Group 8/7/19 Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

Learning issues

A

Learning issues:

  • Anatomy of forearm (elbow to knuckles, bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments)
  • Bones (structure, development, healing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

lateral epicondylitis cause and sign*

A
  • cause: overuse of muscles that attach to the lateral epicondyle, called “tennis elbow. Microtears of the proximal attachment of the extensor muscles
  • sign: pain over lateral epicondyle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

medial epicondylitis cause and sign*

A
  • similar to lateral, but at medial epicondyle

- called “golfer’s elbow”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

anatomical snuffbox: appearance and composition involved*

A
  • triangular depression of posterolateral wrist

- formed by abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which bones develop from intramembraneous ossification vs. endochondral ossification*

A
  • intramembraneous develops bones of calvarium, facial bones, and clavicle
  • endochondral ossification develops bones of axial skeleton, appendicular skeleton, and base of skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

major difference between long vs. short bone growth

A
  • long bones go through endochondral ossification and develop a primary and secondary ossification center
  • short bones only develop a primary ossification center (except for the calcaneus, has secondary)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

major structural parts of the long bone

A
  • epiphyses are the swollen ends of bone
  • diaphysis is the middle, shaft part
  • compact bone envelopes
  • spongy bone inside the swollen ends
  • medullary cavity within the shaft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

synostosis

A

process by which diaphysis fuses with epiphysis during long bone growth, stops the growth of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

bone matrix structure and function

A
  • matrix has mineral calcium phosphate in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals, type 1 collagen, and other noncollagenous proteins
  • makes it a hard tissue that provides support and protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lacunae

A

spaces within the bone matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

osteocyte, definition and location

A
  • the mature bone cell enclosed by bone matrix that was previously secreted as an osteoblast
  • located within the lacunae and canaliculi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

canaliculi

A

tunnels within the mineralized matrix of bone that connect adjacent lacunae and allow contact between neighboring osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

osteoprogenitor cells

A

derived from mesenchymal stem cells in the bone marrow, give rise to osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

osteoblasts: what are they, what do they differentiate from, what are measurers of their activity*

A
  • cells that build bone by secreting type 1 collagen and catalyzing mineralization in alkaline environment via ALP (an enzyme), they make extracellular matrix of bone.
  • differentiate from mesenchymal cells in the periosteum
  • osteoblastic activity is measured by bone ALP, osteocalcin, propeptides of type 1 procollagen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

osteoclasts function and origin*

A
  • Dissolves (“crushes”) bones by secreting H+ and collagenases, resorbs bone
  • Differentiates from fusion of monocyte/macrophage lineage precursors.
  • Markedly acidophilic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

types of bone

A

compact (dense) or spongy (cancellous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

compact bone

A

compact, dense layer that forms the outside of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

spongy bone

A

sponge-like meshwork that has trabeculae and forms the interior of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

periosteum

A

a sheath of dense fibrous connective tissue that covers the bone, except in areas where bones touch each other
contains osteoprogenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

endosteum

A
  • the lining tissue of the compact bone that faces the marrow cavity and the trabeculae of the spongy bone within the cavity
  • contains osteoprogenitor cells that differentiate into osteoblasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

red bone marrow

A

contains blood cells and reticular cells and fibers that support the developing blood cells and vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

yellow marrow

A

located in the marrow cavity, more common in adults

contains fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

osteon

A

mature bone is composed of cylindrical structural units called osteons (Haversian systems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

lamellae

A

circles within the osteon that surround the Haversian canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Haversian canal
longitudinal canals at the center of the osteon that contains the vascular and nerve supply of the osteon
26
lamellar bone
another name for mature bone
27
perforating (Volkmann) canals
- span the lamellar bone horizontally | - allows blood vessels and nerves to travel between endosteal and periosteal surfaces
28
nutrient foramina
- openings in the bone through which blood vessels pass to reach the marrow - arteries will use these to enter the marrow cavity and provide blood to bone shafts
29
nutrient arteries
- come from the periosteal buds during development | - supply diaphysis and epiphysis with blood
30
what is the major difference between endochondral and membranous ossification?*
- in endochondral ossification, a cartilaginous model of bone is first made by chondrocytes. Then osteoclasts and osteblasts replace the model with woven bone, which is remodeled to lamellar bone - in membranous ossification, woven bone is formed directly without cartilage. Later, it's remodeled to lamellar bone.
31
what will stimulate vs. inhibit osteoclast activity?*
- RANKL (RANK ligand that is secreted by osteoblasts) will stimulate RANK receptors on the osteoclasts. - RANK receptors can be blocked by OPG (osteoprotegerin, a RANKL decoy receptor), to decrease osteoclast activity
32
parathyroid hormone function*
- secreted by the parathyroid glands, regulates calcium and phosphate levels in extracellular fluid. - at low, intermittent levels, exerts anabolic effects (building bone) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts (indirect) - chronically elevated levels of PTH can lead to hyperparathyroidism and cause catabolic effects
33
estrogen function*
inhibits apoptosis in bone-forming osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in bone-resorbing osteoclasts causes closure of epiphyseal plates during puberty
34
estrogen deficiency effect*
elevated cycles of bone remodeling and bone resorption, which increases risk of osteoporosis
35
most commonly fractured carpal bone, cause, and effect*
- scaphoid, FOOSH | - complications of proximal scaphoid fractures include avascular necrosis and nonunion due to retrograde blood supply.
36
dislocation of which carpal bone can cause acute carpal tunnel syndrome?*
lunate
37
carpal tunnel syndrome: cause and signs*
cause: entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel (between transverse carpal ligament and carpal bones), causes nerve compression signs: paresthesia, pain, numbness in median nerve. Thenar eminence atrophies, but still has sensation. Positive Tinel sign (percussion of wrist causes tingling), Phalen manuever (90 wrist flexion causes tingling)
38
thenar vs hypothenar eminence location*
thenar eminence is oval area under thumb; hypothenar eminence is oval area under pinky
39
thenar eminence innervation*
median nerve
40
thenar eminence muscles and actions*
OAF: Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis OAF: Oppose, Abduct, and Flex
41
hypothenar eminence innervation*
ulnar nerve
42
hypothenar eminence muscles and actions*
OAF: Opponens digiti minimi, Abductor digiti minimi, Flexor digiti minimi brevis OAF: Oppose, Abduct, Flex
43
muscles that abduct the fingers, and innervation*
DAB: dorsals abduct | dorsal interossei muscles, innervated by ulnar nerve
44
muscles that adduct the fingers, and innervation*
PAD: palmars adduct | palmar interossei muscles, innervated by ulnar nerve
45
what are the muscles that flex at the MCP joint, extend PIP and DIP joints, and their innervations?*
lumbrical muscles are on the metacarpal bones | 1st and 2nd innervated by median; 3rd and 4th innervated by ulnar
46
osteoid
the initial unmineralized bone, will undergo mineralization triggered by matrix vesicles
47
how do osteoblast processes communicate with each other?
gap junctions
48
what forms in the bone under an osteoclast?
resorption bay (Howship lacuna)
49
calcitonin: what is it secreted by, and what is its effects?*
secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. | Inhibits bone resportion, inhibiting effect of PTH on osteoclasts. Decreases elevated blood calcium levels to normal.
50
osteoblast cell morphology
cuboidal or polygonal, mononuclear cell; basophilic cytoplasm; negative Golgi
51
osteocyte cell morphology
small, oval, mononuclear cell; pale cytoplasm; long cell processes
52
osteoclast cell morphology
large, multinuclear cell; acidophilic cytoplasm; ruffled border; underlying Howship lacuna
53
how do osteoblasts modulate the local concentration of phosphate ions in the bone matrix?
osteoblasts regulate the activity of an enzyme TNAP, tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase, which hydrolyzes phosphate groups
54
what ions must increase in the extracellular matrix before mineralization can occur, and how does this happen?
- Ca2+ and PO4 ions must be accumulated in the extracellular matrix - osteocalcin binds to Ca2+, higher Ca2+ concentration causes osteoblasts to secrete more TNAP, to increase phosphate ion concentration
55
two processes by which a bone fracture can repair
direct (primary) or indirect (secondary) bone healing
56
direct (primary) bone healing
fractured bone is surgically stabilized with compression plates, to restrict movement bone undergoes internal remodeling. Osteoclast cutting cones cross fracture line, create longitudinal resorption canals, filled with osteoblasts
57
indirect (secondary) bone healing
involves periosteum and surrounding soft tissues, endochondral and intramembraneous ossification will occur with nonrigid or semirigid bone fixation process includes fracture hematoma -> soft callus -> hard callus -> bone remodeling
58
what is initially formed after a bone fracture?
fracture hematoma: collection of blood that surrounds the fractured ends of the bone
59
what does a fracture hematoma become next?
gradually replaced with granulation tissue, a loose connective tissue that has collagen type 3 and 2 fibers
60
what does the granulation tissue become next?
granulation tissue transforms into fibrocartilaginous soft callus, giving fracture site a stable, semirigid structure
61
what does the soft callus become next?
a hard callus: formed from osteoprogenitor cells from the periosteum, differentiate into osteoblasts, lay down osteoid. Initially is spongy bone, gradually replaced by compact bone. The hard callus is more solid and rigid.
62
bone remodeling
happens after the hard callus develops. Transforms the new woven bone into lamellar mature bone. Osteoclasts resorb the hard callus.
63
how long does bone healing usually take, what can expedite the process?
usually takes 6-12 to heal bone in healthy individuals expedited by setting the bone (reapproximating the normal anatomic configuration), and holding the parts in place by internal fixation (pins, screws, plates) or external fixation (casts, pins, screws)
64
the junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis
metaphysis
65
what is used to connect the periosteum to the outer surface?
Sharpey fibers
66
what process elongates endochondral bone?
interstitial growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal growth plate
67
guyon canal syndrome*
- compression of the ulnar nerve at the wrist. Usually seen in cyclists due to pressure from handlebars - Guyon canal includes the ulnar nerve and ulnar artery
68
when is clawing sign likely to be seen, what kind of nerve damage?*
distal lesions of median or ulnar nerves
69
"ulnar claw" location of lesion, presentation and context*
lesion of distal ulnar nerve | when the person asked to extend fingers, they aren't able to extend the 4th and 5th digits
70
"popes blessing" location of lesion, presentation and context*
lesion of proximal median nerve | when the person asked to make a fist, they can't flex their 1st-3rd digits
71
"median claw" location of lesion, presentation and context*
lesion of distal median nerve | when person asked to extend their fingers, their 2nd and 3rd digits remain flexed
72
"OK gesture" location of lesion, presentation and context*
lesion of proximal ulnar nerve | when person asked to make a fist, their 4th and 5th digits remain extended
73
de quervain tendosynovitis*
noninflammatory thickening of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons. Person has pain or tenderness at radial styloid. Positive Finkelstein test (pain at radial styloid with active or passive stretch of thumb tendons)
74
ganglion cyst*
fluid filled swelling overlying joint or tendon sheath, most commonly at dorsal side of wrist. Arises from herniation of dense connective tissue.
75
radial head subluxation (nursemaid's elbow)*
common elbow injury in children under 5. Caused by a sudden pull on the arm, so immature annular ligament slips over the head of the radius. Injured arm held in flexed in pronated position.
76
bones of the wrist*
- start at the more proximal region, thumb side, move across, then from distal region back across - "so long to pinky, here comes the thumb": scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, hamate, capitate, trapezoid, trapezium
77
metacarpal neck fracture*
also called Boxer's fracture. Common fracture caused by direct blow with a closed fist. Most commonly seen in 4th or 5th metacarpal.
78
which tendons are inside of the carpal tunnel, where is this located?*
- carpal tunnel is located in the middle of the plane of the wrist - flexor digitorum profundus tendons are dorsal - flexor digitorum superficialis tendons that are palmar - median nerve and flexor policus longus tendons are lateral, towards the thumb side