
126
What does magenta ALT indicate?
Altitude capture with VNAV on.
127
What is green VS indicate?
Vertical speed mode
128
What does yellow OVSP indicate?
Overspeeding and airplane either correcting or cannot
129
What does a green GS indicate?
Glide slope for ILS
130
What does green GA indicate?
TO/GA selected and FMS should automatically sequence
131
What does magenta GP indicate?
Glide Path with a FMS rnav/rnp approach
132
What does magenta PTH indicate?
MCDU has built and is following a descent profile to comply with all restrictions. Requires LNAV/VNAV/ and lower altitude.
133
What does SPDe mean?
Speed on Elevator IDLE or MAX thrust. Max performance climb or descent.
134
What does SPDt mean?
Speed on thrust, power for airspeed.
135
What does amber LIM mean?
The airplane can not maintain the desired airspeed and the pilot must intervene.
136
Difference between Manual Speeds vs FMS speeds
Manual - set speed using speed bug
| FMS - set in perf profile or SID/STARs
137
How does FMS speeds pick which speed to fly?
Picks the lowest of the applicable speed.
138
Where does the FMS tell you what speed is selected?
Above the airspeed tape.
139
What is green dot? What is it used for?
1.3 over stick shaker speed. Used as a reference for safe operating speed.
Flaps retraction/extension speed. Or emergency return landing speeds
140
When would you press the DN LOCK REL button?
When the gear need to be raised immediately for climb performance. Or landing gear lever malfunction, prevent the level from being raised
141
How many ways are there to lower the landing gear?
3
142
What does the electrical override switch do?
Electrically bypasses the gear lever commanding gear down.
143
What does the Alternate Gear Extension lever do?
Release hydraulic pressure and mechanically releases uplock hooks.
144
What is a WARNING EICAS message?
RED- Immediate crew action required.
145
What is a CAUTION EICAS message?
AMBER - Requires immediate attention, action likely required.
146
What is an ADVISORY EICAS message?
CYAN - Attention may be required
147
What is a STATUS EICAS message?
WHITE- airplane configuration
148
How can I “scroll through” EICAS messages?
Using the CCD by selected the appropriate screen.
149
When will a windshear warning appear? Caution? Will a caution provide
escape guidance?
Warning is decreasing performance windshear and a caution is an increasing performance windshear.
A warning will automatically provide guidance (GA is required), A Caution will provide guidance once TOGA is pressed.
150
Define Upset
Any flight condition outside of the normal operating window
151
What is upset criteria?
-10°/+25 pitch
45° of bank
Inappropriate airspeed
152
Upset recovery procedure
PUSH ROLL THRUST STABILIZE
153
When will and EGPWS warning occur?
When a terrain conflict is present.
154
What is proper EGPWS recovery technique?
- MAX thrust and 20° degree nose high until clear
| - Maintain configuration
155
When will a Traffic Advisory populate?
When traffic enters the protected range (about 20-48 seconds)
156
Resolution Advisory PF duties during TA and RA
Autopilot - Disconnect
Autothrust -Disconnect
Pitch - Fly-TO/Zone
Thrust - As required
157
Resolution Advisory PM duties during TA and RA
Monitor flight path
Scan for visual traffic
Advises ATC asap
158
What is minimum fuel?
2250 lbs
| 45 minutes 1,500afe at green dot
159
What is Emergency Fuel?
1500 lbs 30 minutes
160
What are the minimum holding speeds?
200kts 6000' and below
| 210kts 6,001' and above
161
What are maximum holding speeds?
6000' 200kts
6,001' - 14,000 230kts
14,001 and above 265kts
162
What are some techniques to help in turbulence?
Do not exceed Vb, adjust airspeed as necessary to avoid stalling.
Do not chase airspeed.
Maintain constant attitude
Establish pitch trim and do not adjust
Allow altitude and airspeed variations
Disconnect A/T, set thrust, and adjust as necessary
163
What are the different compartments of each main fuel tank?
Main, collector, surge.
164
How many AC fuel pump are their?
1 in each wing.
165
Where are the ACFPs located?
In the collector tank
166
What does XFEED do?
Turns on opposite side ACFP and feeds one engine from both tanks.
167
Where is the DC fuel pump?
In the right collector tank.
168
When would we use the DC pump?
For APU start or to start engine 2 on battery power.
169
Where are the main ejector pumps? What do they do?
In the collector tanks, uses motive flow of the engines to maintain fuel pressure to the engines.
170
How can the aircraft be refueled?
Pressure refueling, or gravity over wing.
171
What causes a FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS message?
Sensors indicate 660lbs of fuel in respective tank.
172
When will the fuel quantity on the EICAS turn Amber? Red?
RED: 660 one side or 1320 total
AMBER: 1320 oneside or 2640 total
173
What causes an electrical emergency?
Loss of normal AC power
174
How long does it take the RAT to deploy?
8 seconds
175
What AC BUS does the RAT connect to?
The AC ESSN bus.
176
What items are on the AC essential bus?
Screen 2 and 3
IESS
Essential inverter (ignitors)
177
What EICAS message should disappear when the RAT is deployed?
Battery discharging, does not indicate that the batteries are charging.
178
What speeds are required to get the RAT spinning and to keep it spinning?
Requires 150 kts to start and 130 kts to maintain.
179
What are the components of the pressurization system?
```
CPC
OFV
NPRV
Safety Valve
Static port
```
180
What is the purpose of the CPC?
Cabin pressure control system, controls pressurization for comfort.
181
What is the purpose of the OFV?
Outflow valve, modulates the pressure of the cabin
182
What is the purpose of the NPRV?
Negative pressure relief valve when psid is -.5
183
What is the purpose of the safety valve?
Positive pressure relief valve, opens at 8.6 psid
184
What is the purpose of the pressurization static port?
Environmental static pressure, mechanically transmit to safety valve, electrically heated.
185
What are the modes of the pressurizaiton knob?
MAN
AUTO
LFE CONTROL
186
What does MAN mean on the pressurization panel?
The outflow valve is directly modulated by the pilots.
187
What does AUTO mean on the pressurization panel?
The airplane will build a pressurization schedule based on T.O. FE/ CRZ ALT/ LFE.
188
What does LFE CONTROL mean on the pressurization panel?
The pilots manually set the LFE. Airplane still controls pressurization.
189
What is the CABIN ALT knob for?
Used to modulate cabin altitude (outflow valve)
190
What happens when I press the dump button with the mode selector in
AUTO? LFE CTRL? MAN?
Closes bleeds and PACKS and commands outflow valve to a 2,000 fpm climb in cabin altitude up to 12,400’ in AUTO/LFE
In MAN the outflow valve must be opened manually
191
Where is the crew oxygen tank located?
Forward cargo compartment
192
Where is the crew oxygen pressure read out on the airplane?
System status page
193
What O2 color indications are required for dispatch?
Green or Cyan
| 3 or 2 crew
194
What settings are available to you on your oxygen mask?
Norm/100%/EMER
195
What happens to the speaker and internal mask mic when you take the mask out
of the holder?
MIC goes to Mask and respective Speaker turns on
196
How many masks are in each PSU?
3 masks
197
How long can each PSU provide oxygen to passengers?
About 12 minutes
198
Can I manually deploy the oxygen masks?
Yes, set knob to OVRD
199
When will oxygen masks deploy automatically?
When cabin altitude is 14,000 to 14,750’
200
How do I know if the masks are deployed?
Switch located next to the knob lights up
201
Define all four landing “v” speeds.
Vref- Normal speed over threshold
Vap- Target speed in landing go configurations
Vac- Approach climb OEI GA (flaps 2/4)
Vfs- Final segment climb OEI GA (clean)
202
What is the formula for calculating Vap?
1/2 of steady state + all of the gust factor
203
How do you calculate Vap without Stall Protection Ice Speeds?
+5min - +20max
204
How do you calculate Vap without Stall Protection Ice Speeds?
+5min - + 20max
205
What is the stabilized approach criteria?
1500 - Flaps 3, gear down less than 180kts
1000- Fully configured, before landing configuration, on speed Vap +15kts - -5kts
500- On slope on path, thrust levers above IDLE
206
What is the function of preview needles?
To show you a preview of the final approach course. Automatically at 150 miles
207
How many air data systems does the ERJ have?
4 air data systems
208
Which ADS is associated with which instruments?
ADS1 - Captain
ADS2- FO
ADS3- Backup
ADS4- IESS
209
What are the components of the ADS?
Air Data Smart Probes
Total Air Temperature Probes
Air Data Applications
210
How does the airplane calculate AOA?
Using the Air Data Smart Probes
211
What is the primary navigation system of the ERJ? What are the components?
The MCDU FMS
GPS
IRS
VOR
212
How long does it take the IRS to allign?
Up to 17 minutes
213
What is the automatic reversion priority?
Always wants PFD
Always wants EICAS
Always wants CP side
214
What is the difference between rectangles and circles on the audio control panel (ACP)?
Talk on rectangle
| Listen on circles
215
How many rectangles along the top row of the ACP can be illuminated at once?
1
216
How many circles on the ACP can be illuminated at once?
All
217
What does the MIC button do?
Cycle between auto and mask
218
What is the function of the EMER, RAMP, and CAB buttons on the ACP?
EMER- Sends triple chime to the FA and lights up rainbow bar
RAMP- Talks to rampers on the ground
CAB- Used for normal cabin communication
219
How many VHF (com) radios does the ERJ have? Can you use all three for voice?
3, yes you can.
220
Can the aircraft be towed to the gate? Where is the procedure found?
Yes, in the QRH
221
What causes a LG LEVER DISAG message? How is this fixed?
The landing gear level position, is not the same as the EICAS indication.
222
When would someone use the DN LOCK REL button?
When the gear lever is stuck in the down position and you're attempting to clear terrain.
223
What criteria must be met for the autobrake to be armed to Low, medium, or high?
```
W.O.W in flight
Wheel speed < 60kts
No faults
Brakes not pressed
Any
```
224
What criteria must be met for the autobrake to be applied to low, medium, or high?
```
Armed
W.O.W. in ground
Wheel speed > 60kts
No faultss
Brakes not pressed
Idle or REV
```
225
What can be done to disarm the autobrake from low, medium, or high?
W.O.W. in flight
No faults below 60kts wheel speed
Brakes pressed while Autobrakes applied
Above IDLE while autobrakes applied
226
Describe touchdown protection.
Brakes can not be applied until 3 seconds after W.O.W or Wheel speed above 50kts
227
Describe locked wheel protection.
Active above 30kts
Wheel speed difference of 33% or below its paired wheel the brake is released.
Inboard and Outboard brakes are paired together.
228
Describe automatic wheel braking protection.
Prevents the gear from being retracted while the wheels are spinning.
Nose gear has dedicated device.
229
Can the Emergency/Parking Brake be used to stop the aircraft after landing? When would a pilot need to do this?
Yes, 6 applications.
| Used in the event of loss of normal braking.
230
After landing, when will the GLD spoiler panels rise? When will they retract? How about in direct mode?
Deployed when W.O.W. on ground AND
Wheel speed above 45 kts or airspeed above 60kts AND
TLA below 26°
Unavailable in direct mode.
231
At what speed should the reverse thrust be set back to MIN REV? FWD Idle thrust?
MIN - 60kts
| FWD Idle - 40kts
