Haem Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

Ann Arbour staging system for lymphoma?

A

I - single node group
II - node on one side of the diaphragm
III - nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
IV - extra-nodal spread

The spleen is a lymph node in this case!

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2
Q

Elliptocytosis?

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

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3
Q

Teardrop cells?

A

Myelofibrosis

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4
Q

Film finding in coeliac (or any hyposplenism)

A

Howell-Jolly bodies
Spherocytes

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5
Q

G6PD inheritance?

A

X linked recessive (only males)

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6
Q

Hered spher inheritence?

A

AD

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7
Q

Neontal jaundice, maybe gallstones, how do you differentiate between G6PD and hered spher?

A

G6PD - African and Mediterranian
Hered spher - Northern European

(also G6PD only male)

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8
Q

Primaquine and haemolysis mentinoned? Also fava beans

A

GDPD

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9
Q

Burkitt’s gene?

A

C-myc t(8:14)

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10
Q

Lymphoma, ‘starry sky’ appearance on microscopy?

A

Burkitt’s

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11
Q

CA 125?

A

Ovarian Ca

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12
Q

CA 15-3?

A

Breast Ca

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13
Q

S-100?

A

Melanoma, schwannoma

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14
Q

Aplastic vs sequestration crisis in SCD?

A

Aplastic there is a fall in retics. Response to parvovirus infection

Sequestration causes a pooling of blood and increased retics usually with abdominal pain and haemodynamic compromise

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15
Q

Diagnostic test for hered spher?

A

EMA binding test

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16
Q

Chemo agent causing hypomagnasaemia?

A

Cisplatin

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17
Q

Haem question, aquagenic pruritis?

A

Polycythemia

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18
Q

DIC blood film?

A

Schistocytes

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19
Q

High plts and burning sensation in the hands?

A

ET

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20
Q

Treatment for ET

A

Hydroxycarbamide/hydroxyurea
Interferon alpha in young patients

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21
Q

TACO vs TRALI?

A

In TACO patient is HYPERtensive, often elderly with CCF

TRALI is rarer and patients are HYPOtensive

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22
Q

SCD chest crisis management

A

Oxygen therapy to maintain saturations > 95%
Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolaemia
Adequate pain relief
Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology

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23
Q

HUS or TTP?

A

Neuro signs point towards TTP

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24
Q

Investigation of choice in CLL?

A

Immuophenotyping via flow cytometry

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25
Preferred drug in tumour lysis prevention?
Rasburicase
26
Chemotherapy agent haemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide
27
Drug to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis with Cyclophosphamide use?
Mesna
28
Most common symptom of SVCO?
SOB
29
Deficiency in TTP? What should this do?
ADAMTS13 Cleave vWF
30
Change in haemoglobin in methaemoglobinaemia?
Oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+
31
Causes of methaemoglobinaemia?
drugs: sulphonamides, nitrates (including recreational nitrates e.g. amyl nitrite 'poppers'), dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, primaquine chemicals: aniline dyes
32
Management of methaemoglobinaemia?
NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency: ascorbic acid IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) if acquired
33
Most common inherited thrombophillia?
Factor V Leiden (activated protein C resistance)
34
Most common inherited bleeding disorder?
vWD
35
Anastrozole and letrozole mechanism? Most significant SE?
Aromatase inhibitors which reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis Osteoporosis/fracture
36
Symptoms of bleeding and isolated thrombocytopenia?
Think ITP
37
Management of ITP?
Emergency treatment: life-threatening or organ threatening bleeding Platelet transfusion, IV methylprednisolone and intravenous immunoglobulin Platelet count >30*109/L Observation Platelet count <30*109/L Oral prednisolone
38
Best screening test for hereditary angioedema between attacks?
C4 levels
39
Electrolyte low in tumour lysis?
Calcium
40
Treatment of TTP?
Plasma exchange Steroids and rituximab may also be used
41
Anaemia in a young Italian?
Thalassaemia
42
Cover for minor procedures in patients with vWD?
DDAVP
43
Preferred agent for TLS? Mechanism?
Rasburicase Urate acid oxidisation
44
Best initial blood test for CML?
BCR-ABL
45
DVT and or foetal loss?
Antiphospholipid
46
Pathogenesis of HIT?
IgG against platelet factor 4 and heparin
47
Most common manifestation of HIT?
DVT
48
Haemoglobinuria, anaemia, large vessel thrombosis in a young man?
PNH
49
Treatment for PNH?
Ecilizumab
50
Older man lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, hyperviscosity symptoms, IgM?
Waldenstrom's
51
Ig in Waldenstrom's?
IgM
52
First line treatment for early Hodgkin's?
Combined chemo (ABVD) and radiotherapy
53
Haemophilia inheritance pattern?
X linked recessive
54
After skin, what is the most common form of cancer in transplant patients?
Lymphoma
55
Microcytic anaemia with RAISED ferritin, increased iron in the stores?
Sideroblastic anaemia
56
Anti CD20 used in lymphoma?
Rituximab
57
Anaemia and low haptoglobin?
Suggests intravascualr haemolysis
58
What is low in G6PD
NADPH
59
Philadelphia chromosome?
CML t(9;22)
60
BCR-ABL function?
Tyrosine kinase
61
Imatinib?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
62
Lymphocyte predominant or deplete? Positive or negative prognostic factors?
Predominant is good Deplete bad
63
Low factor VIII? Low factor IX?
VIII - haemophilia A IX - haemophilia B
64
Renal failure, haemolysis just after starting malaria treatment?
Blackwater fever
65
What is responsible for GVHD?
Donor T-lymphocytes
66
What is responsible for TRALI?
Donor antibodies
67
LMWH action?
Binds to antithrombin III
68
First line treatment in APML?
ATRA
69
What's important to ensure before starting EPO therapy?
Iron stores - need to be replete
70
Auer rods?
AML
71
What is the most important acute blood test to measure in an acute leukaemia and why
Clotting screen - check no evidence of DIC