HA Exam #2 Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
24-hour diet recall
A
-What a person has consumed within a 24-hour period
-during this recall, find out if this is a consistent diet
2
Q
Food diaries
A
most detailed and very specific food recall
3
Q
Direct Observation
A
watching someone eat/ watching someone be fed
4
Q
What factors have been seen to help people reach and maintain good health and reduce chronic disease?
A
healthy eating patterns and regular physical activity
5
Q
What are the 12 health history questions for nutritional subjective data?
A
- Eating Patterns
- Usual Weight
- changes in appetite, taste, smell, chewing and swallowing
- recent surgery, trauma, burns and infections
- Chronic illness
- vomiting, diarrhea, constipation
- food allergies
- medications and or nutritional supplements
- self care
- alcohol and drugs
- exercise and activity patterns
- family history
6
Q
What are you observing in the skin during a nutritional assessment?
A
skin should be smooth, no bruises, rashes, or flaking
7
Q
What are you observing in the hair during a nutritional assessment?
A
should be shiny, scalp intact and without lesions, and does not fall out easily
8
Q
What are you observing in a pts eyes during a nutritional assessment?
A
corneas are clear and shiny, membranes pink and moist, no bumps or sores
9
Q
What are you observing on the lips during a nutritional assessment?
A
should be smooth not chapped, cracked or swollen
10
Q
Tongue (nutritional assessment)
A
should be red, not swollen or abnormally smooth and no lesions
11
Q
gums (nutritional assessment)
A
should be pink and moist, no swelling or bleeding
12
Q
nails (nutritional assessment)
A
smooth and pink
13
Q
Derived body weight measures include…
A
-body weight as a percent of ideal body weight
-percent usual body weight
-recent weight change
14
Q
Body mass index
A
marker of optimal weight for height and indicator for obesity and protein-calorie malnutrition
BMI= weight (kg)/height(m)^2
15
Q
BMI of <18.5
A
underweight
16
Q
BMI of 18.5-24.9
A
normal weight
17
Q
BMI of 25.0-29.9
A
overweight
18
Q
BMI of 30.0-39.9
A
obesity
19
Q
BMI greater than or equal to 40
A
extreme obesity
20
Q
What are the indicators for iron status?
A
hemoglobin and hematocrit
21
Q
What are the indicators for cardiovascular risk?
A
Cholesterol with Triglycerides, LDL and HDL levels
22
Q
Marasmus
A
protein-calorie malnutrition (skinny looking people and can be visibly seen)
23
Q
Kwashiorkor
A
protein malnutrition (inside your body can not necessarily be seen on the outside)
24
Q
Epidermis
A
-replaces every 4 weeks
-outermost layer; thin but tough
-houses keratin
25
Dermis
-inner supportive layer
-consists of connective tissue (collagen) and elastic tissue
-nerves, sensory receptors, blood vessels and lymphatics are housed here
26
SubQ
-adipose tissue
-stores fat for energy, insulation and temp control, and cushions and protects
27
What are the functions of the skin?
-Protection (Thermal, physical, chemical, UV, and microorganisms)
-Perception
-Temp regulation (loss thru sweat and gain thru storage in adipose tissue)
-identification
-communication
-wound repair
-absorption and excretion
-Vit D production
28
Lanugo
fine hair
29
Vernix Caseosa
white, cheesy substance
30
Linea nigra
mid-abdominal dark line from stomach growth
31
Striae Gravidarum
stretch marks
32
Keloids
scars with increased height and width
33
Pigmentary disorders
increased incidence of pigment problems
34
Pseudofolliculitis
razor burn/bumps, ingrown hairs
35
Melasma
patchy tan to dark brown discoloration of the face
36
What is ABCDE?
Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and evolving
37
Pruritis
itching
38
What can hair loss on the lower extremities mean?
loss of circulation
39
What should you assess first?
hands
40
Nevus
mole
41
Pallor
white, anemia, shock, anxiety fear, exposure to cold etc
42
Erythema
redness, fever, inflammation
43
Cyanosis
blue, decreased perfusion, unoxygenated Hgb
44
Jaundice
yellow, excessive bilirubin; sclera and hard and soft palate of the mouth
45
Sunken fontanel
top of the infants head
46
Anasarca
generalized edema
47
Cherry angioma
bright red dots
48
ecchymosis
bruising
49
160 degree nail base is considered..
normal
50
a nail base greater than 180 is considered
late clubbing
51
What are the 3 parts of the sternum ?
manubrium, body and xiphoid process
52
How many ribs do you have and where are they located?
You have 12 pairs of ribs
-1-7 attached to the sternum
-8-10 attached to the costral margin above
-11-12 are floating
53
How many thoracic vertebra are there?
12
54
Acinus
functional respiratory unit (bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli)
55
Apgar Scoring system
-used for newborn's initial respiratory assessment
*7-10: good condition
*3-6: moderately depressed
*0-2: severely depressed
55
What are the functions of respiration?
1. Supplying oxygen
2. removing CO2
3. maintaining acid base balance
4. maintaining heat exchange
55
What is a normal ratio for comparing the anteroposterior to the transverse diameter?
1:2 or 5:7
55
Cheyene-strokes respirations
cyclic gradually wax and wane in regular pattern with periods of apnea
55
Where is the respiratory center in the brain?
pons and medulla
56
Biot's Respirations
irregular patterns with periods of apnea
57
Chronic obstructive breathing
normal inspiration with prolonged expiration (from increased airway resistance)
58
Barrel Chest
anteroposterior to transverse diameter is equal
59
Pectus excavatum
"funnel chest" sunken sternum (inward)
60
Pectus Carninatum
"pigeon breast" forward protrusion
61
Symmetric expansion
note any lag in expansion
62
Tactile Fremitus
a palpable vibration, produced by the larynx
63
Decreased Fremitus
any obstruction of vibration
64
Increased fremitus
occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissue
65
Pleural Friction fremitus
results from inflammation of the pleura
66
What does hyperresonance over the adult lung indicate?
emphysema or pneumothorax
67
Diaphragmatic excursion
map out the lower lung border in inspiration and expiration by use of percussion
68
What should the difference be between inspiration and expiration ?
it should be equal bilaterally and be 3-5 cm
69
Crackles
high pitches popping
70
Rhonchi
long, low pitched, course gurgling
71
Friction Rub
harsh grating sound
72
Wheezes
high-pitched whistling sound
73
Bronchophony
have pt say 99 (increased transmission of voice with increased density or consolidation)
74
Egophony
have pt say "ee" (sounds like an a with consolidation)
75
Whispered pectoriloquy
have pt whisper a phrase (normally faint, muffled increased with consolidation)
76
Cervical nodes:
drain the head and neck
77
Axillary nodes
drain the breast and upper arm
78
Epitrochlear node
drains the hand and lower arm; located in the antecubital fossa
79
Inguinal nodes
drain the lower extremities, the external genitalia and the anterior abdominal wall
80
Bilateral edema
indicated a systemic problem
81
Unilateral edema
indicates an obstruction or inflammation
82
What do enlarged nodes indicate?
infection, immunologic disease or malignant disease
83
What does a full bounding pulse indicate?
exercise, anxiety, fever and hyperthyroidism
84
What does a weak and thready pulse indicate?
shock and peripheral arterial disease
85
Epitrochlear lymph nodes are located in the
anticubital fossa
86
Inguinal lymph nodes are located in the
groin
87
What does an enlarged epitrocheal node indicate?
infection of the hand or forearm
88
Signs of arterial insufficiency
pallor, coolness, diminished pulse and strength
89
Unilateral swelling
signifies a local problem
90
Bilateral swelling
indicates a systemic problem
91
Bruit
indicated turbulent blood flow from partial occlusion
92
Venous ulcers
located on medial malleolus
93
Arterial ulcers
located on tips of toes, metatarsal heads, or lateral malleoli
94
Modified Allen Test
evaluates the adequacy of collateral circulation prior to cannulating the radial artery
*persistent pallor or sluggish return of color indicates occlusion of collateral circulation
95
Precordium
region on the anterior chest, over the heart and great vessels
96
Mediastinum
the middle third of the thoracic cavity between the lungs, contains the heart and great vessels
97
Base of the heart
the top
98
Apex of the heart
bottom of the heart
99
What are the 2 atrioventricular valves?
tricuspid and mitral
100
What are the two semi-lunar valves?
pulmonic and aortic valve
101
P wave
depolarization of the atria
102
PR interval
from the start of P wave to the beginning of QRS
103
QRS
depolarization of ventricles
104
T wave
repolarization of ventricles
105
QT interval
electrical systole of the ventricles
106
S1 heart sound
closure of the Mitral and Tricuspid valves
107
S2 heart sound
closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
108
S3 heart sound
"ventricular gallop"
caused by ventricles being resistant to filling during the rapid filling phase
systolic heart failure
109
S4 heart sound
"atrial gallop"
present at the end of diastole with resistance of the ventricles to filling
diastolic heart failure
110
Murmurs
result from turbulent blood flow caused by :
-increased velocity
-decreased viscosity
-structural defects
111
What are heart sounds described by:
-frequency or pitch
-intensity or loudness
-duration
-timing
112
What side of the stethoscope is used for soft, low-pitched sounds?
the bell (specifically for murmurs and extra heart sounds)
113
What is your cardiac output?
4-6 L/min (stroke volume x HR)
114
Preload
venous return, the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole
115
Frank-Starling Law
the greater the stretch, the stronger the cardiac contraction
116
After load
The resistance the heart has to pump against
117
Foramen Ovale
opening in the atrial septum, closes within 1st hour after birth
118
Ductus arteriosus
opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery, usually closes within 10-15 hrs after birth
119
What happens to your arterial pressure during pregnancy?
it decreases (reaches lowest point during 2nd trimester)
120
What is a characteristic sign of angina?
clenched fist
121
What is a heave or lift?
a sustained forceful thrusting of the ventricle during systole
122
where is the aortic valve located
second right intercostal space
123
where is the pulmonic valve located
second left intercostal space
124
where is the tricuspid valve located
left sternal border
125
where is the mitral valve located
fifth interspace near the left midclavicular line
126
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
persistence channel between left pulmonary artery to the aorta
127
Arteriosus septal defect
abnormal opening in atrial septum
128
Ventricular septal defect
abnormal opening in ventricular septum
