Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

2A > GU > Flashcards

GU Flashcards

1
Q

Define Acute Kidney Injury?

A

An abrupt and sustained rise in serum urea and creatinine levels due to a rapid decline in eGFR. This leads to failure to maintain fluid, electrolyte and acid base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the criteria for AKI?

A

Rise in creatinine level > 26umol/l in 48hours
Rise in creatinine level > 1.5x the baseline
Urine output <0.5ml/Kg/hr for >6 consecutive hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give some causes of AKI?

A 
Pre-renal = NSAIDs/ACEis (= hypoperfusion), dehydration, haemorrhage, shock, cardiac failure and cirrhosis
Intra-renal = acute tubular necrosis due to toxins, thrombosis/embolism, glomerular damage
Post-renal = urinary tract obstruction e.g. malignancy, stones or compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

S&S of AKI

A

Palpable kidneys/bladder, oliguria, oedema, hypertension, dehydration, fatigue, dysponea, weakness, nausea/vominting, confustion, seizures etc.
S&S depend greatly on cause!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the basic treatment for the 3 types of AKI?

A 
Pre-renal = correct volume depletion with fluids and give antibiotics if septic
Intra-renal = refer to nephrology
Post-renal = catheterise and consider CT-KUB. Stent if obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat hyperkalaemia?

A

Insulin and dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three types of Renal Replacement Therapy?

A

Heamofiltration - most commonly used (exchange via convection)
Haemodialysis - exchange via diffusion
Peritoneal dialysis - used commonly in CKD (uses the peritoneum as an exchange surface adn can be done from home)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Complications of Renal Replacement Therapy?

A

Increased risk of cardiovascular disease, infection, malignancy adn amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define chronic kidney disease?

A

A eGFR <60ml/min/1.73m2 for >3months with or without evidence of kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of CKD?

A

T2DM, hypertension, PCKD, amyloidosis, priamry glomerulonephritis, SLE and vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

S&S of CKD ?

A

Weight loss, anorexia, oliguria, haematuria, nausea/vomiting, insomnia, itching, oedema, anaemia, fatigue, amenorrhoea and erectile dysfunction.
Symptoms occur late in disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of CKD?

A

Reduce BP to <130/80 - ACEis, diuretics and CCBs
Reduce PTH if raised to protect bones - give phosphate binders and calcium supplements
Renal replacement therapy and kidney transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you differentiate CKD from AKI?

A

Normochromic anaemia, small kidneys and osteodystrophy indicate CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications of CKD?

A

Anaemia (due to low EPO), bone disease/pain, autonomic dyfunction (e.g. postural hypotension and disturbed GI motility), cardiovascular disease and skin disease.
Decreased cerebral function and seizures in severe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADPKD vs ARPKD

A 
ADPKD = Autosomal dominant mutation in the PKD1/PKD2 genes. It leads to cyst formation and kidney function decline throught life.
ARPKD = Autosomal recessive mutation in teh PKHD1 gene. It leads to cyst formation and kidney function decline in infancy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S&S of ADPKD?

A

Bilateral kidney enlargement with cysts, hypertension, uric acid renal stone formation, haematuria, nocturia, abdominal pain and reduced kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnostic criteria for ADPKD?

A 
Diagnose if:
15-39 = 3 or more cysts (uni/bilateral)
40-59 = 2 or more cysts on each kidney
60+ = 4 or more cysts on each kidney
Diagnosis can not be excluded in under 30s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

S&S of ARPKD?

A

Enlarged polyscystic kindeys, renal cysts/hepatic fibrosis in infancy and reduced renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment for PKDs?

A

No direct treatment, remove cysts/kidneys, ACEis for blood pressure control and analgesics.
SCREEN CLOSE RELATIVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of Nephritic syndrome?

A

IgA nephropathy due to streptococcal infection (often of the throat), SLE, ANCA vasculitits, Hep B/C infection, systemic sclerosis and malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S&S of nephritic syndrome?

A

Moderate-large eGFR decrease, haematuria, <2g/24hrs proteinuria, hypertension, oliguria, nausea and anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of Nephrotic syndrome?

A

Podocyte abnormalities.
Primary = Minimal Change Disease, Membranous Nephropathy, Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Secondary = DM, amyloid build-up, infections, RA and SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

S&S of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Normal - mild decrease in eGFR (does NOT develop into AKI), hypoalbuminaemia, pitting oedema and proteinuria > 3g/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is minimal change disease?

A

Seen commonly in children, kidneys appear normal under light microscope but under electron microscope fusion of foot processes can be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is membranous nephropathy?
IgG deposits in teh basement membrane lead to damage - occurs due to autoimmune disease, infection and drugs
26
What is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
segmental scarring of the glomeruli
27
What are the main complications of nephrotic syndrome?
Increased susceptibility to infection (Igs lost in urine), increased risk of thromboembolism and hyperlipidaemia (liver goes into overdrive due to low albumin)
28
Where do renal stones classicly lodge?
Pelviureteric junction, pelivic brim and vesicoureteric junction
29
What are the 4 types of renal stones?
Calcium stones, uric acid stones, infection induced stones and cystine stones
30
S&S of renal colic?
Rapid onset severe spasamodic loin to groin pain relieved by leaning forward, pain worse on drinking, dysuria, haematuria, reccurent UTIs
31
Treatment for renal colic?
Strong analgesics e.g. diclofenac, antiemetics, nifedipine/tamulosin to promote expulsion. Sodium bicarbonate = uric acid stones Cystine binders = cystine stones Bendroflumethiazide = hypercalcuria
32
What is hydronephrosis?
dilation of the renal pelvis (usually due to obstruction) leading to lasting kidney damage
33
What is the difference between a complicated and an uncomplicated UTI?
``` Uncomplicated = in a healthy non-pregant female with normally functioning urinary tract Complicated = in a male, pregnant female or any patient with an abnormal urinary tract/systemic disease involving the kidney ```
34
Common causes of UTIs?
KEEPS = Klebsiella spp., E.coli, Enterococci, Proteus spp. and Staphylococcus spp.
35
S&S of pyelonephritis?
UPPER UTI Loin pain, fever, pyuria - classic triad Nausea, vomiting, severe headache, rigours and oliguria
36
S&S of cystitis?
LOWER UTI | Smelly/cloudy urine, loin tenderness, dysuria, frequency, urgency and haematuria
37
Causes of prostatits?
Strep. faecalis, E.coli and chlamydia
38
S&S of prostatitis?
Fever, rigours, pain on ejaculation, pelvic pain, tender prostate, hesitancy/incomplete emptying/straining/dysuria etc. Reccurent UTIs if chronic
39
Causes of urthethritis?
Nisseri gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasm genitalium, trauma, urethral stricture and urinary caliculi
40
S&S of urethritis?
Skin lesions, dysuria, discharge (pus/blood), urethral pain, fever, nausea/vomiting, penile dyscomfort etc. OFTEN ASYMPTOMATIC
41
Treatment of gonorrhoea and chlamydia?
``` Chlamydia = oral azithromycin stat or 1 week doxycycline Gonorrhoea = IM ceftriaxone with oral azithromycin ```
42
Where does the enlargement occur from in BPH?
The inner transitional zone of the prostate
43
S&S of BPH?
Enlarged bladder, nocturia, frequency, urgency, poor stream/flow, hesitancy, haematuria, incomplete bladder emptying. DOES NOT affect fertility/cause erectile problems
44
DRE of PBH vs prostatitis vs cancer?
``` BPH = enlarged but smooth prostate Prostatits = tender, hot and hard prostate Cancer = enlarged, hard and irregular prostate ```
45
Treatment for BPH?
Alpha-1-antagonists (e.g. tamulosin), 5-alpha-reductase-inhibitors (e.g. finasteride). Transurethral recection/incision of the prostate if urinary retention or severe haematuria
46
What is an epididymal cyst?
A smooth extra-testicular spherical cyst which develops at the head of the epidiymis. It lies above and behind the testes and contains a clear/milky fluid
47
S&S of an epididymal cyst?
Testicular lump which will transluminate. | Pain if large. The tetis is palpable seperatley from the cyst
48
What is a hydrocele?
An abnormal fluid collection within the tunica vaginalis
49
How can hydroceles be classified?
``` Primary = patent processus vaginalis Secondary = tumour, trauma, infection or oedema Simple = overproduction of fluid in the tunica vaginalis Communicating = processus vaginalis fails to close so peritoneal fluid can communicate with the scrotum ```
50
S&S of a hydrocele?
Scrotal englargement with non-tender (unless infected), smooth and cystic swelling. It will transluminate and is found anterior to and below the testis
51
What is a varicocele?
An abnormal dilation of the testicular veins in the panpiniform venous plexus due to venous reflux
52
S&S of a varicocele?
Disteneded scrotal blood vessels, dull ache, scrotal heaviness meaning the affected scrotum hangs lower. Mainly affects teh left testicle
53
S&S of testicular torsion?
Sudden onset of pain in one of the testis which makes walking uncomfortable, hot/red/swollen/inflammed testis which lies higher and more transversley, nausea and vomiting
54
Name all the UTIs
Upper: Pyelonephritis = infection of the renal parenchyma and soft tissues of the renal pelvis/upper ureter Lower: Cystitis = infection of the bladder, Urethritits = urethral inflammation, Prostatitis = prostate inflammation
55
Risk factors for bladder cancer?
Smoking, drugs e.g. cyclophosphamide, chronic urinary retention, being male, indwelling catheterisation and occupational risk e.g. rubber workers
56
S&S of bladder cancer?
painless haematuria, reccurrent UTIs, voididing irritability
57
Treatment for bladder cancer?
No muscle invasion = surgical resection and MDC chemotherapy Local muscle invasion = radical cystectomy and M-VAC chemotherapy Metastasized = palliative chemotherapy
58
Where to prostate cancers arise from and where do they commonly metastasise?
Peripheral zone of the prostate gland | Bone lymph node, brain liver and lung metastasis (they're slow growing)
59
S&S of prostate cancer?
Nocturia, hesitancy, poor stream, terminal dribble, obstruction of the urethra, weight loss, bone pain and anaemia
60
What are marker of prostate cancer?
``` Blood = PSA increased Urine = PCA3 ```
61
Treatment of prostate cancer?
Confined to prostate = radical prostectomy/active surveillence, radiotherapy and hormone therapy Metastatic disease = androgen receptor blockers or endocrine therapy (e.g. orchidectomy/LHRH agonists)
62
What age is the cut off for radical prostectomy (above this age use active surveillence)
70 years
63
Give some examples of testicular tumours?
Germ cell origin = seminous and teratomas | Non-germ cell origin = leydig/sertoli cell tumours and sarcomas
64
S&S of testicular cancer?
Hydrocele, abdominal mass, painless testicular lump, testicular or abdominal pain
65
What are markers of testicular cancer?
Serum alpha-fetoprotein or Beta-hCG
66
Treatment of testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy if metastasized. Offer sperm storage!
67
Risk factors for renal cancer?
Smoking, obesity, hypertension, renal failure, RRT, PKD, VHL syndrom and being male
68
S&S of renal cancer?
Adbominal mass, varicocele, hypertension, polycythemia, anaemia, painful haematuria and loin pain
69
Treatment of renal cancer?
Local disease = nephrectomy, cyoablation or chemotherapy | Metastatic/locally advanced disease = Interleukin-2 and Interferon-alpha treatment, biological therapies or temsirolimus

2A (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions