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Health and Environment > H& E micro b > Flashcards

H& E micro b Flashcards

1
Q

The appearance of Koplickk spots can be identified with what disease?

A

Measles

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2
Q

True pr False? The family classification for the measles virus is morbillivirus while the genus classification is paramyxoviridae.

A

FALSE!!! The family classification - Paramyxoviridae

Genus classification - morbillivirus

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3
Q

How long is the incubation period for Measles ?

A

10-14 days

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4
Q

What is the duration of the Prodromal phase in Measles?

A

2-3 days

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5
Q

When does the prodromal begin after exposure?

A

9 to 10 days after exposure

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6
Q

Which disease is associated with Hirschberg spots ?

A

Measles

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7
Q

What is the incubation period in rubella?

A

16 to 21 days

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8
Q

What is the Incubation period for Herpes?

A

4 days

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9
Q

True or False? HSV is cleared by neurons.

A

FALSE!! It is not cleared by any neurons and the ganglia become lifelong reservoirs of virus.

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10
Q

What is a primary infection for individual who is inferred with Herpes virus?

A

First infection with either HSV1 or 2 in an individual with no pre-existing antibodies to either type.
* lesions and severe systemic symptoms are typically present

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11
Q

What is a non-primary infection for individual who is inferred with Herpes virus?

A

First infection with either HSV1 or 2 in an individual with pre-existing antibodies to the other type.
* which typically mitigate the severity of HSV-2 symptoms.

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12
Q

What is the gold standard method used in diagnosis of Herpes?

A

Virus culture

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13
Q

What is the incubation period for Varicella- Zoster virus ( chicken- pox) ?

A

10-21 days

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14
Q

What is the test of choice for VZV?

A

PCR testing

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15
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose Infectious mononucleosis?

A

Hoagland’s criteria

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16
Q

Fill in the blanks.” IgG antibodies following primary infection have ________. “

A

Low avidity

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17
Q

Fill in the blanks. “ IgG antibodies mature over 2-4 months to _______”

A

High avidity

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18
Q

What are examples of Helminths infections of the GI tract?

A
  • Soil transmitted helminths
  • Hookworms
    -Necator americanus – “New World”
  • Ancylostoma duodenale – “Old world”
  • Ascaris lumbricoides
  • Trichuris trichiura
  • Strongyloides stercoralis
  • Enterobius vermicularis
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19
Q

What is the largest group of Helminths infecting humans?

A

Phylum NEMATODA (“roundworms”)

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20
Q

Which hookworm is a dog hookworm?

A

A. caninum

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21
Q

True or False? Female hookworms are smaller.

A

FALSE!! Male hookworms are smaller.

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22
Q

Which stage of hookworm larvae penetrates the skin of new host?

A

Filariform lava ( L3 or J3)

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23
Q

Which hookworm has 2 pairs of cutting teeth?

A

Ancylostoma duodenale

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24
Q

Which hookworm has 2 slicing blades?

A

Necator americanus

25
Q

What are the clinical features of Acute hookworm diseases?

A
  • Tissue necrosis within the mouth of the worm .
  • Blood loss
  • Patients present
    fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea with dark stool, weakness and pallor.
26
Q

What is the main symptom of Chronic hookworm disease?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia with pallor

27
Q

What is the treatment of S. stercoralis?

A

Albendazole
Ivermectin

28
Q

What is the most prevalent Helminth infection in the Caribbean?

A

Trichuris trichiura

29
Q

What are the symptoms of Trichuris dysentery syndrome?

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anaemia
  • Stunting
  • Bloody stools
  • Geophagia
  • Rectal prolapse - oedema of rectum
  • Finger Clubbing
  • Impaired cognitive development
30
Q

What are examples of the Non-opportunistic protozoan/protists?

A

Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia

31
Q

What are the examples of the opportunistic coccidia?

A
  • Cryptosporidium spp.
  • Cyclospora cayatenensis
  • Cytoisospora belli (Isospora belli)
32
Q

Which protozoa is the emerging causes of neurological and intestinal infections ?

A

Microsporidia

33
Q

What is the causative agent in Amoebiasis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

34
Q

What are the clinical features of Intestinal amoebiasis?

A

-Mimics ulcerative colitis
colicky abdominal pain
Tenesmus
Flatulence
weight loss
anorexia
chronic fatigue

35
Q

How are amoeba cysts killed?

A

Drying, superchlorination, heat>55oC

36
Q

How many nuclei are present within a cyst of Entamoeba histolytica?

A

4 nuclei

37
Q

What is the mechanism of reproduction for Giardia Trophozoites?

A

Binary fission

38
Q

What is the treatment for Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

39
Q

What is the infectious dose of Giardia?

A

10 cysts

40
Q

What is the major parasite found in Pigs?

A

Balntidium coli

41
Q

What is the treatment for B.coli?

A

Carbasone or tetracycline diiodohydroxyquin

42
Q

What is the most common cause of eosinophilic meningitis in the world?

A

Angiostrongylus cantonensis, the rat lungworm

43
Q

At what time is the best time to take a sample from suspected W. bancrofti infection?

A

At night , 10:00 p.m. - 4: 00 a.m.

44
Q

What is the treatment of W. bancrofti?

A
  • Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)
  • Kills adults and microfilariae
  • Ivermectin
  • Effective against microfilariae but not adults
  • Ivermectin + albendazole
45
Q

True or False? Taenia solium has has 7 to 13 primary lateral branches.

A

TRUE!!

46
Q

True or False? Taenia saginata has 15 to 20 primary lateral branches.

A

TRUE !!

47
Q

What are the three main species of Schistosomiasis affecting humans?

A
  • Schistosoma mansoni – sub Saharan Africa and Americas.
  • Schistosoma haematobium – Africa and Middle East.
  • S. japonicum - China, the Philippines, and Sulawesi
48
Q

What is the treatment for schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

49
Q

What is another name for Acute schistosomiasis?

A

Katayama’s fever

50
Q

What are the clinical features of Acute schistosomiasis?

A

Fever, cough, abdominal pain, diarrhea, hepatospenomegaly, and eosinophilia
Occasionally CNS lesions occur

51
Q

What are the clinical features of Chronic schistosomiasis?

A
  • Colonic polyposis with bloody diarrhea.
  • Portal hypertension with haematemesis and splenomegaly.
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • CNS lesions
52
Q

What is the aetiology of Scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabei

53
Q

What is the treatment for Norwegian scabies?

A
  • Topical salicylic acid cream
  • Topical DDT/benzocain-benzoate preparation for 7 days
  • Single 200 microgram/Kg dose of ivermectin
54
Q

What is the treatment of Scabies?

A

5% permethrin cream (Elimite)
1% gamma benzene hexachloride

55
Q

What is the causative agent for head and body lice?

A
  • Pediculus humanus capitis
  • Pediculus humanus corporis
56
Q

What are diseases transmitted by body lice?

A
  • Epidemic typhus - Rickettsia prowazekii
  • Trench fever - Bartonella quintana
  • Epidemic relapsing fever - Borrelia recurrentis
57
Q

What is the frontline drug for Malaria?

A

Chloroquine

58
Q
A

Health and Environment (3 decks)

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