Ground Practice Questions Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
After starting the left engine with the APU on, what generator will power AC BUS 2?
A
APU
2
Q
What memory aid is used to remember the AC electrical power priority?
A
Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-side
3
Q
Items on HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2 include:
A
Engine Fire extinguishing, Pressure Refueling panel
4
Q
Leaving the GPU button pressed in after being disconnected from AC external power will…
A
Not allow you to re-connect to AC power until first pushing out the button
5
Q
With a non-annunciated aft cargo fire on the ground, how many times do you need to press the AFT cargo button to discharge the low-rate fire bottle?
A
3
6
Q
With an annunciated aft cargo fire in the air, how many times do you need to press the AFT cargo button to discharge the low rate bottle?
A
1
7
Q
Upon aircraft startup, you notice BAT 1 voltage of 20.7 and BAT 2 voltage of 23.1. You should…
A
Call maintenance
8
Q
Minimum battery voltage for normal operations is ___ volts.
A
22.5
9
Q
Before pressing the fire test button…
A
Wait for EICAS population
10
Q
The primary purpose of the TRU is to convert ___ power to ___ power.
A
AC, DC
11
Q
The primary purpose of the Inverter is to convert ___ power to ___ power.
A
DC, AC
12
Q
What areas have fire protection and detection?
A
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lavatory
13
Q
Which of the following flight control surfaces are “fly-by-wire?”
A
Rudder, elevator, and flaps
14
Q
Pushing these red guarded buttons on the Flight Control Mode panel does what?
A
Inhibits the respective FCM, enabling DIRECT mode.
15
Q
What is the primary purpose of the FCM?
A
Provide software-based assistance to the P-ACE and is required for NORMAL mode operation.
16
Q
Speed Brakes/Spoilers are _____ activated and ____ actuated.
A
Electrically activated and hydraulically actuated
17
Q
T/F: The ERJ170 has a “stick pusher”?
A
FALSE
18
Q
Automated stall recovery is accomplished by
A
AOA limiting
19
Q
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
A
Assist in landing gear extension EDP2 or Engine driven pump 2 failure.
20
Q
The PTU will automatically start in flight when engine 2 or EDP 2 fails and…
A
Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%
Flaps not set to zero or landing gear not up and locked
EDP1 Not failed
21
Q
When conducting single engine taxi on engine two, _____.
A
ACMP 1 Must stay ON for taxi
22
Q
When conducting single engine taxi on engine one, _____.
A
No action is necessary
23
Q
11.When will ACMP 2 turn on with the knob in AUTO?
A
In flight when the flaps are greater than zero
On the ground with flaps greater than zero and Thrust set to TOGA or ground speed greater than 50kts
In flight when EDP2 or Engine 2 fails
On the ground when EDP 1 is running and the parking brake is not set.
On the ground when EDP 1 is running and the parking brake is not set.
24
Q
What is the FO originating flow?
A
Airworthiness Acceptance - COMPLETE Display Controller Unit - SET GLARESHEILD lights control panel - As required ADS probe heaters - As required Reversionary panel - Checked PRD - Checked MFD - Set Audio Panel - Set for 02 Test 02 and interphone - Checked Alt gear extension - Checked
25
What number should be entered in the MTOW box?
77,985
26
Actual GTOW is 72927. V1 is ____kts
130kts
27
Actual GTOW is 73300. V1 is ___ kts.
131kts
28
Above what weight must new takeoff data be acquired?
74,290
29
Is takeoff permitted?
Yes, however the flight deck jumpseat cannot be occupied
30
The approved weight of an adult male in the summer for weight and balance calculations is ____ pounds.
190lbs
31
A Ticketed Bag is entered into the manifest by:
Entering the weight of a child for the appropriate season in the "Non-Std Wt" column to the appropriate zone
32
The APU should be ___ for this departure.
OFF
33
In Flight, the APU will automatically shut down for ____. (3 things)
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
34
On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down for ____. (8 things)
```
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
APU fire
APU EGT overtemperature
APU high oil temperature
APU low oil pressure
Sensor Fail
```
35
Systematically, with battery 1 missing, what is needed to start the APU?
APU cannot be started
36
What are the FO Before Start To and Below the Line Flows?
To the line:
CREW 02 - CHECK
PFD - CHECK
MFD - SET
```
Below the line:
SEATBELT/SHOULDER HARNESS - ON
BEACON - ON
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A and 1 - ON
DOORS/WINDOWS - CLOSED & LOCKED
TRANSPONDER - ON
```
37
What is the probable cause of this message? How is it fixed?
Pushback greater than 5kts. The message should extinguish automatically.
38
When will the thrust mode automatically change from TO1/2 to CLB1/2?
Landing gear retracted, airplane above 400ft AGL, and any change in vertical mode.
39
When will the thrust mode automatically change from CLB1/2 to CRZ?
Airplane is level at preselected altitude for 90 seconds and the airspeed is within 5kts (or .01 Mach) from preselected airspeed.
40
When will the thrust mode automatically change to CON?
Engine failure above 3,000AGL, or manually selected in the MCDU TRS menu
41
When will the thrust mode automatically change to GA?
Flaps are greater than zero and gear down or by pressing TOGA
42
ATTCS automatically commands RSV thrust when it is engaged, the thrust levers are at TOGA, and: (5 things)
```
Difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%
Engine failure during takeoff
Engine failure during go-around
Windshear detection on takeoff
Windshear detection on go-around
```
43
Why is it important to set the thrust lever to MAX during a winshear escape maneuver?
On takeoff, TOGA will provide TO-X Reserve, MAX will provide GA RSV (possibly more thrust)
44
T/F: RTO and HI autobrake settings provide the same deceleration.
FALSE
45
Prior to a single engine taxi using engine number 2, how must we configure the aircraft?
Leave ACMP1 ON after starting engine two
46
When will ADSP 1 and 2 become heated automatically?
After one engine start
47
What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?
DEN 0053Z 14013KT 10SM CLR 03/M08 29.92 RMK ALL RAMPS, TAXIWAYS, RUNWAYS 1/2 INCH WET SNOW.
ALL
48
What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?
DEN 0053Z 14013KT 5SM BR OVC100 03/M08 29.92
ALL
49
What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?
DEN 0053Z 14013KT 10SM FEW015 03/M08 29.92
ALL
50
At what phase of flight would you see an FMA like this?
After pressing the TOGA button at the gate
51
At what phase of flight would you see an FMA like this?
Lined up on the runway after the CA announces "heading checked" and arms the AT
52
Your FMA just changed to this. What is your current indicated airspeed?
60kts
53
At what altitude will HOLD be replaced with TO on the FMA?
400ft
54
Is VNAV engaged? How do you know?
Yes. FLCH is magenta denoting VNAV is ON
55
Is VNAV engaged? How do you know?
No. FPA is green denoting VNAV is OFF
56
How do you know if VNAV is engaged?
The active vertical mode is magenta
57
What is FLCH?
Can be used with VNAV ON or Maximum performance climbs and descents (TOGA or IDLE)
58
What thrust mode will be engaged after pressing the FPA button on the GP?
SPDt
59
When will SPDe become active? (3 conditions)
FLCH green
FLCH magenta
OVSP amber
60
What button on the GP is used to turn VNAV on and off?
VNAV
61
T/F: If I'm descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in FMS speeds (no speed intervention), the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.
TRUE
62
T/F: If I'm descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in Manual Speeds and VNAV ON, the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.
FALSE
63
T/F: If I'm descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in FMS Speeds (no speed intervention) and VNAV OFF, the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.
TRUE
64
What is the proper windshear escape maneuver steps?
Apply MAX thrust
Follow FD guidance
No configuration changes until the wind shear warning message extinguishes
No configuration changes until terrain clearance is assured.
65
Is strict adherence to a Resolution Advisory always mandatory?
NO
66
Minimum fuel provides 45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon _____________.
1,500ft, Green Dot, Clean Configuration
67
Each of the two main fuel tanks is broken into three parts: the main compartment where fuel is stored and __. (2 things)
Surge
| Collector
68
When set to AUTO, when will AC Fuel Pump 2 turn on? (4 things)
Engine 2 Start
APU Start
XFEED LOW 1
Main Ejector 2 Fai
69
When set to AUTO, when will AC Fuel Pump 1 turn on? (3 things)
Engine 1 Start
XFEED LOW 2
Main Ejector 1 Fail
70
Describe how fuel XFEED works?
Energizes the high side ACFP and sends that fuel to both engines
71
Systematically, what causes a FUEL LO LEVEL Warning message?
Any time the fuel sensor in the collector tank does not detect fuel
72
T/F: The ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message will extinguish after the RAT is deployed.
FALSE
73
After the RAT is deployed, it takes control of the AC ESS BUS. What items are on this bus? (4 items)
ACMP 3A
ACFP 2
Slat Channel 2
Flap Channel 1
74
If the LFE is not in the database, how does the pilot set landing field elevation for pressurization?
Move the MODE Selector to LFE CTRL and move the LFE knob DOWN or UP. This changes the LFE indication on the EICAS
75
With the Pressurization MODE Knob in AUTO, pressing the DUMP button will ____. (4 things)
Turn the Re-circulation Fans OFF
Turn PACK 1 OFF
Turn PACK 2 OFF
Modulate the outflow valve to maintain a cabin altitude climb to 12,400ft at a rate of 2,000fpm
76
With the Pressurization MODE Knob in MAN, pressing the DUMP button will ____. (3 things)
Turn the Re-circulation Fans OFF
Turn PACK 1 OFF
Turn PACK 2 OFF
77
The positive pressure relief valve will open when differential pressure reaches ___ so as to not reach the maximum differential pressure of ___.
8.6, 8.8
78
Each PSU (passenger Service Unit) contains ___ masks that supply oxygen for approximately ___ minutes.
3, 12
79
SkyWest minimum holding speed 6,000 feet and below is ____kts. Minimum hold speed 6,001 and above is ___kts.
200, 210 or green dot, whichever is higher
80
Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓5
→15
Calculate Vapp
135
81
Vref is 139 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓6
→15
Calculate Vapp
142
82
```
Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓40
→7
Gust Increment 8
Calculate Vapp
```
150
83
```
Vref is 130 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓24
→7
Gust Increment 8
Calculate Vapp
```
150
84
Vref is 130 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓0
→0
Calculate Vapp
130
85
```
Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓0
→35
Gust Increment 7
Calculate Vapp
```
137
86
The easiest and most preferred method for performing a Landing Performance Assessment is:
Using ACARS
87
Should ACARS fail, the next best option for calculating landing distance and approach speeds are
Using the TLR on the Release and the QRH
88
Should ACARS Fail and we divert to an unplanned airport, what resources should we use to calculate landing speeds and distance?
QRH Operational Landing Distance
| QRH Approach Speeds
89
If we were to run a QRH procedure for an Electrical Emergency, the QRH will tell us to multiply the _______ by 1.31 (Dry) to calculate a landing distance for landing Flaps 3.
Unfactored landing distance
90
What resource do you have on your EFB to help determine Landing Legalities, promote communication with the dispatcher, and aid in the decision to land on a particular contaminated runway and where can you find this resource?
Runway Condition Decision Matrix, Company Manuals>Quick Reference Library
91
Should the CA's ADS system fail, the system will automatically revert to system ___. If that fails, the system will revert automatically to system ___.
3, 2
92
The primary navigation system in the ERJ is:
FMS
93
What are the lowest minimums allowed for this GPS approach? (enter numbers only; no MSL, Ft, AGL)
910
94
How many methods exist to lower the landing gear from the flight deck?
3
95
What does the Electrical Override Switch do?
Bypasses the PSEM and commands gear extension in the same sequence as normal operation
96
What does the Alternate Gear Extension lever do?
Releases residual hydraulic pressure in the landing gear lines and opens all landing gear uplocks
97
T/F: Pulling the Alternate Gear Extension lever will release all hydraulic pressure in HYD SYS 2.
FALSE
98
T/F: Autobrakes HI and RTO are equal in deceleration rates
FALSE
99
Two ERJs are flying parallel approaches in SFO. They see each other so they do not react to the inevitable RA. They are wingtip to wingtip and have the same Vapp. Both planes round out, flare, and touch down at similar points on their respective runways. One plane uses autobrake MED and FULL REV thrust all the way to a stop. The other plane uses autobrake MED all the way to a stop. Which aircraft will use more distance to stop?
Both aircraft stop in the same distance
100
Two ERJs are flying parallel approaches in SFO. They see each other so they do not react to the inevitable RA. They are wingtip to wingtip and have the same Vapp. Both planes round out, flare, and touch down at similar points on their respective runways. One plane uses autobrake MED and FULL REV thrust all the way to a stop. The other plane uses autobrake MED all the way to a stop. which one will have higher brake temperatures?
The aircraft with autobrake MED
101
What is automatic wheel braking?
A feature that prevents the main landing gear from being retracted with the wheels spinning
102
What is Antiskid Protection?
A feature available above 10kt that controls the amount of hydraulic pressure applied to the brakes and, if necessary, reduces the wheel brake pressure in order to recover wheel speed and prevent skidding
103
What is Locked Wheel Protection?
A feature available above 30kt that compares wheel speed signals in the main gear. If there is a difference in wheel speeds greater than 33%, it commands zero brake pressure to the slower wheel
104
What is Touchdown Protection?
A feature that prevents the aircraft from touching down with the main landing gear brakes applied
105
After a complete loss of HYD SYS 1 and HYD SYS 2, how should the aircraft be stopped after landing?
Emergency/Parking Brake
106
When shutting down Engine 2 on taxi-in, ____.
Ensure the aircraft is straight
107
During a ferry flight, what manual do you have available to you to ensure all cabin tasks are completed correctly including door operations?
NRFO
108
T/F: With a jet bridge available and connected, you are permitted to conduct a single engine turn with the left engine running.
TRUE
109
With a jet bridge available and connected, during a single engine turn with the left engine running, may boarding commence during fueling operations?
NO
110
Who is permitted to be onboard the aircraft during refueling operations with an engine running?
Captain
First Officer
Flight Attendants
